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156-215.81 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Internal Certificate Authority

B.

Token

C.

One-time Password

D.

Certificate

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Questions 5

Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen of an Access Role Object?

Options:

A.

Users

B.

Networks

C.

Time

D.

Machines

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Questions 6

You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

B.

Log Trimming is enabled.

C.

Logging has disk space issues

D.

Content Awareness is not enabled.

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Questions 7

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Options:

A.

Windows only

B.

Gaia only

C.

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

D.

SecurePlatform only

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Questions 8

Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.

Options:

A.

Five

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Four

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Questions 9

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

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Questions 10

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

B.

On-premise and Public Cloud

C.

Central and Local.

D.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

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Questions 11

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

SmartEvent

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Questions 12

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

Options:

A.

inform, ask, and block

B.

block, action, and warn

C.

action, inform, and ask

D.

ask, block, and notify

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Questions 13

URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time. What is the name of that technology?

Options:

A.

WebCheck

B.

UserCheck

C.

Harmony Endpoint

D.

URL categorization

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Questions 14

Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

Options:

A.

Log

B.

Full Log

C.

Detailed Log

D.

Extended Log

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Questions 15

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

IP pool NAT static NAT. hide NAT

B.

Static NAT hide NAT, IP pool NAT

C.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT hide NAT

D.

Static NAT automatic NAT hide NAT

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Questions 16

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

Options:

A.

CPM

B.

HTTPS

C.

FWD

D.

CPD

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Questions 17

In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

Options:

A.

Different computers or appliances.

B.

The same computer or appliance.

C.

Both on virtual machines or both on appliances but not mixed.

D.

In Azure and AWS cloud environments.

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Questions 18

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

C.

Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

D.

Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway

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Questions 19

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

Options:

A.

Tracking

B.

Log

C.

None

D.

Alert

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Questions 20

What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Options:

A.

Clustered Protocol

B.

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

C.

Control Cluster Protocol

D.

Cluster Control Protocol

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Questions 21

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

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Questions 22

Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Options:

A.

Connection Cache

B.

State Cache

C.

State Table

D.

Network Table

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Questions 23

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Options:

A.

Command line interface; WebUI

B.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

C.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

D.

GaiaUI; command line interface

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Questions 24

A layer can support different combinations of blades What are the supported blades:

Options:

A.

Firewall. URLF, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

B.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering. Content Awareness and Mobile Access

C.

Firewall. NAT, Content Awareness and Mobile Access

D.

Firewall (Network Access Control). Application & URL Filtering and Content Awareness

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Questions 25

Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Control Policy.

B.

Desktop Firewall Policy

C.

Mobile Access Policy.

D.

Threat Prevention Policy.

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Questions 26

Which one of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

B.

One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both

C.

Inline layer can be defined as a rule action

D.

Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

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Questions 27

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and

Options:

A.

add users to your Gaia system.

B.

assign privileges to users.

C.

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

D.

edit the home directory of the user.

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Questions 28

You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Options:

A.

show unsaved

B.

show save-state

C.

show configuration diff

D.

show config-state

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Questions 29

What Check Point tool is used to automatically update Check Point products for the Gaia OS?

Options:

A.

Check Point INSPECT Engine

B.

Check Point Upgrade Service Engine

C.

Check Point Update Engine

D.

Check Point Upgrade Installation Service

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Questions 30

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

156-215.81 Question 30

What is the most likely reason?

Options:

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

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Questions 31

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

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Questions 32

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

B.

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

C.

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

D.

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

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Questions 33

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

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Questions 34

The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

B.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

C.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

D.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

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Questions 35

Where can alerts be viewed?

Options:

A.

Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor

B.

Alerts can be seen in the Threat Prevention policy.

C.

Alerts can be seen in SmartUpdate.

D.

Alerts can be seen from the CLI of the gateway.

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Questions 36

In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

Options:

A.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.

B.

A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.

C.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.

D.

A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

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Questions 37

When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

Options:

A.

When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta

B.

When an interface fails the delta claims the priority

C.

When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority

D.

When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

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Questions 38

You had setup the VPN Community NPN-Stores' with 3 gateways. There are some issues with one remote gateway(l .1.1.1) and an your local gateway. What will be the best log filter to see only the IKE Phase 2 agreed networks for both gateways.

Options:

A.

action:”Key Install" AND 1.1.1.1 AND Quick Mode

B.

Blade:”VPN”AND VPN-Stores AND Main Mode

C.

action:”Key Install” AND 1.1.1.1 AND Main Mode

D.

