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200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which metric is used to capture the level of access needed to launch a successful attack?

Options:

A.

privileges required

B.

user interaction

C.

attack complexity

D.

attack vector

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Questions 5

What does the Zero Trust security model signify?

Options:

A.

Zero Trust security means that no one is trusted by default from inside or outside the network

B.

Zero Trust states that no users should be given enough privileges to misuse the system on their own

C.

Zero Trust addresses access control and states that an individual should have only the minimum access privileges necessary to perform specific tasks

D.

Zero Trust states that unless a subject is given explicit access to an object, it should be denied access to that object

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Questions 6

What are two denial of service attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

MITM

B.

TCP connections

C.

ping of death

D.

UDP flooding

E.

code red

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Questions 7

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 7

Which two elements in the table are parts of the 5-tuple? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

First Packet

B.

Initiator User

C.

Ingress Security Zone

D.

Source Port

E.

Initiator IP

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Questions 8

Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?

Options:

A.

alert data

B.

transaction data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

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Questions 9

A company had a recent breach and lost confidential data to a competitor. An internal investigation found out that a new junior accounting specialist logged in to the accounting server with their user ID and stole confidential data. The junior accounting specialist denies the action and claims that the attempt was done by someone else. During court proceedings, the company presents logs and CCTV camera recordings that show the malicious insider in action. Which type of evidence has the company presented?

Options:

A.

indirect and corroborative

B.

direct and corroborative

C.

circumstantial and direct

D.

corroborative and substantive

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Questions 10

What is the functionality of an IDS ' ?

Options:

A.

device or software that detects and blocks suspicious files

B.

endpoint protection software that prevents viruses and malware

C.

forensic tool used to perform an in-depth analysis and debugging

D.

software or device which monitors and identifies malicious network activity

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Questions 11

Which security principle is violated by running all processes as root or administrator?

Options:

A.

principle of least privilege

B.

role-based access control

C.

separation of duties

D.

trusted computing base

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Questions 12

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4. and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7.

B.

Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7.

C.

Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4.

D.

Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7, and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4.

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Questions 13

Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

200-201 Question 13

Options:

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Questions 14

Which process represents the application-level allow list?

Options:

A.

allowing everything and denying specific applications protocols

B.

allowing everything and denying specific executable files

C.

allowing specific format files and deny executable files

D.

allowing specific files and deny everything else

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 15

Which application-level protocol is being targeted?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

FTP

C.

HTTP

D.

TCP

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Questions 16

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?

Options:

A.

SSL interception

B.

packet header size

C.

signature detection time

D.

encryption

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Questions 17

Exhibit.

200-201 Question 17

An engineer received a ticket about a slowdown of a web application, Drug analysis of traffic, the engineer suspects a possible attack on a web server. How should the engineer interpret the Wiresharat traffic capture?

Options:

A.

10.0.0.2 sends GET/ HTTP/1.1 And Post request and the target responds with HTTP/1.1. 200 OC and HTTP/1.1 403 accordingly. This is an HTTP flood attempt.

B.

10.0.0.2 sends HTTP FORBIDDEN /1.1 And Post request, while the target responds with HTTP/1.1 200 Get and HTTP/1.1 403. This is an HTTP GET flood attack.

C.

10.128.0.2 sends POST/1.1 And POST requests, and the target responds with HTTP/1.1 200 Ok and HTTP/1.1 403 accordingly. This is an HTTP Reserve Bandwidth flood.

D.

10.128.0.2 sends HTTP/FORBIDDEN/ 1.1 and Get requests, and the target responds with HTTP/1.1 200 OK and HTTP/1.1 403. This is an HTTP cache bypass attack.

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Questions 18

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 18

Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

corroborating evidence

B.

circumstantial evidence

C.

best evidence

D.

direct evidence

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Questions 19

Which statement describes indicators of attack?

Options:

A.

internal hosts communicate with countries outside of the business range.

B.

Phishing attempts on an organization are blocked by mall AV.

C.

Critical patches are missing.

D.

A malicious file is detected by the AV software.

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Questions 20

A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

Upgrade to TLS v1 3.

B.

Install the latest IIS version.

C.

