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200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

vulnerability management

D.

risk assessment

E.

vulnerability scoring

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Questions 5

Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?

Options:

A.

timing attack

B.

traffic fragmentation

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

tunneling

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Questions 6

An engineer is sharing folders and files with different departments and got this error: "No such file or directory". What must the engineer verify next?

Options:

A.

memory allocation

B.

symlinks

C.

permission

D.

disk space

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Questions 7

Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?

Options:

A.

alert data

B.

transaction data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

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Questions 8

How does an SSL certificate impact security between the client and the server?

Options:

A.

by enabling an authenticated channel between the client and the server

B.

by creating an integrated channel between the client and the server

C.

by enabling an authorized channel between the client and the server

D.

by creating an encrypted channel between the client and the server

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Questions 9

What is a description of a social engineering attack?

Options:

A.

fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data

B.

package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product

C.

mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose

D.

email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter

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Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 10

What is shown in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.

Timestamps are indicated with error.

B.

The protocol is TCP.

C.

The User-Agent is Mozilla/5.0.

D.

The HTTP GET is encoded.

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Questions 11

Which element is included in an incident response plan as stated m NIST SP800-617

Options:

A.

security of sensitive information

B.

individual approach to incident response

C.

approval of senior management

D.

consistent threat identification

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Questions 12

Which evasion technique is indicated when an intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources?

Options:

A.

resource exhaustion

B.

tunneling

C.

traffic fragmentation

D.

timing attack

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Questions 13

What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?

Options:

A.

An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B.

An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C.

An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack; and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D.

An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack; and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

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Questions 14

What describes the public key infrastructure (PKI)?

Options:

A.

PKI verifies the identity of the user and sender and creates secure communication channels using asymmetric encryption.

B.

PKI ensures packet loss prevention and creates secure communication channels using symmetric encryption.

C.

PKI verifies the identity of the user and sender and creates secure communication channels using symmetric encryption.

D.

PKI ensures packet loss prevention and creates secure communication channels using asymmetric encryption.

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Questions 15

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

Options:

A.

sandbox

B.

application allow list

C.

application block list

D.

host-based firewall

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Questions 16

An engineer is investigating a case of the unauthorized usage of the “Tcpdump” tool. The analysis revealed that a malicious insider attempted to sniff traffic on a specific interface. What type of information did the malicious insider attempt to obtain?

Options:

A.

tagged protocols being used on the network

B.

all firewall alerts and resulting mitigations

C.

tagged ports being used on the network

D.

all information and data within the datagram

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Questions 17

Which statement describes patch management?

Options:

A.

scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities

B.

managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes

C.

process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates

D.

workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities

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Questions 18

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 18

Which event is occurring?

Options:

A.

A binary named "submit" is running on VM cuckoo1.

B.

A binary is being submitted to run on VM cuckoo1

C.

A binary on VM cuckoo1 is being submitted for evaluation

D.

A URL is being evaluated to see if it has a malicious binary

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Questions 19

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 19

During the analysis of a suspicious scanning activity incident, an analyst discovered multiple local TCP connection events Which technology provided these logs?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

proxy

C.

IDS/IPS

D.

firewall

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Questions 20

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 20

Which attack is being attempted against a web application?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

command injection

D.

denial of service

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Questions 21

A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

Upgrade to TLS v1 3.

B.

Install the latest IIS version.

C.

Downgrade to TLS 1.1.

D.

Deploy an intrusion detection system

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Questions 22

What are two differences between tampered disk images and untampered disk images'? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tampered Images are used in a security investigation process

B.

Untampered images can be used as law enforcement evidence.

C.

The image is untampered if the existing stored hash matches the computed one

D.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash are identical

E.

Tampered images are used as an element for the root cause analysis report

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Questions 23

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 23

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

ARP flood

B.

DNS amplification

C.

ARP poisoning

D.

DNS tunneling

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Questions 24

What is the practice of giving employees only those permissions necessary to perform their specific role within an organization?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

need to know

C.

integrity validation

D.

due diligence

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Questions 25

An engineer received a flood of phishing emails from HR with the source address HRjacobm@companycom. What is the threat actor in this scenario?

Options:

A.

phishing email

B.

sender

C.

HR

D.

receiver

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Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 26

What is occurring within the exhibit?

Options:

A.

regular GET requests

B.