Blade:”VPN”AND VPN-Stores AND Quick Mode

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Questions 39

What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Endpoint Security Client

B.

Full Agent

C.

Light Agent

D.

System Agent

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Questions 40

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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Questions 41

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Questions 42

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Spam

D.

Anti-bot

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Questions 43

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Options:

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

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Questions 44

CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.

The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

156-215.81 Question 44

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

C.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

D.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

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Questions 45

You can see the following graphic:

156-215.81 Question 45

What is presented on it?

Options:

A.

Properties of personal. p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

C.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

D.

Expired. p12 certificate properties for user John.

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Questions 46

What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

B.

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

C.

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

D.

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

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Questions 47

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

D.

At least 20GB

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Questions 48

Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a__________ and _______.

Options:

A.

Software blade; software container

B.

Software package: signature

C.

Signature; software blade

D.

Software container software package

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Questions 49

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Options:

A.

Server Units

B.

Administrator Units

C.

Account Units

D.

Account Servers

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Questions 50

Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?

Options:

A.

Central Licensing is actually not supported with Gaia.

B.

Central Licensing is the only option when deploying Gaia

C.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of a gateway and can be changed to any gateway if needed.

D.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.

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Questions 51

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Questions 52

How do you manage Gaia?

Options:

A.

Through CLI and WebUI

B.

Through CLI only

C.

Through SmartDashboard only

D.

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

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Questions 53

When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

Options:

A.

The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

B.

The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

C.

The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

D.

The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service

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Questions 54

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

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Questions 55

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the status of processes

B.

Sending and receiving logs

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

D.

Generating and modifying certificates

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Questions 56

What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?

Options:

A.

Use Office Mode

B.

Use identity agents

C.

Share user identities between gateways

D.

Use captive portal

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Questions 57

Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Questions 58

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Options:

A.

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

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Questions 59

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

Firewall

C.

Global Properties

D.

Object Explorer

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Questions 60

The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Questions 61

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

Options:

A.

Standalone

B.

Remote

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

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Questions 62

Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

Options:

A.

print cplic

B.

show licenses

C.

fwlic print

D.

cplic print

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Questions 63

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

Options:

A.

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

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Questions 64

Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.

Options:

A.

Static; source

B.

Simple; source

C.

Hide; destination

D.

Hide; source

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Questions 65

What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Smart Console, Standalone, and Security Management

C.

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

D.

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

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Questions 66

Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

Options:

A.

All options stop Check Point processes

B.

backup

C.

migrate export

D.

snapshot

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Questions 67

How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Options:

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

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Questions 68

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Questions 69

Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

Options:

A.

Active Directory Query

B.

User Directory Query

C.

Account Unit Query

D.

UserCheck

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Questions 70

True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

Options:

A.

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

B.

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

C.

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

D.

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

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Questions 71

If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Save and install the Policy

B.

Delete older versions of database

C.

Revert the session.

D.

Publish or discard the session

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Questions 72

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

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Questions 73

Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

Options:

A.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

B.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

C.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

D.

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

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Questions 74

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Questions 75

Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Basic – Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

B.

Optimized – Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

C.

Strict – Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

D.

Recommended – Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

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Questions 76

Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

Options:

A.

IPS blade

B.

IPSEC VPN Blade

C.

Identity Awareness Blade

D.

Firewall Blade

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Questions 77

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

Options:

A.

Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention

B.

Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN

D.

Firewall, Application Control and IPS

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Questions 78

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

Options:

A.

Admin and Default

B.

Expert and Clish

C.

Control and Monitor

D.

Admin and Monitor

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Questions 79

Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

Options:

A.

Explicit Drop

B.

Implied Drop

C.

Explicit Cleanup

D.

Implicit Drop

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Questions 80

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

Options:

A.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

B.

Static NAT

C.

Static Route

D.

HTTPS Inspection

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Questions 81

Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

Options:

A.

Object Browser

B.

Object Editor

C.

Object Navigator

D.

Object Explorer

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Questions 82

To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

Options:

A.

a routing table

B.

awareness of the network topology

C.

a Demilitarized Zone

D.

a Security Policy install

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Questions 83

Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

Options:

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

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Questions 84

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

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Questions 85

Which command shows the installed licenses?

Options:

A.

cplic print

B.

print cplic

C.

fwlic print

D.

show licenses

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Questions 86

Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.

156-215.81 Question 86

What is the possible explanation for this?

Options:

A.

DNS Rule is using one of the new feature of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock icon to let other administrators know it is important.

B.

Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.

C.

DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.

D.

This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.

