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Free Practice Questions for the Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam (2026 Updated)

At Marks4sure, we are dedicated to providing IT professionals with the most accurate and reliable preparation materials for the Cisco 200-301 exam. To support your certification journey, we have made a selection of our premium 2026 CCNA practice questions and answers available completely free. You can take this practice test as many times as you need. Every question includes a detailed, expertly verified explanation to ensure you fully grasp the core security concepts before test day.

Questions 4

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

Options:

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

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Questions 5

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

200-301 Question 5

Options:

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200-301 Report Card

Questions 6

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

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Questions 7

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

Options:

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

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Questions 8

Refer to the Exhibit.

200-301 Question 8

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?

Options:

A.

There is a native VLAN mismatch

B.

Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

C.

The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN

D.

All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

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Questions 9

When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP- Manager interface?

Options:

A.

Discovery response

B.

DHCP request

C.

DHCP discover

D.

Discovery request

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Questions 10

hostname CPE

service password-encryption

ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

ip name-server 198.51.100.210

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

username admin privilege 15 secret s0m3s3cr3t

line vty 0 4

transport input ssh

login local

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

no ip name-server 198.51.100.210

B.

no login local

C.

no service password-encryption

D.

no ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

E.

no hostname CPE

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Questions 11

Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?

Options:

A.

Alert

B.

Error

C.

Emergency

D.

Critical

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Questions 12

Why implement VRRP?

Options:

A.

to provide end users with a virtual gateway in a multivendor network

B.

to leverage a weighting scheme to provide uninterrupted service

C.

to detect link failures without the overhead of Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

D.

to hand over to end users the autodiscovery of virtual gateways

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Questions 13

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 13

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

Options:

A.

The QoS policy is dropping traffic.

B.

There is a duplex mismatch.

C.

The link is over utilized.

D.

The MTU is not set to the default value.

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Questions 14

What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.

It enables dynamic flow identification.

B.

It enables policy-based routing.

C.

It provide best-effort service.

D.

It limits bandwidth usage.

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 15

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

Options:

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

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Questions 16

Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right. Not all terms are used.

200-301 Question 16

Options:

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Questions 17

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 17

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1

B.

ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

C.

ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10

D.

ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10

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Questions 18

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

Options:

A.

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

ip ospf dead-interval 40

C.

ip ospf network point-to-point

D.

ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 19

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

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Questions 20

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

assigns DNS locally and then forwards request to DHCP server

B.

permits one IP helper command under an individual Layer 3 interface

C.

allows only MAC-to-IP reservations to determine the local subnet of a client

D.

minimizes the necessary number of DHCP servers

E.

configured under the Layer 3 interface of a router on the client subnet

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Questions 21

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

Options:

A.

conserve globally unique address space

B.

simplify the addressing in the network

C.

limit the number of nodes reachable via the Internet

D.

reduce network complexity

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Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 22

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

Options:

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

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Questions 23

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

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Questions 24

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

Options:

A.

read

B.

create

C.

replace

D.

update

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Questions 25

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

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Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 26

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

200-301 Question 26

Options:

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Questions 27

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

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Questions 28

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

Options:

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

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Questions 29

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 29

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

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Questions 30

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

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Questions 31

A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?

A)

200-301 Question 31

B)

200-301 Question 31

C)

200-301 Question 31

D)

200-301 Question 31

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 32

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

200-301 Question 32

Options:

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Questions 33

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

Options:

A.

redundancy

B.

console

C.

distribution system

D.

service

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Questions 34

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

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Questions 35

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

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Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 36

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

200-301 Question 36

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 37

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

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Questions 38

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

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Questions 39

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 39

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

Options:

A.

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

B.

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

C.

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

D.

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

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Questions 40

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

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Questions 41

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

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Questions 42

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 42

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 43

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

Options:

A.

role-based access control

B.

biometrics

C.

multifactor authentication

D.

physical access control

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Questions 44

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

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Questions 45

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 45

200-301 Question 45

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

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Questions 46

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 46

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

Router

C.