XML External Entities attack

C.

insecure deserialization

D.

cross-site scripting attack

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Questions 27

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 27

Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

200-201 Question 27

Options:

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Questions 28

Which technology should be used to implement a solution that makes routing decisions based on HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, and SSL session ID attributes?

Options:

A.

AWS

B.

IIS

C.

Load balancer

D.

Proxy server

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Questions 29

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 29

An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?

Options:

A.

indirect

B.

circumstantial

C.

corroborative

D.

best

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Questions 30

Which difficulty occurs when log messages are compared from two devices separated by a Layer 3 device that performs Network Address Translation?

Options:

A.

IP addresses in the log messages match

B.

Timestamps of the log messages are different.

C.

Log messages contain incorrect information

D.

IP addresses in the log messages do not match

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Questions 31

Why is encryption challenging to security monitoring?

Options:

A.

Encryption analysis is used by attackers to monitor VPN tunnels.

B.

Encryption is used by threat actors as a method of evasion and obfuscation.

C.

Encryption introduces additional processing requirements by the CPU.

D.

Encryption introduces larger packet sizes to analyze and store.

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Questions 32

What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

B.

Tampered images are used in the security investigation process

C.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

D.

Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process

E.

The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

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Questions 33

Which step in the incident response process researches an attacking host through logs in a SIEM?

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

preparation

C.

eradication

D.

containment

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Questions 34

What ate two categories of DDoS attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

split brain

B.

scanning

C.

phishing

D.

reflected

E.

direct

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Questions 35

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 35

An attacker Infiltrated an organization's network and ran a scan to advance with the lateral movement technique. Which two elements from the scan assist the attacker? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

function and service the server is providing

B.

CPU and vendor version of the asset

C.

running services and parts

D.

security identifiers of logged-in accounts

E.

latency and MS information to calculate delays for a command injection

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Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 36

What does this Cuckoo sandbox report indicate?

Options:

A.

The file is spyware.

B.

The file will open unsecure ports when executed.

C.

The file will open a command interpreter when executed.

D.

The file is ransomware.

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Questions 37

200-201 Question 37

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of data filtering is provided?

Options:

A.

Web

B.

Firewall

C.

Mail

D.

Application

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Questions 38

A network engineer noticed in the NetFlow report that internal hosts are sending many DNS requests to external DNS servers A SOC analyst checked the endpoints and discovered that they are infected and became part of the botnet Endpoints are sending multiple DNS requests but with spoofed IP addresses of valid external sources What kind of attack are infected endpoints involved in1?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

DNS flooding

D.

DNS amplification

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Questions 39

200-201 Question 39

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must use a 5-tuple approach to isolate a compromised host in a grouped set of logs.

Which data must the engineer use?

Options:

A.

66

B.

b4:2a0ef227 83

C.

7c:5c:f8:9f:d1:fc

D.

57813

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Questions 40

Which type of access control depends on the job function of the user?

Options:

A.

discretionary access control

B.

nondiscretionary access control

C.

role-based access control

D.

rule-based access control

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Questions 41

How does certificate authority impact a security system?

Options:

A.

It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

B.

It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate

D.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server

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Questions 42

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

Options:

A.

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high load processes to avoid resource exhaustion.

B.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server.

C.

Run "ps -ef" to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources.

D.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map required processes to find the gap.

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Questions 43

An engineer must analyze a security event from last month. The engineer has access to a .pcap file collected via traffic mirroring and NetFlow data. The engineer must perform checks quickly on a busy network segment without prior knowledge of the incident details. Which source of data should be used for analysis?

Options:

A.

pcap file because it is easy to track all activity for the last month

B.

NetFlow because it has all needed data

C.

both sources, first NetFlow because collection is easy, then pcap

D.

both sources, first .pcap based on a simple query, then NetFlow

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Questions 44

How does the approach of a behavioral detection system to identifying security threats compare to that of a rule-based detection system?

Options:

A.

Rule-based detection is effective with fewer false positives, and behavioral adapts over time.

B.

Behavioral detection is easier to deploy without rules, and rule-based needs historical data.

C.

Behavioral detection is adaptive to deviations, and rule-based detection uses static rules.

D.

Rule-based detection excels at APT hunts with updates, and behavioral focuses on anomalies.

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Questions 45

Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?