Downgrade to TLS 1.1.

D.

Deploy an intrusion detection system

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Questions 21

An engineer is working on the implementation of digital certificates for new cntical web applications One of the requirements is that the https connection must be validated and protected against malicious network impersonators The server will be exposed externally from the DMZ network Which certificate must be used?

Options:

A.

SSLv3

B.

TLS 1.1

C.

private CA

D.

X.509

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Questions 22

What describes a buffer overflow attack?

Options:

A.

injecting new commands into existing buffers

B.

fetching data from memory buffer registers

C.

overloading a predefined amount of memory

D.

suppressing the buffers in a process

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Questions 23

Which option describes indicators of attack?

Options:

A.

spam emails on an employee workstation

B.

virus detection by the AV software

C.

blocked phishing attempt on a company

D.

malware reinfection within a few minutes of removal

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Questions 24

An automotive company provides new types of engines and special brakes for rally sports cars. The company has a database of inventions and patents for their engines and technical information Customers can access the database through the company ' s website after they register and identify themselves. Which type of protected data is accessed by customers?

Options:

A.

IP data

B.

PII data

C.

PSI data

D.

PHI data

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Questions 25

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 25

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

SQL injection

D.

denial of service

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Questions 26

What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?

Options:

A.

central key management server

B.

web of trust

C.

trusted certificate authorities

D.

registration authority data

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Questions 27

What describes the difference when comparing attack surface and vulnerability in practice?

Options:

A.

Updating the OS reduces the attack surface, and installing separate optional patches remediates and solves vulnerabilities within the system.

B.

Patching SMB vulnerability is an attack surface reduction, and the open unused ports are the vulnerabilities within the system.

C.

A SMB server that can allow remote code execution is a vulnerability, and closing port 139 is an attack surface reduction.

D.

The attack surface is the SQL injection targeted on the database, and the database tables are the vulnerabilities that might be exploited.

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Questions 28

What is a description of " phishing " as a social engineering attack " ?

Options:

A.

Someone without the proper authentication follows an authenticated employee into a restricted area The attacker might impersonate a delivery driver and wait outside a building to get things started

B.

A hacker masquerading as a trusted entity, dupes a victim into opening an email, instant message, or text message The recipient is then tricked into clicking a malicious link.

C.

The attacker focuses on creating a good pretext or a fabricated scenario that is used to try and steal victims ' personal information

D.

Fake Social Security Administration personnel contact random individuals inform them that there has been a computer problem on their end and ask that those individuals confirm their Social Security Number, all for the purpose of committing identity theft.

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Questions 29

Drag and drop the security concept from the left onto the example of that concept on the right.

200-201 Question 29

Options:

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Questions 30

An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.

Which testing method did the intruder use?

Options:

A.

social engineering

B.

eavesdropping

C.

piggybacking

D.

tailgating

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Questions 31

A CMS plugin creates two files that are accessible from the Internet myplugin html and exploitable php A newly discovered exploit takes advantage of an injection vulnerability m exploitable php To exploit the vulnerability an HTTP POST must be sent with specific variables to exploitable php A security engineer notices traffic to the webserver that consists of only HTTP GET requests to myplugin html Which category does this activity fall under?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

installation

C.

reconnaissance

D.

exploitation

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Questions 32

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Deep packet inspection gives insights up to Layer 7, and stateful inspection gives insights only up to Layer 4.

B.

Deep packet inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and stateful inspection requires less human intervention.

C.

Stateful inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and deep packet inspection requires less human intervention.

D.

Stateful inspection verifies data at the transport layer and deep packet inspection verifies data at the application layer

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Questions 33

STION NO: 102

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 33

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B.

A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C.

There are three active data exfiltration alerts.

D.

A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

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Questions 34

A security engineer must protect the company from known issues that trigger adware. Recently new incident has been raised that could harm the system. Which security concepts are present in this scenario?

Options:

A.

exploit and patching

B.

risk and evidence

C.

analysis and remediation

D.

vulnerability and threat

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Questions 35

An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see the outcome. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.

Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signatures

B.

host IP addresses

C.

file size

D.

dropped files

E.

domain names

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Questions 36

What is a disadvantage of the asymmetric encryption system?

