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Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
Refer to the exhibit.
How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
Refer to the Exhibit.
After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used
Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.
Which IP address is the source IP?
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right
What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?
Refer to the exhibit.
How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interlace Seria10. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?
What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?
What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?
How does IPsec provide secure networking for applications within an organization?
Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken so that neighbofing devices rapidly discover switch Cat9300?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right
Refer to Exhibit.
Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:
DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30
DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29
DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28
HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29
Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used
Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?
Which two features introduced in SNMPv2 provides the ability to retrieve large amounts of data in one request
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements:
• Consume as few IP addresses as possible.
• Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth.
Which set of configurations must be applied?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?
Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the internet.
What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?
SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet prefixes: 172. 31.0 .0/16.72.31.0.0724. and 172.31 0 0/25. How does the router handle the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running- config. Which command completes the configuration?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?
What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?
The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?
Drag and drop the management connection types from the left onto the definitions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?
Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled
Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?
Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?
Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:
• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.
• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.
• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.
• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.
Which configuration must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
Refer to the exhibit.
The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?
(Choose two.)
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
TESTED 18 May 2024
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