Options:

A.

known-plaintext

B.

replay

C.

dictionary

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 46

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

Inline interrogation is less complex as traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data.

B.

Traffic mirroring copies the traffic rather than forwarding it directly to the analysis tools

C.

Inline replicates the traffic to preserve integrity rather than modifying packets before sending them to other analysis tools.

D.

Traffic mirroring results in faster traffic analysis and inline is considerably slower due to latency.

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Questions 47

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 47

This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?

Options:

A.

parameter manipulation

B.

heap memory corruption

C.

command injection

D.

blind SQL injection

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Questions 48

Which SOC metric represents the time to stop the incident from causing further damage to systems or data?

Options:

A.

Mean Time to Acknowledge (MTTA)

B.

Mean Time to Detect (MTTR)

C.

Mean Time to Respond (MTTR)

D.

Mean Time to Contain (MTTC)

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Questions 49

200-201 Question 49

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must map these events to the source technology that generated the event logs. To which technology do the generated logs belong?

Options:

A.

proxy

B.

antivirus

C.

IPS

D.

firewall

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Questions 50

What are two differences and benefits of packet filtering, stateful firewalling, and deep packet inspections? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packet filtering is capable of UDP state monitoring only, and stateful inspection can provide monitoring of TCP sessions.

B.

Deep packet inspection is capable of malware blocking, and packet filtering is not.

C.

Stateful inspection is capable of packet data inspections, and deep packet inspection is not.

D.

Deep packet inspection operates up to Layer 7, and packet filtering operates on Layer 3 and 4 of OSI model.

E.

Stateful inspection is capable of TCP state tracking, and deep packet inspection checks only TCP source and destination ports.

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Questions 51

What is the impact of false negative alerts when compared to true negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A true negative is a legitimate attack that triggers a brute force alert, and a false negative is when no alert and no attack is occurring.

B.

A true negative is an alert for an exploit attempt when no attack was detected, and a false negative is when no attack happens and an alert is still raised.

C.

A false negative is an event that alerts for injection attack when no attack is happening, and a true negative is an attack that happens and an alert that is appropriately raised.

D.

A false negative is someone trying to hack into the system and no alert is raised, and a true negative is an event that never happened and an alert was not raised.

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Questions 52

Which two components reduce the attack surface on an endpoint? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

secure boot

B.

load balancing

C.

increased audit log levels

D.

restricting USB ports

E.

full packet captures at the endpoint

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Questions 53

Which two measures are used by the defense-m-depth strategy? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Bridge the single connection into multiple.

B.

Divide the network into parts

C.

Split packets into pieces.

D.

Reduce the load on network devices.

E.

Implement the patch management process

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Questions 54

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Deep packet inspection gives insights up to Layer 7, and stateful inspection gives insights only up to Layer 4.

B.

Deep packet inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and stateful inspection requires less human intervention.

C.

Stateful inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and deep packet inspection requires less human intervention.

D.

Stateful inspection verifies data at the transport layer and deep packet inspection verifies data at the application layer

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Questions 55

200-201 Question 55

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS amplification attack

B.

Brute force attack

C.

ARP poisoning

D.

Denial of service

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Questions 56

Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

200-201 Question 56

Options:

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Questions 57

What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN ports?

Options:

A.

Tap mirrors existing traffic from specified ports, while SPAN presents more structured data for deeper analysis.

B.

SPAN passively splits traffic between a network device and the network without altering it, while Tap alters response times.

C.

SPAN improves the detection of media errors, while Tap provides direct access to traffic with lowered data visibility.

D.

Tap sends traffic from physical layers to the monitoring device, while SPAN provides a copy of network traffic from switch to destination

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Questions 58

Refer to exhibit.

200-201 Question 58

An analyst performs the analysis of the pcap file to detect the suspicious activity. What challenges did the analyst face in terms of data visibility?

Options:

A.

data encapsulation

B.

IP fragmentation

C.

code obfuscation

D.

data encryption

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Questions 59

Which are two denial-of-service attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

TCP connections

B.

ping of death

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

code-red

E.

UDP flooding

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Questions 60

Which two protocols are used for DDoS amplification attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ICMPv6

B.

DNS

C.

NTP

D.

TCP

E.

HTTP

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Questions 61

200-201 Question 61

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer received a ticket to analyze unusual network traffic. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

denial-of-service attack

B.

data exfiltration

C.

regular network traffic; no suspicious activity

D.

cookie poisoning

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Questions 62

Which technology assures that the information transferred from point A to point B is unaltered and authentic?