Options:

A.

It is slow compared to the symmetric encryption system.

B.

Asymmetric encryption is used to transfer the data, and symmetric is used to encrypt small chunks of data.

C.

Asymmetric encryption is an old technique, and symmetric encryption is the newer one.

D.

It is less secure because it uses a single key for encryption.

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Questions 37

A network engineer discovers that a foreign government hacked one of the defense contractors in their home country and stole intellectual property. What is the threat agent in this situation?

Options:

A.

the intellectual property that was stolen

B.

the defense contractor who stored the intellectual property

C.

the method used to conduct the attack

D.

the foreign government that conducted the attack

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Questions 38

Which principle reduces the risk of attackers gaining access to sensitive data by compromising a low-level user account?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

privilege separation

C.

limited access

D.

separation of duties

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Questions 39

200-201 Question 39

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the .pcap file, which DNS server is used to resolve cisco.com?

Options:

A.

224.0.0.251

B.

192.168.2.1

C.

72.163.4.185

D.

192.168.2.104

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Questions 40

Which two attacks are denial-of-service (DoS) attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP flooding

B.

Code Red

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

ping of death

E.

TCP connections

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Questions 41

One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems. What does CIA mean in this context?

Options:

A.

confidentiality, identity, and authorization

B.

confidentiality, integrity, and authorization

C.

confidentiality, identity, and availability

D.

confidentiality, integrity, and availability

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Questions 42

Refer to the exhibit

200-201 Question 42

An engineer is analyzing DNS response packets that are larger than expected The engineer looks closer and notices a lack of appropriate DNS queries What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijack attack

B.

DNS amplification attack

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

DNS cache poisoning

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Questions 43

An organization recently experienced a major incident in which servers were attacked and data integrity was compromised. The attacker exploited a vulnerability in TLS 1.2 and performed a man-in-the-middle attack by downgrading the connection. Which action should a security specialist take to prevent similar attacks in the future?

Options:

A.

Upgrade to TLS 1.3 or a higher version

B.

Deploy a network monitoring solution

C.

Update IIS server versions

D.

Install a lower version of TLS such as 1.1

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Questions 44

How is NetFlow different from traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

NetFlow collects metadata and traffic mirroring clones data.

B.

Traffic mirroring impacts switch performance and NetFlow does not.

C.

Traffic mirroring costs less to operate than NetFlow.

D.

NetFlow generates more data than traffic mirroring.

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Questions 45

200-201 Question 45

Refer to the exhibit Which TLS version does this client support?

Options:

A.

13

B.

1.0 and 1.2

C.

12

D.

1.1 and 13

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Questions 46

How does TOR alter data content during transit?

Options:

A.

It spoofs the destination and source information protecting both sides.

B.

It encrypts content and destination information over multiple layers.

C.

It redirects destination traffic through multiple sources avoiding traceability.

D.

It traverses source traffic through multiple destinations before reaching the receiver

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Questions 47

Which access control should a chief information security officer select to protect extremely sensitive data categorized at various levels of confidentiality?

Options:

A.

MAC; each object owner is responsible to provide access only to authorized users.

B.

MAC; access control decisions are centrally managed and minimize the human error probability.

C.

DAC; access control decisions are centrally managed and minimize the human error probability.

D.

DAC; each object owner is responsible to provide access only to authorized users.

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Questions 48

Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?

Options:

A.

known-plaintext

B.

replay

C.

dictionary

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 49

Which two components reduce the attack surface on an endpoint? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

secure boot

B.

load balancing

C.

increased audit log levels

D.

restricting USB ports

E.

full packet captures at the endpoint

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Questions 50

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

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Questions 51

A security team receives a ticket to investigate suspicious emails sent to company employees from known malicious domains. Further analysis shows that a targeted phishing attempt was successfully blocked by the company’s email antivirus. At which step of the Cyber Kill Chain did the security team mitigate this attack?

Options:

A.

Delivery

B.

Actions on Objectives

C.

Command and Control

D.

Weaponization

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Questions 52

Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

vulnerability management

D.

risk assessment

E.

vulnerability scoring

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Questions 53

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain Model?