Load balancer

D.

firewall

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Questions 47

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

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Questions 48

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They prevent (loops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

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Questions 49

What are two characteristics of a public cloud implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 50

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

200-301 Question 50

Options:

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Questions 51

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in " mode active "

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

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Questions 52

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

200-301 Question 52

Options:

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Questions 53

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

200-301 Question 53

Options:

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Questions 54

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 54

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

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Questions 55

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

Options:

A.

The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

B.

The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

C.

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

D.

The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 56

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

Options:

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

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Questions 57

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

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Questions 58

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANs 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANs with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

Options:

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

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Questions 59

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Options:

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Questions 60

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

Options:

A.

Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B.

Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C.

Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

D.

Accept: application/json

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Questions 61

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

Options:

A.

200

B.

301

C.

404

D.

500

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Questions 62

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Options:

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

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Questions 63

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

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Questions 64

What is a characteristic of RSA?

Options:

A.

It uses preshared keys for encryption

B.

It requires both sides to have identical keys

C.

It is a private-key encryption algorithm

D.

It is a public-key cryptosystem

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Questions 65

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 65

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

Options:

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

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Questions 66

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

Options:

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

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Questions 67

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 67

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Questions 68

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 68

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

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Questions 69

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 69

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

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Questions 70

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

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Questions 71

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 71

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

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Questions 72

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

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Questions 73

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

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Questions 74

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

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Questions 75

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Options:

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 76

Which type of DNS record is used to specify the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient ' s domain?

Options:

A.

MX record

B.

TXT record

C.

A record

D.

SRV record

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Questions 77

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 77

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

Options:

A.

modify helto interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

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Questions 78

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 78

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

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Questions 79

200-301 Question 79

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

200-301 Question 79

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 80

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

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Questions 81

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

listening

B.

blocking

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

speaking

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Questions 82

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

200-301 Question 82

Options:

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Questions 83

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

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Questions 84

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 84

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

192.168.1.17

B.

192.168.1.61

C.

192.168.1.64

D.

192.168.1.127

E.

192.168.1.254

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Questions 85

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

Options:

A.

Device(Config)#lldp run

B.

Device(Config)#cdp run

C.

Device(Config-if)#cdp enable

D.

Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

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Questions 86

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

Options:

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

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Questions 87

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

Options:

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

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Questions 88

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

200-301 Question 88

Options:

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Questions 89

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

Options:

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

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Questions 90

What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a three-tier architecture model?

Options:

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

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Questions 91

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 91

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the user wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

200-301 Question 91

Options:

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Questions 92

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

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Questions 93

Which type of traffic is sent with pure IPsec?

Options:

A.

broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites

B.

multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location

C.

spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites

D.

unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

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Questions 94

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

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Questions 95

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 95

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

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Questions 96

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

Options:

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

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Questions 97

200-301 Question 97

Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.2

B.

10.10.2.2

C.

10.10.3.2

D.

10.10.4.2

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Questions 98

Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

default

C.

trunk

D.

Bopess

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Questions 99

200-301 Question 99

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP addressss for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 froin the border router?

Options:

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

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Questions 100

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

200-301 Question 100

Options:

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Questions 101

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PBR

B.

FRTS

C.

PQ

D.

CBWFQ

E.

CAR

Buy Now
Questions 102

200-301 Question 102

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

Options:

A.

EIGRP

B.

OSPF

C.

RIP

D.

Local

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Questions 103

A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require

Options:

A.

Unlike lightweight access points, which require redundant WLCs to support firmware upgrades, autonomous access points require only one WLC.

B.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points store a complete copy of the current firmware for backup.

C.

Unlike lightweight access points, autonomous access points can recover automatically from a corrupt firmware update.

D.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC to implement remote firmware updates.

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Questions 104

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 104

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?

Options:

A.

Configure the no lldp tlv-select-management-address command globally on Cat9K-2

B.

Configure the no lldp transmit command on interface G1/0/21 in Cat9K-1

C.

Configure the no lldp receive command on interface G1/0/21 on Cat9K-1

D.

Configure the no lldp mac-phy-cfg command globally on Cat9K-2

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Questions 105

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

Options:

A.

propagates VLAN information between switches

B.