Options:

A.

Subject Alternative Name

B.

Trust anchor

C.

Digital certificates

D.

EMV signatures

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Questions 63

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 63

What must be interpreted from this packet capture?

Options:

A.

IP address 192.168.88 12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 74 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol

B.

IP address 192.168.88.12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.

C.

IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168 88.12 with a source port 80 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol.

D.

IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168.88.12 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.

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Questions 64

Drag and drop the event term from the left onto the description on the right.

200-201 Question 64

Options:

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Questions 65

What is the impact of encryption?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated

B.

Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals

C.

Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved

D.

Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it

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Questions 66

An engineer must compare NIST vs ISO frameworks The engineer deeded to compare as readable documentation and also to watch a comparison video review. Using Windows 10 OS. the engineer started a browser and searched for a NIST document and then opened a new tab in the same browser and searched for an ISO document for comparison

The engineer tried to watch the video, but there 'was an audio problem with OS so the engineer had to troubleshoot it At first the engineer started CMD and looked fee a driver path then locked for a corresponding registry in the registry editor The engineer enabled "Audiosrv" in task manager and put it on auto start and the problem was solved Which two components of the OS did the engineer touch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

permissions

B.

PowerShell logs

C.

service

D.

MBR

E.

process and thread

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Questions 67

An investigator is examining a copy of an ISO file that is stored in CDFS format. What type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

data from a CD copied using Mac-based system

B.

data from a CD copied using Linux system

C.

data from a DVD copied using Windows system

D.

data from a CD copied using Windows

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Questions 68

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited and the risk is the potential for loss or damage

B.

A vulnerability is an attack surface, and the risk is the vector of the attack

C.

A risk is a possible danger that an exploit applies to and a vulnerability represents the threat actor

D.

Risk is the assessment of possible weaknesses and vulnerability is a reconfiguration of an asset

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Questions 69

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

Options:

A.

internet

B.

transport

C.

application

D.

data link

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Questions 70

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

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Questions 71

What is the definition of threat intelligence in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Update and hardening of IT infrastructure

B.

Design and implementation of advanced defense mechanisms

C.

Information and analysis related to potential security threats

D.

Design and delivery of sophisticated cyberattacks

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Questions 72

What is vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B.

A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C.

A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D.

A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

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Questions 73

What is a difference between rule-based and role-based access control mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Rule-based are simple and easy to execute, and role-based are well-defined.

B.

Role-based are an appropriate choice in geographically diverse workgroups, and rule-based are for simply structured workgroups.

C.

Rule-based are less granular, and role-based have time constraints.

D.

Role-based are efficient in small workgroups, and rule-based are preferred in time-defined workgroups.

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Questions 74

While viewing packet capture data, an analyst sees that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header.

Which technology makes this behavior possible?

Options:

A.

encapsulation

B.

TOR

C.

tunneling

D.

NAT

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Questions 75

What is a description of "phishing" as a social engineering attack"?

Options:

A.

Someone without the proper authentication follows an authenticated employee into a restricted area The attacker might impersonate a delivery driver and wait outside a building to get things started

B.

A hacker masquerading as a trusted entity, dupes a victim into opening an email, instant message, or text message The recipient is then tricked into clicking a malicious link.

C.

The attacker focuses on creating a good pretext or a fabricated scenario that is used to try and steal victims' personal information

D.

Fake Social Security Administration personnel contact random individuals inform them that there has been a computer problem on their end and ask that those individuals confirm their Social Security Number, all for the purpose of committing identity theft.

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Questions 76

What is threat hunting?

Options:

A.

Managing a vulnerability assessment report to mitigate potential threats.

B.

Focusing on proactively detecting possible signs of intrusion and compromise.

C.

Pursuing competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their system to acquire intelligence data.

D.

Attempting to deliberately disrupt servers by altering their availability

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Questions 77

A system administrator is ensuring that specific registry information is accurate.

Which type of configuration information does the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE hive contain?

Options:

A.

file extension associations

B.

hardware, software, and security settings for the system

C.

currently logged in users, including folders and control panel settings

D.

all users on the system, including visual settings

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Questions 78

An analyst discovers that a legitimate security alert has been dismissed. Which signature caused this impact on network traffic?