Options:

A.

Develop a specific malware to exploit a vulnerable server

B.

Match a known script to a vulnerability.

C.

Construct a trojan and deliver l! to the victim.

D.

Scan open services and ports on a server.

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Questions 54

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 54

What should be interpreted from this packet capture?

Options:

A.

81.179.179.69 is sending a packet from port 80 to port 50272 of IP address 192.168.122.100 using UDP protocol.

B.

192.168.122.100 is sending a packet from port 50272 to port 80 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using TCP protocol.

C.

192.168.122.100 is sending a packet from port 80 to port 50272 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using UDP protocol.

D.

81.179.179.69 is sending a packet from port 50272 to port 80 of IP address 192.168.122.100 using TCP UDP protocol.

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Questions 55

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 55

Which technology generates this log?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

IDS

C.

web proxy

D.

firewall

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Questions 56

What is vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B.

A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C.

A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D.

A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

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Questions 57

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

200-201 Question 57

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

Base64 encoding

B.

TLS encryption

C.

SHA-256 hashing

D.

ROT13 encryption

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Questions 58

According to CVSS, what is attack complexity?

Options:

A.

existing exploits available in the wild exploiting the vulnerability

B.

existing circumstances beyond the attacker ' s control to exploit the vulnerability

C.

number of actions an attacker should perform to exploit the vulnerability

D.

number of patches available for certain attack mitigation and how complex the workarounds are

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Questions 59

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 59

Which technology produced the log?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

IPS/IDS

C.

proxy

D.

firewall

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Questions 60

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 60

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B.

Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C.

Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D.

Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

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Questions 61

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

B.

True positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

C.

False positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

D.

False positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

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Questions 62

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

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Questions 63

A threat actor penetrated an organization ' s network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs?

Options:

A.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name

B.

protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port

C.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and username

D.

protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name

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Questions 64

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 64

A SOC analyst received a message from SIEM about abnormal activity on the Windows server The analyst checked the Windows event log and saw numerous Audit Failures logs. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Windows failed to audit the logs

B.

regular Windows log

C.

brute-force attack

D.

DoS attack

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Questions 65

Drag and drop the event term from the left onto the description on the right.

200-201 Question 65

Options:

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Questions 66

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 66

What is the expected result when the " Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams " feature is enabled?

Options:

A.

insert TCP subdissectors

B.

extract a file from a packet capture

C.

disable TCP streams

D.

unfragment TCP

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Questions 67

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B.

True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C.

False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D.

False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

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Questions 68

Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right.

200-201 Question 68

Options:

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Questions 69

A security engineer notices confidential data being exfiltrated to a domain " Ranso4134-mware31-895 " address that is attributed to a known advanced persistent threat group The engineer discovers that the activity is part of a real attack and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Cyber Kill Chain?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

delivery

C.

action on objectives

D.

weaponization

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Questions 70

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 70

Which packet contains a file that is extractable within Wireshark?

Options:

A.

2317

B.

1986

C.

2318

D.

2542

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Questions 71

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

Options:

A.

stored

B.

reflective

C.

DOM

D.

CSRF

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Questions 72

A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages. When an engineer examines traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, they notice that many SYNs have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but they have different payloads. What is causing this situation?

Options:

A.

TCP injection

B.

misconfiguration of a web filter

C.

Failure of the full packet capture solution

D.

insufficient network resources

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Questions 73

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

privilege escalation

B.

DDoS attack

C.

phishing

D.

man-in-the-middle

E.

pharming

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Questions 74

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 74

What does the output indicate about the server with the IP address 172.18.104.139?

Options:

A.

open ports of a web server

B.

open port of an FTP server

C.

open ports of an email server

D.

running processes of the server

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Questions 75

Which principle is being followed when an analyst gathers information relevant to a security incident to determine the appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

decision making

B.

rapid response

C.

data mining

D.

due diligence

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Questions 76

An engineer must investigate suspicious connections. Data has been gathered using a tcpdump command on a Linux device and saved as sandboxmatware2022-12-22.pcaps file.The engineer is trying to open the tcpdump in the Wireshark tool. What is the expected result?