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Questions 87

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

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Questions 88

What are the two elements of address translation rules?

Options:

A.

Original packet and translated packet

B.

Manipulated packet and original packet

C.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

D.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

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Questions 89

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

Options:

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

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Questions 90

Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?

Options:

A.

src:192.168.1.1 OR dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

B.

src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

C.

192.168.1.1 AND 172.26.1.1 AND drop

D.

192.168.1.1 OR 172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

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Questions 91

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

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Questions 92

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

Options:

A.

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.

B.

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

C.

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

D.

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.

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Questions 93

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool user to verify a user’s credentials

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created

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Questions 94

Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Security Gateway container

C.

Management server

D.

Management container

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Questions 95

Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

On the Policy Package

B.

On each Security Gateway

C.

On the Policy layer

D.

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

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Questions 96

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

Options:

A.

License and Update

B.

Package Repository and Licenses

C.

Update and License & Contract

D.

License & Contract and Package Repository

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Questions 97

Which one of the following is the preferred licensing model? Select the BEST answer

Options:

A.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the gateway and has no dependency of the Security Management Server.

B.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the IP-address of the Security Management Server and has no dependency on the gateway.

C.

Central licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the Security Management Server's Mgmt-interface and has no dependency

on the gateway.

D.

Local licensing because it ties the package license to the MAC-address of the gateway management interface and has no Security Management Server

dependency.

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Questions 98

Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Remote Access

B.

UserCheck

C.

AD Query

D.

RADIUS

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Questions 99

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

Options:

A.

SmartView Web Application

B.

SmartTracker

C.

SmartMonitor

D.

SmartReporter

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Questions 100

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

Options:

A.

Cache the data to speed up its own function.

B.

Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.

C.

Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.

D.

Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.

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Questions 101

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Questions 102

Which SmartConsole application shows correlated logs and aggregated data to provide an overview of potential threats and attack patterns?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent

B.

SmartView Tracker

C.

SmartLog

D.

SmartView Monitor

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Questions 103

What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

Options:

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

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Questions 104

Can you use the same layer in multiple policies or rulebases?

Options:

A.

Yes - a layer can be shared with multiple policies and rules.

B.

No - each layer must be unique.

C.

No - layers cannot be shared or reused, but an identical one can be created.

D.

Yes - but it must be copied and pasted with a different name.

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Questions 105

Which of the following situations would not require a new license to be generated and installed?

Options:

A.

The Security Gateway is upgraded.

B.

The existing license expires.

C.

The license is upgraded.

D.

The IP address of the Security Management or Security Gateway has changed.

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Questions 106

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Revisions

B.

Gateway installations

C.

Installation history

D.

Gateway history

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Questions 107

Fill in the blanks: A Security Policy is created in_____, stored in the_____ and Distributed to the various

Options:

A.

Rule base. Security Management Server Security Gateways

B.

The Check Point database. SmartConsole, Security Gateways

C.

SmartConsole, Security Gateway, Security Management Servers

D.

SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateways

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Questions 108

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

Options:

A.

8080

B.

80

C.

4434

D.

443

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Questions 109

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal

Communication (SIC)?

Options:

A.

After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.

B.

Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

C.

A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.

D.

New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.

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Questions 110

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

156-215.81 Question 110

Choose the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

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Questions 111

Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

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Questions 112

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.

Options:

A.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

Captive Portal

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Questions 113

An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.

B.

These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.

C.

A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.

D.

Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

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Questions 114

Examine the sample Rule Base.

156-215.81 Question 114

What will be the result of a verification of the policy from SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

No errors or Warnings

B.

Verification Error. Empty Source-List in Rule 5 (Mail Inbound)

C.

Verification Error. Rule 4 (Web Inbound) hides Rule 6 (Webmaster access)

D.

Verification Error. Rule 7 (Clean-Up Rule) hides Implicit Clean-up Rule

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Questions 115

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Clish

B.

Admin

C.

Normal

D.

Expert

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Questions 116

Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

Options:

A.

Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they will both be able to make changes.

B.

When Joe logs in. Bob will be logged out automatically.

C.

The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.

D.

Bob will receive a prompt that Joe has logged in.

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Questions 117

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

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Questions 118

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B.

Proactively detects threats

C.

Delivers file with original content

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

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Questions 119

What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

Options:

A.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

B.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server

C.

Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package

D.

Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

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Questions 120

In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

Options:

A.

Manage and Settings

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateways and Servers

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Exam Code: 156-215.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20
Last Update: Apr 19, 2024
Questions: 400

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