Options:

A.

true negative

B.

false negative

C.

false positive

D.

true positive

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Questions 79

A vulnerability analyst is performing the monthly scan data review Output data is very big and getting bigger each month The analyst decides to create a more efficient process to complete the task on time All false positives and true positives are excluded from the results The remaining findings will be assigned to a technical team for further remediation What is the result of such activity?

Options:

A.

False negatives must also be excluded from the data

B.

Data is filtered property and contains only valid results

C.

Exclusion is not needed and all data must be remediated

D.

Analysis is not performed correctly, and it is missing correct data

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Questions 80

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

Options:

A.

TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter integrity and provides full duplex network.

B.

SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

C.

TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

D.

SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

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Questions 81

What is rule-based detection when compared to statistical detection?

Options:

A.

proof of a user's identity

B.

proof of a user's action

C.

likelihood of user's action

D.

falsification of a user's identity

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Questions 82

In digital communications, which method is recommended for securely exchanging public keys between users T0n2262144790 and D4n4126220794?

Options:

A.

Hardware Security Module

B.

Automated Certificate Management Environment

C.

Pretty Good Privacy

D.

Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

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Questions 83

A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders After further investigation, the analyst learns that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?

Options:

A.

post-incident activity

B.

detection and analysis

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

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Questions 84

200-201 Question 84

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst examines Apache web server logs and notices the entries. Which security concern is occurring?

Options:

A.

Someone is attempting to exploit a vulnerability in XMLRPC functionality

B.

An attacker potentially gained shell access to the web server

C.

The web server is experiencing a denial-of-service attack

D.

A brute-force attack is being attempted against common administrative login pages

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Questions 85

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?

Options:

A.

The computer has a HIPS installed on it.

B.

The computer has a NIPS installed on it.

C.

The computer has a HIDS installed on it.

D.

The computer has a NIDS installed on it.

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Questions 86

200-201 Question 86

Refer to the exhibit A penetration tester runs the Nmap scan against the company server to uncover possible vulnerabilities and exploit them Which two elements can the penetration tester identity from the scan results? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UIDs and group identifiers

B.

number of concurrent connections the server can handle

C.

running services and applications

D.

server uptime and internal clock

E.

server purpose and functionality

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Questions 87

A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

CD data copy prepared in Windows

B.

CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system

C.

CD data copy prepared in Linux system

D.

CD data copy prepared in Android-based system

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Questions 88

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 88

What does this output indicate?

Options:

A.

HTTPS ports are open on the server.

B.

SMB ports are closed on the server.

C.

FTP ports are open on the server.

D.

Email ports are closed on the server.

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Questions 89

An engineer must gather data for monitoring purposes from different network devices. The engineer needs to collect events from the local network and use that information for packet sniffing. The solution must create an exact copy of traffic and provide full fidelity. Which solution should the engineer use?

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

tap

C.

SPAN ports

D.

tunneling

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Questions 90

Which type of attack involves sending input commands to a web server to access data?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

Denial of service

C.

Cross-site scripting

D.

DNS poisoning

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Questions 91

How does TOR alter data content during transit?

Options:

A.

It spoofs the destination and source information protecting both sides.

B.

It encrypts content and destination information over multiple layers.

C.

It redirects destination traffic through multiple sources avoiding traceability.

D.

It traverses source traffic through multiple destinations before reaching the receiver

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Questions 92

A company is using several network applications that require high availability and responsiveness, such that milliseconds of latency on network traffic is not acceptable. An engineer needs to analyze the network and identify ways to improve traffic movement to minimize delays. Which information must the engineer obtain for this analysis?

Options:

A.

total throughput on the interface of the router and NetFlow records

B.

output of routing protocol authentication failures and ports used

C.

running processes on the applications and their total network usage

D.

deep packet captures of each application flow and duration

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Questions 93

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

Options:

A.

The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.

B.

The total incident escalations per week.

C.

The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.

D.

The total incident escalations per month.

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Questions 94

What is the difference between a threat and an exploit?

Options:

A.

A threat is a result of utilizing flow in a system, and an exploit is a result of gaining control over the system.

B.

A threat is a potential attack on an asset and an exploit takes advantage of the vulnerability of the asset

C.

An exploit is an attack vector, and a threat is a potential path the attack must go through.