Options:

A.

The tool does not support Linux.

B.

The file is opened.

C.

The file has an incorrect extension.

D.

The file does not support the " - " character.

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Questions 77

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 77

Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

200-201 Question 77

Options:

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Questions 78

How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?

Options:

A.

An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of an attack.

B.

An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.

C.

An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.

D.

An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation

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Questions 79

What specific type of analysis is assigning values to the scenario to see expected outcomes?

Options:

A.

deterministic

B.

exploratory

C.

probabilistic

D.

descriptive

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Questions 80

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 80

Which tool was used to generate this data?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

dnstools

C.

firewall

D.

tcpdump

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Questions 81

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 81

What does the message indicate?

Options:

A.

an access attempt was made from the Mosaic web browser

B.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

C.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the root of the website

D.

a denied access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

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Questions 82

What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?

Options:

A.

The system detected an XSS attack

B.

Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network

C.

Another device is gaining root access to the system

D.

A privileged user successfully logged into the system

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Questions 83

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 83

Which attack is being attempted against a web application?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

command injection

D.

denial of service

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Questions 84

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 84

An attacker Infiltrated an organization ' s network and ran a scan to advance with the lateral movement technique. Which two elements from the scan assist the attacker? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

function and service the server is providing

B.

CPU and vendor version of the asset

C.

running services and parts

D.

security identifiers of logged-in accounts

E.

latency and MS information to calculate delays for a command injection

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Questions 85

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain model?

Options:

A.

Scan a host to find open ports and vulnerabilities

B.

Construct the appropriate malware and deliver it to the victim.

C.

Test and construct the appropriate malware to launch the attack

D.

Research data on a specific vulnerability

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Questions 86

What is the impact of encryption?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated

B.

Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals

C.

Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved

D.

Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it

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Questions 87

Which data format is the most efficient to build a baseline of traffic seen over an extended period of time?

Options:

A.

syslog messages

B.

full packet capture

C.

NetFlow

D.

firewall event logs

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Questions 88

What is the impact of encapsulation on the network?

Options:

A.

Something significant is concealed from virtually separate networks.

B.

Logically separate functions in the network are abstracted from their underlying structures.

C.

Numerous local private addresses are mapped to a public one before the data is moved.

D.

Web requests are taken on behalf of users and the response is collected from the web.

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Questions 89

Which two pieces of information are collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP port to which the traffic is destined

B.

TCP port from which the traffic was sourced

C.

source IP address of the packet

D.

destination IP address of the packet

E.

UDP port from which the traffic is sourced

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Questions 90

What is threat hunting?

Options:

A.

Managing a vulnerability assessment report to mitigate potential threats.

B.

Focusing on proactively detecting possible signs of intrusion and compromise.

C.

Pursuing competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their system to acquire intelligence data.

D.

Attempting to deliberately disrupt servers by altering their availability

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Questions 91

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

200-201 Question 91

Options:

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Questions 92

A company receptionist received a threatening call referencing stealing assets and did not take any action assuming it was a social engineering attempt. Within 48 hours, multiple assets were breached, affecting the confidentiality of sensitive information. What is the threat actor in this incident?

Options:

A.

companyassets that are threatened

B.

customer assets that are threatened

C.

perpetrators of the attack

D.

victims of the attack

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Questions 93

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 93

What kind of activity occurs in the network?

Options:

A.

TCP reset attack

B.

DNS redirect attack

C.

DNS flood

D.

UDP flood

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Questions 94

A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders After further investigation, the analyst learns that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?

Options:

A.

post-incident activity

B.

detection and analysis

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

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Questions 95

A multinational organization uses a complex network infrastructure incorporating multiple cloud services, diverse endpoints, and distributed networks with several security devices. Which challenge will the security team face when ensuring robust data visibility for effective threat detection and response?

Options:

A.

inconsistent data aggregation from different technologies used within the organization

B.

different protocols used through different technologies across the organization

C.

duplicate logs and alerts from different platforms

D.

limited data retention policies across different platforms

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Questions 96

After a large influx of network traffic to externally facing devices, a security engineer begins investigating what appears to be a denial of service attack When the packet capture data is reviewed, the engineer notices that the traffic is a single SYN packet to each port Which type of attack is occurring?