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

C.

provides DDoS mitigation

D.

rate-limits certain traffic

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Questions 106

Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?

Options:

A.

channels 2, 7, 9, and 11

B.

channels 1, 6, 11, and 14

C.

channels 2, 7, and 11

D.

channels 1, 6, and 11

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Questions 107

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 107

The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

Options:

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 108

What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

Options:

A.

Set PMF to Required.

B.

Enable MAC Filtering.

C.

Enable WPA Policy.

D.

Set Fast Transition to Enabled

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Questions 109

How does IPsec provide secure networking for applications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It takes advantage of FTP to secure file transfers between nodes on the network.

B.

It provides GRE tunnels to transmit traffic securely between network nodes.

C.

It enables sets of security associations between peers.

D.

It leverages TFTP providing secure file transfers among peers on the network.

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Questions 110

Which group of channels in the 802.11b/g/n/ax 2.4 GHz frequency bands are non-overlapping channels?

Options:

A.

channels 1, 5, and 10

B.

channels 1, 5, and 11

C.

channels 1, 6, and 10

D.

channels 1, 6, and 11

Buy Now
Questions 111

What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3.

B.

The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover.

C.

The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network.

D.

The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair.

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Questions 112

Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 112

Options:

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Questions 113

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 113

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

200-301 Question 113

B)

200-301 Question 113

C)

200-301 Question 113

D)

200-301 Question 113

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 114

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

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Questions 115

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 115

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Questions 116

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

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Questions 117

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

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Questions 118

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

200-301 Question 118

Options:

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Questions 119

In software-defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

Options:

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

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Questions 120

An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

Options:

A.

logging trap 5

B.

logging trap 2

C.

logging trap 4

D.

logging trap 3

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Questions 121

Which option about JSON is true?

Options:

A.

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

B.

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C.

used for storing information

D.

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

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Questions 122

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 122

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

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Questions 123

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

200-301 Question 123

Options:

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Questions 124

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

Options:

A.

it enables BPDU messages

B.

It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

C.

It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

D.

It immediately enables the port in the listening state

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Questions 125

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 125

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

200-301 Question 125

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

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Questions 126

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?200-301 Question 126

Options:

A.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.252

B.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.248

C.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0

D.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

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Questions 127

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

::ffff:1014:1011/96

B.

2001:701:1046:1111::1/64

C.

;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d

D.

2002:5121:204b:1111::1/64

E.

FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104

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Questions 128

A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

Options:

A.

The router chooses the route with the oldest age.

B.

The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

C.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.

D.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.

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Questions 129

Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points?

Options:

A.

Kerberos

B.

802.1Q

C.

802.1x

D.

TACACS+

E.

RADIUS

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Questions 130

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

Options:

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

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Questions 131

What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?

Options:

A.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter.

B.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter.

C.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter.

D.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter.

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Questions 132

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 132

Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?

Options:

A.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active no shutdown

B.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode passive no shutdown

C.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode desirableno shutdown

D.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode on no shutdown

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Questions 133

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

Options:

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

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Questions 134

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

B.

selects the best route between networks on a WAN

C.

moves packets within a VLAN

D.

moves packets between different VLANs

E.

makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

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Questions 135

Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effects on the right.

200-301 Question 135

Options:

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Questions 136

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

200-301 Question 136

Options:

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Questions 137

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 137

A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors?

A)

200-301 Question 137

B)

200-301 Question 137

C)

200-301 Question 137

D)

200-301 Question 137

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 138

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 138

User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IIP address 192.168.0.10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

Options:

A.

The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly

B.

The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic

C.

The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2

D.

The traffic to 192.168.0.10 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.

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Questions 139

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

Options:

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

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Questions 140

What is the put method within HTTP?

Options:

A.

It is a read-only operation.

B.

It is a nonldempotent operation.

C.

It replaces data at the destination.

D.

It displays a web site.

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Questions 141

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 141

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

Options:

A.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

Buy Now
Questions 142

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks.

B.

It supports between 50 and 100 users.

C.

It supports between 1 and 50 users.

D.

It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture.

E.