D.

An exploit is an attack path, and a threat represents a potential vulnerability

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Questions 95

200-201 Question 95

Refer to the exhibit. What type of event is occurring?

Options:

A.

Legitimate web browsing activity

B.

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack

C.

User trying to access a file share

D.

Malware attempting to spread laterally

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Questions 96

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

Options:

A.

stored

B.

reflective

C.

DOM

D.

CSRF

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Questions 97

What is the key difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

DAC is controlled by the OS, and MAC is controlled by the owner of the access list.

B.

DAC is the most strict access control, and MAC is object-based access.

C.

MAC is controlled by the OS, and DAC is controlled by the owner of the access list.

D.

MAC is the most strict access control, and DAC is object-based access.

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Questions 98

An engineer is working on a ticket for an incident from the incident management team A week ago. an external web application was targeted by a DDoS attack Server resources were exhausted and after two hours it crashed. An engineer was able to identify the attacker and technique used Three hours after the attack, the server was restored and the engineer recommended implementing mitigation by Blackhole filtering and transferred the incident ticket back to the IR team According to NIST SP800-61, at which phase of the incident response did the engineer finish work?

Options:

A.

preparation

B.

post-incident activity

C.

containment eradication and recovery

D.

detection and analysis

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Questions 99

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 99

A company employee is connecting to mail google.com from an endpoint device. The website is loaded but with an error. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking attack

B.

Endpoint local time is invalid.

C.

Certificate is not in trusted roots.

D.

man-m-the-middle attack

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Questions 100

The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targeting the organization. The team's approach is to push back the cyber kill chain and mitigate ongoing incidents. At which phase of the cyber kill chain should the security team mitigate this type of attack?

Options:

A.

actions

B.

delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

installation

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Questions 101

What is a key difference between a tampered and an untampered disk image during a forensic investigation?

Options:

A.

An untampered image is encrypted, and a tampered one is not encrypted.

B.

A tampered image has a different hash value, and an untampered image has an unchanged hash value.

C.

A tampered image is accessible only by administrators, and an untampered one is accessible by all users.

D.

An untampered image is compressed, and a tampered one is left uncompressed.

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Questions 102

A security consultant must change the identity access management model fof their organization The new approach will put responsibility on the owner, who will decide whichusers will have access to which resources Which low-cost model must be used for this purpose?

Options:

A.

mandatory access control, due to automate scaling

B.

discretionary access control due to easy maintenance

C.

discretionary access control, due to high security

D.

mandatory access control, due to low granularity

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Questions 103

An analyst is using the SIEM platform and must extract a custom property from a Cisco device and capture the phrase, "File: Clean." Which regex must the analyst import?

Options:

A.

File: Clean

B.

^Parent File Clean$

C.

File: Clean (.*)

D.

^File: Clean$

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Questions 104

A user reports that a mobile application is working very slowly. A DDoS detection tool reports high-volume traffic. During which phase does the CSIRT ensure that the incident does not continue and confirm that the organization has taken the required actions?

Options:

A.

preparation

B.

containment

C.

recovery

D.

eradication

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Questions 105

What is a difference between SOAR and SIEM?

Options:

A.

SOAR platforms are used for threat and vulnerability management, but SIEM applications are not

B.

SIEM applications are used for threat and vulnerability management, but SOAR platforms are not

C.

SOAR receives information from a single platform and delivers it to a SIEM

D.

SIEM receives information from a single platform and delivers it to a SOAR

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Questions 106

Which type of attack uses a botnet to reflect requests off of an NTP server to overwhelm a target?

Options:

A.

Display

B.

Man-in-the-middle

C.

Distributed denial of service

D.

Denial of service

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Questions 107

What is the purpose of a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

to make files inaccessible by encrypting the data

B.

to decrypt encrypted data and disks

C.

to send keystrokes to a threat actor

D.

to escalate privileges

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Questions 108

How is symmetric encryption used for HTTPS connections?

Options:

A.

The symmetric encryption algorithm uses public-private certificates

B.

Encryption is based on RSA-2048

C.

The symmetric key is used for encryption

D.

The key exchange process is reliable and secure

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Questions 109

200-201 Question 109

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer received a report that a host is communicating with unknown domains on the internet. The network engineer collected packet capture but could not determine the technique or the payload used. What technique is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

amplification

B.

teardrop

C.

session hijacking

D.

tunneling

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Questions 110

200-201 Question 110

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of actions must an engineer perform to identify and fix this issue?