Options:

A.

traffic fragmentation

B.

port scanning

C.

host profiling

D.

SYN flood

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Questions 97

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 97

What is depicted in the exhibit?

Options:

A.

Windows Event logs

B.

Apache logs

C.

IIS logs

D.

UNIX-based syslog

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Questions 98

Developers must implement tasks on remote Windows environments. They decided to use scripts for enterprise applications through PowerShell. Why does the functionality not work?

Options:

A.

WMI must be configured.

B.

Symlinks must be enabled.

C.

Ext4 must be implemented.

D.

MBR must be set up.

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Questions 99

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 99

During the analysis of a suspicious scanning activity incident, an analyst discovered multiple local TCP connection events Which technology provided these logs?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

proxy

C.

IDS/IPS

D.

firewall

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Questions 100

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 100

A workstation downloads a malicious docx file from the Internet and a copy is sent to FTDv. The FTDv sends the file hash to FMC and the tile event is recorded what would have occurred with stronger data visibility.

Options:

A.

The traffic would have been monitored at any segment in the network.

B.

Malicious traffic would have been blocked on multiple devices

C.

An extra level of security would have been in place

D.

Detailed information about the data in real time would have been provided

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Questions 101

What is a difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow

B.

Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking

C.

Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation

D.

Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security

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Questions 102

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 102

Which type of attack is represented?

Options:

A.

TCP/SYN flooding

B.

UDP flooding

C.

IP flooding

D.

MAC flooding

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Questions 103

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

Options:

A.

threat intelligence

B.

risk scores

C.

vendor suggestions

D.

vulnerability exposure

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Questions 104

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 104

An engineer received an event log file to review. Which technology generated the log?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

proxy

C.

firewall

D.

IDS/IPS

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Questions 105

Which risk approach eliminates activities posing a risk exposure?

Options:

A.

risk acknowledgment

B.

risk avoidance

C.

risk reduction

D.

risk retention

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Questions 106

What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ?

Options:

A.

additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients

B.

unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic

C.

deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network

D.

attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network

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Questions 107

An engineer is working on a ticket for an incident from the incident management team A week ago. an external web application was targeted by a DDoS attack Server resources were exhausted and after two hours it crashed. An engineer was able to identify the attacker and technique used Three hours after the attack, the server was restored and the engineer recommended implementing mitigation by Blackhole filtering and transferred the incident ticket back to the IR team According to NIST SP800-61, at which phase of the incident response did the engineer finish work?

Options:

A.

preparation

B.

post-incident activity

C.

containment eradication and recovery

D.

detection and analysis

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Questions 108

What describes the defense-m-depth principle?

Options:

A.

defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations

B.

categorizing critical assets within the organization

C.

isolating guest Wi-Fi from the focal network

D.

implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions

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Questions 109

What is an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations

B.

an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements

C.

an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration of operational services

D.

an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations

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Questions 110

Why is encryption challenging to security monitoring?

Options:

A.

Encryption analysis is used by attackers to monitor VPN tunnels.

B.

Encryption is used by threat actors as a method of evasion and obfuscation.

C.

Encryption introduces additional processing requirements by the CPU.

D.

Encryption introduces larger packet sizes to analyze and store.

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Questions 111

What is the role of indicator of compromise in an investigation?

Options:

A.

It helps answer the question of why the attack took place.

B.

It identifies potentially malicious activity on a system or network.

C.

It is nonforensic data, which is easy to detect.

D.

It describes what and why something happened.

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Questions 112

How is SQL injection prevented?

Options:

A.

Address space layout randomization

B.

Validate and sanitize user input

C.

...in the web server as a nonprivileged user

D.

...cost profiling

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Questions 113

What is a characteristic of a temporal score in CVSS?

Options:

A.

It can change over time

B.

It depends on the environment

C.

It has a vendor fixed value

D.