A router port connects to a broadband connection.

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Questions 143

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 143

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100.

C.

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

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Questions 144

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 144

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

200-301 Question 144

Options:

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Questions 145

What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

Options:

A.

DHCPREQUEST

B.

DHCPDISCOVER

C.

DHCPACK

D.

DHCPOFFER

Buy Now
Questions 146

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Faster changes with more reliable results

B.

Reduced operational costs

C.

Fewer network failures

D.

Reduced hardware footprint

E.

Increased network security

Buy Now
Questions 147

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 147

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

Options:

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

Buy Now
Questions 148

What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?

Options:

A.

All four pairs of the cable are used

B.

It detects the device is a powered device

C.

The default level is used for the access point

D.

Power policing is enabled at the same time

Buy Now
Questions 149

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

Options:

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

Buy Now
Questions 150

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

Options:

A.

applies 802.1x authentication

B.

uses TKIP

C.

employs PKI to identify access points

D.

protects against brute force attacks

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Questions 151

Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:

• using an industry-standard trunking protocol

• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs

How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

A)

200-301 Question 151

B)

200-301 Question 151

C)

200-301 Question 151

D)

200-301 Question 151

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 152

Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

802.1X

D.

Kerberos

Buy Now
Questions 153

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 153

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-GHz clients connect? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Broadcast SSID option

B.

Enable the Status option.

C.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11g Only.

D.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

E.

Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

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Questions 154

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization??

Options:

A.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

B.

configuring a password for the console port

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 155

The clients and DHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1?

Options:

A.

ip route 192.168.10.1

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.10.1

C.

ip helper-address 192.168.10.1

D.

ip dhcp address 192.168.10.1

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Questions 156

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 156

Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

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Questions 157

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 157

PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

A)

200-301 Question 157

B)

200-301 Question 157

C)

200-301 Question 157

D)

200-301 Question 157

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 158

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?

Options:

A.

Lightweight with local switching disabled

B.

Local with AP fallback enabled

C.

OfficeExtend with high availability disabled

D.

FlexConnect with local switching enabled

Buy Now
Questions 159

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

200-301 Question 159

Options:

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Questions 160

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 160

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

Options:

A.

Subnet Mask

B.

DNS Servers

C.

Default Gateway

D.

DHCP Server

Buy Now
Questions 161

What is a function of an endpoint?

Options:

A.

It is used directly by an individual user to access network services

B.

It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network

C.

It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN

D.

It provide security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.

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Questions 162

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

Options:

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

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Questions 163

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 163

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?

Options:

A.

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

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Questions 164

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 164

Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.

200-301 Question 164

Options:

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Questions 165

200-301 Question 165

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must transtate the PC1 IIP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 165

B)

200-301 Question 165

C)

200-301 Question 165

D)

200-301 Question 165

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 166

What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?

Options:

A.

Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path.

B.

Allow multiple VLAN to be used in the data path.

C.

Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management.

D.

Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management.

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Questions 167

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 167

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets.

A)

200-301 Question 167

B)

200-301 Question 167

C)

200-301 Question 167

D)

200-301 Question 167

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 168

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

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Questions 169

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 169

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.240

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.248.

D.

255.255.255.248

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Questions 170

What are two reasons a switch experiences frame flooding? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A defective patch cable is connected to the switch port

B.

Topology changes are occurring within spanning-tree

C.

An aged MAC table entry is causing excessive updates

D.

Port-security is configured globally

E.

The forwarding table has overflowed

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Questions 171

Which encryption method is used by WPA3?

Options:

A.

PSK

B.

TKIP

C.

SAE

D.

AES

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Questions 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

200-301 Question 172

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

B.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

C.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

D.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

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Questions 173

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 173

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?

A)

200-301 Question 173

B)

200-301 Question 173

C)

200-301 Question 173

D)

200-301 Question 173

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 174

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

Options:

A.

to secure physical access to a data center

B.

to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram

C.

to securely manage and deploy network devices

D.

to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points

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Questions 175

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 175

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?

Options:

A.

Uncheck the Guest User check box

B.

Check the Guest User Role check box

C.

Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0

D.

Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value

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Questions 176

Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively

B.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

C.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

D.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

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Questions 177

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 177

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Questions 178

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

C.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 179

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

Options:

A.

uses dynamic IP addressss assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP addressss 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

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Questions 180

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 180

Packets are flowing from 192.168 10.1 to the destination at IP addressss 192.168.20 75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

Options:

A.

10.10101

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.101014

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Questions 181

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Options:

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

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Questions 182

Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?

Options:

A.

service port

B.

virtual

C.

AP-Manager

D.

dynamic

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Questions 183

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

inserts MAC addressses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addressses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC addresss

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Questions 184

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

RTP

C.

TCP

D.

IP

E.

ARP

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Questions 185

200-301 Question 185

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to change default settings on SW1 to allow remote access and has entered the following in the configuration mode:

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15

SW1(config-line)#password Labtest32!

Which set of commands are needed to allow only SSH access and hide passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#aaa new-model

B.

SW1(config-line)#login localSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1(config-line)#transport input sshSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1(config-line)#login localSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

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Questions 186

What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?

Options:

A.

SNMP traps are used for proactive monitoring, and SNMP polling is used for reactive monitoring.

B.

SNMP traps send periodic updates via the MIB, and SNMP polling sends data on demand.

C.

SNMP traps are initiated by the network management system, and network devices initiate SNMP polling.

D.

SNMP traps are initiated using a push model at the network device, and SNMP polling is initiated at the server.

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Questions 187

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 187

Options:

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Questions 188

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

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Questions 189

Which cloud-provided service allows an organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

infrastructure-as-a-service

D.

network-as-a-service

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Questions 190

200-301 Question 190

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip addresss 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip addresss 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip addresss 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

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Questions 191

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 191

Options:

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Questions 192

Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

Options:

A.

AES

B.

TKIP

C.

PEAP

D.

EAP

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Questions 193

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

Options:

A.

lt drops the frame immediately.

B.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

C.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

D.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

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Questions 194

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

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Questions 195

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

200-301 Question 195

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 196

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYN flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

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Questions 197

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 197

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

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Questions 198

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Questions 199

Which IPsec mode encapsulates the entire IP packet?

Options:

A.

tunnel

B.

Q-in-Q

C.

SSL VPN

D.

transport

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Questions 200

200-301 Question 200

Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:

handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections

minimizes consumption of public IP addresssses

Options:

A.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.3 netmask 255.255.255.248  ip nat inside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

B.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.248 netmask 255.255.255.248  ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

C.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.200.225 209.165.200.226 netmask 255.255.255.252  ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

D.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 255.255.255.248  ip nat inside source list HQC interface gigabitEthernet0/0 overload

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Questions 201

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

Options:

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configuration

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

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Questions 202

Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

Options:

A.

1 Hz signal

B.

1 GHz signal

C.

60 Hz signal

D.

60 GHz signal

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Questions 203

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

Options:

A.

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

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Questions 204

An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP addressss 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.224

B.

255.255.255.248

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.252

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Questions 205

A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Options:

A.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to it.

B.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

D.

Configure high availability and redundancy for the access points.

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Questions 206

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 206

How many objects, keys and JSDN list values are present?

Options:

A.

three objects, two keys, and three JSDN list values

B.

three objects, three keys and two JSDN Ml values

C.

one object, three keys, and three JSDN list values

D.

one object, three keys and two JSDN list values

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Questions 207

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 207

A network administrator configures the CPE to provide internet access to the company headquarters. Traffic must be load-balanced via ISP1 and ISP2 to ensure redundancy.

Which two command sets must be configured on the CPE router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1 255 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 255 ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 198.51.100.1 ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 198.51.100.1 ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

E.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1 ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 2

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Questions 208

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

200-301 Question 208

Options:

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Questions 209

Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 209

Options:

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Questions 210

Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

SNMP

C.

Kerberos

D.

Telnet

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Questions 211

200-301 Question 211

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport private-vlan association host 5

B.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation negotiate

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan add 5

D.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk pruning vlan add 5

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Questions 212

Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking?