Options:

A.

Reinstall the IIS server to reset certificate details to default and try to connect to the server.

B.

Remove the intermediate certificates and install the CA root certificate on each server.

C.

Implement a different version of CA authority and install intermediate certificates.

D.

Add client authentication to the certificate template, reissue, and apply the certificate.

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Questions 111

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 111

Which component is identifiable in this exhibit?

Options:

A.

Trusted Root Certificate store on the local machine

B.

Windows PowerShell verb

C.

Windows Registry hive

D.

local service in the Windows Services Manager

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Questions 112

Which two pieces of information are collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP port to which the traffic is destined

B.

TCP port from which the traffic was sourced

C.

source IP address of the packet

D.

destination IP address of the packet

E.

UDP port from which the traffic is sourced

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Questions 113

How does an attack surface differ from an attack vector?

Options:

A.

An attack vector recognizes the potential outcomes of an attack, and the attack surface is choosing a method of an attack.

B.

An attack surface identifies vulnerable parts for an attack, and an attack vector specifies which attacks are feasible to those parts.

C.

An attack surface mitigates external vulnerabilities, and an attack vector identifies mitigation techniques and possible workarounds.

D.

An attack vector matches components that can be exploited, and an attack surface classifies the potential path for exploitation

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Questions 114

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

200-201 Question 114

Options:

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Questions 115

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

privilege escalation

B.

DDoS attack

C.

phishing

D.

man-in-the-middle

E.

pharming

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Questions 116

Which type of data consists of connection level, application-specific records generated from network traffic?

Options:

A.

transaction data

B.

location data

C.

statistical data

D.

alert data

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Questions 117

Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?

Options:

A.

colo?ur

B.

col[0−8]+our

C.

colou?r

D.

col[0−9]+our

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Questions 118

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

scope

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Questions 119

What is an example of social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

receiving an unexpected email from an unknown person with an attachment from someone in the same company

B.

receiving an email from human resources requesting a visit to their secure website to update contact information

C.

sending a verbal request to an administrator who knows how to change an account password

D.

receiving an invitation to the department’s weekly WebEx meeting

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Questions 120

Which system monitors local system operation and local network access for violations of a security policy?

Options:

A.

host-based intrusion detection

B.

systems-based sandboxing

C.

host-based firewall

D.

antivirus

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Questions 121

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 121

Which packet contains a file that is extractable within Wireshark?

Options:

A.

2317

B.

1986

C.

2318

D.

2542

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Questions 122

A suspicious user opened a connection from a compromised host inside an organization. Traffic was going through a router and the network administrator was able to identify this flow. The admin was following 5-tuple to collect needed data. Which information was gathered based on this approach?

Options:

A.

direct path

B.

user name

C.

protocol

D.

NAT

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Questions 123

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 123

What is occurring in this network traffic?

Options:

A.

High rate of SYN packets being sent from a multiple source towards a single destination IP.

B.

High rate of ACK packets being sent from a single source IP towards multiple destination IPs.

C.

Flood of ACK packets coming from a single source IP to multiple destination IPs.

D.

Flood of SYN packets coming from a single source IP to a single destination IP.

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Questions 124

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 124

What does the message indicate?

Options:

A.

an access attempt was made from the Mosaic web browser

B.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

C.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the root of the website

D.

a denied access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

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Questions 125

Which management concept best describes developing, operating, maintaining, upgrading, and disposing of all resources?

Options:

A.

configuration

B.

vulnerability

C.

asset

D.

patch

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Questions 126

During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract information from the collected data?

Options:

A.

investigation

B.

examination

C.

reporting

D.

collection

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Questions 127

What does the SOC metric MTTC provide in incident analysis'?

Options:

A.

average time it takes to fix the issues caused by the incident

B.

average time it takes to recognize and stop the incident

C.

average time it takes to detect that the incident has occurred

D.

average time the attacker has access to the environment

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Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit

200-201 Question 128

An engineer is analyzing DNS response packets that are larger than expected The engineer looks closer and notices a lack of appropriate DNS queries What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijack attack

B.

DNS amplification attack

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

DNS cache poisoning

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Questions 129

How is SQL injection prevented?

Options:

A.

Address space layout randomization

B.