It is defined by impacted users

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Questions 114

A software development company develops high-end technology for the customer that will go through the HIPAA audit program. The technology will be hosted in the cloud, and the healthcare, employee names, and contact information will be stored on two separate logically isolated private cloud services. The patents and inventions will be hosted on a separate encrypted database. A compliance team is asked to analyze the cloud infrastructure and architecture to identify the protected data. Which two types of protected data should be identified? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Federated Identity ID (FII)

B.

Protected Health Information (PHI)

C.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

E.

Self-sovereign Identity (SSI)

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Questions 115

Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For the log containment, a disk with FAT type partition is used An engineer determined that log files are being corrupted when the 4 GB tile size is exceeded. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Add space to the existing partition and lower the retention period.

B.

Use FAT32 to exceed the limit of 4 GB.

C.

Use the Ext4 partition because it can hold files up to 16 TB.

D.

Use NTFS partition for log file containment

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Questions 116

Which action prevents buffer overflow attacks?

Options:

A.

variable randomization

B.

using web based applications

C.

input sanitization

D.

using a Linux operating system

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Questions 117

Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response among various business units, minimizing damage, and reporting to regulatory agencies?

Options:

A.

CSIRT

B.

PSIRT

C.

public affairs

D.

management

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Questions 118

What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?

Options:

A.

cause of an attack

B.

exploit of an attack

C.

vulnerabilities exploited

D.

threat actors of an attack

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Questions 119

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited and the risk is the potential for loss or damage

B.

A vulnerability is an attack surface, and the risk is the vector of the attack

C.

A risk is a possible danger that an exploit applies to and a vulnerability represents the threat actor

D.

Risk is the assessment of possible weaknesses and vulnerability is a reconfiguration of an asset

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Questions 120

An engineer needs to discover alive hosts within the 192.168.1.0/24 range without triggering intrusive portscan alerts on the IDS device using Nmap. Which command will accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

nmap --top-ports 192.168.1.0/24

B.

nmap –sP 192.168.1.0/24

C.

nmap -sL 192.168.1.0/24

D.

nmap -sV 192.168.1.0/24

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Questions 121

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

Options:

A.

Untampered images are not secure.

B.

Tampered images are secure.

C.

Untampered images store hidden items inside.

D.

Tampered images store hidden items inside.

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Questions 122

200-201 Question 122

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC analyst is examining the Windows security logs of one of the endpoints. What is the possible reason for this event log?

Options:

A.

Brute force attack

B.

Windows failed to audit logs

C.

Malware Attack

D.

System maintenance logs

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Questions 123

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 123

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Identifying possible malware communications and botnet activity

B.

Monitoring of encrypted and unencrypted web sessions for diagnostics.

C.

Analysis of traffic flows during network capacity testing

D.

Review of session logs for performance optimization in a distributed application environment

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Questions 124

According to CVSS, which condition is required for attack complexity metrics?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle attack

B.

attackers altering any file

C.

complete loss of protection

D.

total loss of availability

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Questions 125

According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

swap files

B.

temporary files

C.

login sessions

D.

dump files

E.

free space

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Questions 126

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 126

This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?

Options:

A.

parameter manipulation

B.

heap memory corruption

C.

command injection

D.

blind SQL injection

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Questions 127

What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

B.

Tampered images are used in the security investigation process

C.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

D.

Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process

E.

The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

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Questions 128

A security analyst received a ticket about suspicious traffic from one of the workstations. During the investigation, the analyst discovered that the workstation was communicating with an external IP. The analyst could not investigate further and escalated the case to a T2 security analyst. What are the two data visibility challenges that the security analyst should identify? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A default user agent is present in the headers.

B.

Traffic is not encrypted.

C.

HTTP requests and responses are sent in plaintext.

D.

POST requests have a " Microsoft-IIS/7.5 " server header.

E.

Encrypted data is being transmitted.

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Questions 129

What describes the impact of false-positive alerts compared to false-negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A false negative is alerting for an XSS attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an XSS attack happened A false positive is when an XSS attack happens and no alert is raised

B.

A false negative is a legitimate attack triggering a brute-force alert. An engineer investigates the alert and finds out someone intended to break into the system A false positive is when no alert and no attack is occurring

C.