Options:

A.

application

B.

services

C.

control

D.

data

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Questions 213

200-301 Question 213

Refer to the exhibit. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLAN " has Layer 2 Security configured with MAC filtering enabled. What additional security is provided by this specific feature?

Options:

A.

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addressses connect to the network

B.

There is strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using X.509 standard

C.

All data frames exchanged between the client and the access point are encrypted

D.

There is a Galcis cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication

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Questions 214

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

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Questions 215

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

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Questions 216

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addresssing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

provides external internet network connectivity

B.

provides unlimited addresss ranges

C.

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.

reuses addressses at multiple sites

E.

conserves globally unique addresss space

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Questions 217

Drag and drop the management connection types froin the left onto the definitions on the right.

200-301 Question 217

Options:

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Questions 218

Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.

What is the first step to verify connectivity?

200-301 Question 218

Options:

A.

Is the internet reachable?

B.

Is the default gateway reachable?

C.

Is the DNS server reachable?

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Questions 219

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 219

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

Options:

A.

a single destination addresss

B.

the source 10.0.1.100

C.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

D.

the 10.0.0.0 network

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Questions 220

200-301 Question 220

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

200-301 Question 220

Options:

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Questions 221

200-301 Question 221

200-301 Question 221

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

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Questions 222

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 222

Options:

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Questions 223

200-301 Question 223

200-301 Question 223

200-301 Question 223

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 224

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

200-301 Question 224200-301 Question 224

Options:

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Questions 225

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

200-301 Question 225200-301 Question 225

Options:

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Questions 226

200-301 Question 226

200-301 Question 226

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 227

Topology:

200-301 Question 227

All relevant ports are preconfigured as IEEE 802.1Q trunks.

Task 1

Configure SW-1 port Ethernet0/0 to permit only VLANs 5 and 6.

Task 2

Configure ports Ethernet0/1 on SW-1 and SW-2 to use VLAN 77 as the native VLAN.

Task 3

Configure SW-2 port Ethernet0/2 to permit only VLAN 6.

Task 4

Using LACP, create a Port-Channel between SW-3 and SW-4.

    Combine Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 into a Port-Channel while leaving the existing trunk configurations intact.

    Assign Port-Channel number 34.

    Only SW-3 must initiate LACP negotiations.

Options:

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Questions 228

Topology:

200-301 Question 228

Configure OSPF routing for the network by completing the following tasks:

Task 1

Configure OSPF on R2. Ensure that R1 and R3 become neighbors.

    Use process ID 30.

    Use 10.22.22.22 as the router ID.

    Under the OSPF process, advertise the following specific prefixes:

      10.0.23.0/28

      10.0.12.0/30

Task 2

Ensure that R2 always becomes the designated router (DR).

Options:

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Questions 229

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 229

Options:

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Questions 230

200-301 Question 230

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

200-301 Question 230

Options:

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Questions 231

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 231

Options:

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Questions 232

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

200-301 Question 232200-301 Question 232

Options:

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Questions 233

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

Options:

A.

wireless access point

B.

firewall

C.

wireless LAN controller

D.

router

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Questions 234

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

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Questions 235

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 235

Options:

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Questions 236

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

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Questions 237

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 237

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

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Questions 238

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

Options:

A.

BPDUfilter

B.

PortFast

C.

Backbonefast

D.

BPDUguard

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Questions 239

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

Options:

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

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Questions 240

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 240

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

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Questions 241

By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

Options:

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

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Questions 242

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Provide uninterrupted forwarding service.

B.

Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

C.

Provide direct connectivity for end user devices.

D.

Ensure timely data transfer between layers.

E.

Inspect packets for malicious activity.

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Questions 243

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

password-encrypt

B.

enable password-encryption

C.

enable secret

D.

service password-encryption

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Questions 244

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

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Questions 245

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

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Questions 246

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Options:

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

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Questions 247

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

Options:

A.

on the router closest to the server

B.

on the router closest to the client

C.

on every router along the path

D.

on the switch trunk interface

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Questions 248

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 249

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

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Questions 250

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 250

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

200-301 Question 250

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 251

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Options:

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

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Questions 252

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?