Validate and sanitize user input

C.

...in the web server as a nonprivileged user

D.

...cost profiling

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Questions 130

How does agentless monitoring differ from agent-based monitoring?

Options:

A.

Agentless can access the data via API. While agent-base uses a less efficient method and accesses log data through WMI.

B.

Agent-based monitoring is less intrusive in gathering log data, while agentless requires open ports to fetch the logs

C.

Agent-based monitoring has a lower initial cost for deployment, while agentless monitoring requires resource-intensive deployment.

D.

Agent-based has a possibility to locally filter and transmit only valuable data, while agentless has much higher network utilization

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Questions 131

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 131

An engineer is analyzing a PCAP file after a recent breach An engineer identified that the attacker used an aggressive ARP scan to scan the hosts and found web and SSH servers. Further analysis showed several SSH Server Banner and Key Exchange Initiations. The engineer cannot see the exact data being transmitted over an encrypted channel and cannot identify how the attacker gained access How did the attacker gain access?

Options:

A.

by using the buffer overflow in the URL catcher feature for SSH

B.

by using an SSH Tectia Server vulnerability to enable host-based authentication

C.

by using an SSH vulnerability to silently redirect connections to the local host

D.

by using brute force on the SSH service to gain access

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Questions 132

A user received a malicious attachment but did not run it. Which category classifies the intrusion?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

reconnaissance

C.

installation

D.

delivery

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Questions 133

A software development company develops high-end technology for the customer that will go through the HIPAA audit program. The technology will be hosted in the cloud, and the healthcare, employee names, and contact information will be stored on two separate logically isolated private cloud services. The patents and inventions will be hosted on a separate encrypted database. A compliance team is asked to analyze the cloud infrastructure and architecture to identify the protected data. Which two types of protected data should be identified? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Federated Identity ID (FII)

B.

Protected Health Information (PHI)

C.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

E.

Self-sovereign Identity (SSI)

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Questions 134

What describes the impact of false-positive alerts compared to false-negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A false negative is alerting for an XSS attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an XSS attack happened A false positive is when an XSS attack happens and no alert is raised

B.

A false negative is a legitimate attack triggering a brute-force alert. An engineer investigates the alert and finds out someone intended to break into the system A false positive is when no alert and no attack is occurring

C.

A false positive is an event alerting for a brute-force attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that a legitimate user entered the wrong credential several times A false negative is when a threat actor tries to brute-force attack a system and no alert is raised.

D.

A false positive is an event alerting for an SQL injection attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an attack attempt was blocked by IPS A false negative is when the attack gets detected but succeeds and results in a breach.

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Questions 135

Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

bluesnarfing

D.

denial-of-service

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Questions 136

Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data?

Options:

A.

legal

B.

compliance

C.

regulated

D.

contractual

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Questions 137

Drag and drop the technologies from the left onto the data types the technologies provide on the right.

200-201 Question 137

Options:

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Questions 138

What is a comparison between rule-based and statistical detection?

Options:

A.

Statistical is based on measured data while rule-based uses the evaluated probability approach.

B.

Rule-based Is based on assumptions and statistical uses data Known beforehand.

C.

Rule-based uses data known beforehand and statistical is based on assumptions.

D.

Statistical uses the probability approach while rule-based Is based on measured data.

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Questions 139

When communicating via TLS, the client initiates the handshake to the server and the server responds back with its certificate for identification.

Which information is available on the server certificate?

Options:

A.

server name, trusted subordinate CA, and private key

B.

trusted subordinate CA, public key, and cipher suites

C.

trusted CA name, cipher suites, and private key

D.

server name, trusted CA, and public key

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Questions 140

Developers must implement tasks on remote Windows environments. They decided to use scripts for enterprise applications through PowerShell. Why does the functionality not work?

Options:

A.

WMI must be configured.

B.

Symlinks must be enabled.

C.

Ext4 must be implemented.

D.

MBR must be set up.

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Questions 141

Refer to the exhibit.

200-201 Question 141

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Cross-Site Scripting attack

B.

XML External Entitles attack

C.

Insecure Deserialization

D.

Regular GET requests

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Questions 142

Which of these describes volatile evidence?

Options:

A.

registers and cache

B.

logs

C.

usernames

D.

disk and removable drives

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Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Last Update: Feb 24, 2026
Questions: 476

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