A false positive is an event alerting for a brute-force attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that a legitimate user entered the wrong credential several times A false negative is when a threat actor tries to brute-force attack a system and no alert is raised.

D.

A false positive is an event alerting for an SQL injection attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an attack attempt was blocked by IP S A false negative is when the attack gets detected but succeeds and results in a breach.

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Questions 130

Which type of attack involves sending input commands to a web server to access data?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

Denial of service

C.

Cross-site scripting

D.

DNS poisoning

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Questions 131

A vulnerability analyst is performing the monthly scan data review Output data is very big and getting bigger each month The analyst decides to create a more efficient process to complete the task on time All false positives and true positives are excluded from the results The remaining findings will be assigned to a technical team for further remediation What is the result of such activity?

Options:

A.

False negatives must also be excluded from the data

B.

Data is filtered property and contains only valid results

C.

Exclusion is not needed and all data must be remediated

D.

Analysis is not performed correctly, and it is missing correct data

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Questions 132

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 132

An engineer is analyzing a PCAP file after a recent breach An engineer identified that the attacker used an aggressive ARP scan to scan the hosts and found web and SSH servers. Further analysis showed several SSH Server Banner and Key Exchange Initiations. The engineer cannot see the exact data being transmitted over an encrypted channel and cannot identify how the attacker gained access How did the attacker gain access?

Options:

A.

by using the buffer overflow in the URL catcher feature for SSH

B.

by using an SSH Tectia Server vulnerability to enable host-based authentication

C.

by using an SSH vulnerability to silently redirect connections to the local host

D.

by using brute force on the SSH service to gain access

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Questions 133

An employee received an email from a colleague’s address asking for the password for the domain controller. The employee noticed a missing letter within the sender’s address. What does this incident describe?

Options:

A.

brute-force attack

B.

insider attack

C.

shoulder surfing

D.

social engineering

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Questions 134

An analyst received a ticket regarding a degraded processing capability for one of the HR department ' s servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed a disabled antivirus software and was not able to determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Detection

C.

Eradication

D.

Analysis

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Questions 135

An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external penmeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data. Which two types of data must be identified ' ? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SOX

B.

PII

C.

PHI

D.

PCI

E.

copyright

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Questions 136

A suspicious user opened a connection from a compromised host inside an organization. Traffic was going through a router and the network administrator was able to identify this flow. The admin was following 5-tuple to collect needed data. Which information was gathered based on this approach?

Options:

A.

direct path

B.

user name

C.

protocol

D.

NAT

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Questions 137

What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?

Options:

A.

SOAR predicts and prevents security alerts, while SIEM checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

B.

SlEM ' s primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SOAR is more focused on security operations automation and response.

C.

SIEM predicts and prevents security alerts, while SOAR checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

D.

SOAR ' s primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SIEM is more focused on security operations automation and response.

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Questions 138

What is a difference between rule-based and role-based access control mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Rule-based are simple and easy to execute, and role-based are well-defined.

B.

Role-based are an appropriate choice in geographically diverse workgroups, and rule-based are for simply structured workgroups.

C.

Rule-based are less granular, and role-based have time constraints.

D.

Role-based are efficient in small workgroups, and rule-based are preferred in time-defined workgroups.

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Questions 139

200-201 Question 139

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?

Options:

A.

info

B.

tags

C.

MIME

D.

name

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Questions 140

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 140

What does this Cuckoo sandbox report indicate?

Options:

A.

The file is spyware.

B.

The file will open unsecure ports when executed.

C.

The file will open a command interpreter when executed.

D.

The file is ransomware.

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Questions 141

What is the difference between statistical detection and rule-based detection models?

Options:

A.

Rule-based detection involves the collection of data in relation to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of time

B.

Statistical detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and rule-based detection defines it on an IF/THEN basis

C.

Statistical detection involves the evaluation of an object on its intended actions before it executes that behavior

D.

Rule-based detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and statistical detection defines it on an IF/THEN basis

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Questions 142

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

Options:

A.

A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent the communication between sandboxes.

B.

A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C.

A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D.

A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

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Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Last Update: May 26, 2026
Questions: 476

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