Options:

A.

Reassociation Request

B.

Probe Request

C.

Authentication Request

D.

Association Request

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Questions 253

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Options:

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

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Questions 254

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

Options:

A.

enable secret

B.

service password-encryption

C.

username Cisco password encrypt

D.

enable password

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Questions 255

which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

Options:

A.

communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

B.

reports device errors to a controller

C.

generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

D.

facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

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Questions 256

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 256

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

200-301 Question 256

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

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Questions 257

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 257

Which command provides this output?

Options:

A.

show ip route

B.

show ip interface

C.

show interface

D.

show cdp neighbor

Buy Now
Questions 258

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

Options:

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

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Questions 259

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

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Questions 260

What is a function of a remote access VPN?

Options:

A.

used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

B.

used exclusively when a user is connected to a company ' s internal network

C.

establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

D.

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

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Questions 261

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

Options:

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

Buy Now
Questions 262

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

Options:

A.

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.

assign it as VLAN 1

D.

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

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Questions 263

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

IPv6 address

D.

OSPF process ID

E.

OSPF stub flag

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Questions 264

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

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Questions 265

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

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Questions 266

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 266

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

200-301 Question 266

B)

200-301 Question 266

C)

200-301 Question 266

D)

200-301 Question 266

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 267

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 267

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

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Questions 268

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 268

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

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Questions 269

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 269

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

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Questions 270

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Buy Now
Questions 271

What is the purpose of an SSID?

Options:

A.

It provides network security

B.

It differentiates traffic entering access points

C.

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

D.

It identifies a WLAN

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Questions 272

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 272

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 273

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Questions 274

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

Buy Now
Questions 275

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

Options:

A.

when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy

B.

to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache

C.

to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free

D.

to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices

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Questions 276

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

Internal EIGRP

D.

OSPF

Buy Now
Questions 277

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

Options:

A.

core and WAN

B.

access and WAN

C.

distribution and access

D.

core and distribution

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Questions 278

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 278

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Buy Now
Questions 279

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

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Questions 280

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 280

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

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Questions 281

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

200-301 Question 281

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 282

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Buy Now
Questions 283

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 283

The administrator must configure a floating static default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

Options:

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

B.

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2

Buy Now
Questions 284

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

policing

C.

CBWFQ

D.

LLQ

Buy Now
Questions 285

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 285

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

200-301 Question 285

200-301 Question 285

200-301 Question 285

200-301 Question 285

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

option D

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Questions 286

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 286

Options:

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Questions 287

When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

for small networks with minimal need for growth

B.

the access and distribution layers must be on the same device

C.

for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites

D.

only when using VSS technology

Buy Now
Questions 288

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 288

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

200-301 Question 288

B)

200-301 Question 288

C)

200-301 Question 288

D)

200-301 Question 288

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 289

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 289

An engineer built a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Buy Now
Questions 290

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 290

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router Fa0/1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Buy Now
Questions 291

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

B.

It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.

C.

It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network

D.

It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.

Buy Now
Questions 292

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

Options:

A.

encrypts data before sending between data resources

B.

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

C.

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

D.

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

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Questions 293

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 293

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802.11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

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Questions 294

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 294

Options:

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Questions 295

An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 295

B)

200-301 Question 295

C)

200-301 Question 295

D)

200-301 Question 295

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 296

What is a zero-day exploit?

Options:

A.

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SQL server.

Buy Now
Questions 297

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Buy Now
Questions 298

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 299

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Options:

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

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Questions 300

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 300

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(config)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

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Questions 301

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 301

Options:

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Questions 302

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

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Questions 303

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 303

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

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Questions 304

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 304

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growith. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

200-301 Question 304

B)

200-301 Question 304

C)

200-301 Question 304

D)

200-301 Question 304

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 305

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 305

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

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Questions 306

Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

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Questions 307

An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?

Options:

A.

Password complexity enable

B.

confreg 0x2142

C.

Login authentication my-auth-list

D.

service password-encryption

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Questions 308

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

200-301 Question 308

Options:

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1
Last Update: Aug 10, 2026
Questions: 1242

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