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200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

200-301 Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes

B.

Select ASCII from the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank

C.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes

D.

Select CCKM for the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to Hex, and enter the key

E.

Select PSK from the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key

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Questions 5

200-301 Question 5

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors ' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

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200-301 Report Card

Questions 6

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport mode trunk

C.

switchport nonegotiate

D.

switchport mode dynamic auto

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Questions 7

What are two purposes of HSRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It groups two or more routers to operate as one virtual router.

B.

It improves network availability by providing redundant gateways.

C.

It passes configuration information to hosts in a TCP/IP network.

D.

It helps hosts on the network to reach remote subnets without a default gateway.

E.

It provides a mechanism for diskless clients to autoconfigure their IP parameters during boot.

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Questions 8

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

Options:

A.

northbound interface

B.

software virtual interface

C.

southbound interface

D.

tunnel Interface

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Questions 9

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 9

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

Options:

A.

the 10.0.0.0 network

B.

a single destination address

C.

the source 10.0.1.100

D.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

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Questions 10

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

Options:

A.

ntp authenticate

B.

ntp server

C.

ntp peer

D.

ntp master

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Questions 11

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

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Questions 12

What is a function of Layer 3 switches?

Options:

A.

They route traffic between devices in different VLANs.

B.

They forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses.

C.

They move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses.

D.

They transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively.

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Questions 13

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

Options:

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

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Questions 14

Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.

200-301 Question 14

Options:

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Questions 15

A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

CDP

C.

flooding

D.

multicast

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Questions 16

Refer to the exhibit.

PC A and the file server. Which commend must be configured on switch A to prevent interruption of other communications?

200-301 Question 16

Options:

A.

switch port trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

switch port trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

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Questions 17

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 17

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Null0

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 18

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

performs packet fragmentation and reassembly

B.

tracks the number of active TCP connections

C.

provides a single broadcast domain for all connected devices

D.

uses the data link layer for communications

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Questions 19

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

200-301 Question 19

Options:

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Questions 20

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

Options:

A.

applies 802.1x authentication

B.

usesTKIP

C.

employs PKI to identify access points

D.

protects against brute force attacks

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Questions 21

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.174.208.210/28 [110/2708] via G0/21

10.174.208.210/28 [110/25445] via G0/20

10.174.208.210/28 [120/1] via G0/12

10.174.208.210/28 [120/4] via G0/16

Options:

A.

G0/12

B.

G0/20

C.

G0/21

D.

G0/16

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Questions 22

200-301 Question 22

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:

Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.

Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.

Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Aironet IE option.

B.

Enable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required

D.

Enable the client band select option.

E.

Enable the allow AAA Override option

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Questions 23

Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows UDP 69 through the firewall?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

TFTP

C.

REST API

D.

SMTP

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Questions 24

200-301 Question 24

Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Options:

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

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Questions 25

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

Options:

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

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Questions 26

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 26

Options:

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Questions 27

The address block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements:

Create 8 new subnets

Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet.

A Layer 3 interface is used.

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

Options:

A.

no switchport  ip address 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224

B.

no switchport mode trunk  ip address 192.168.32.97 255.255.255.224

C.

no switchport mode access  ip address 192.168.32.62 255.255.255.240

D.

switchport  ip address 192.168.32.65 255.255.255.240

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Questions 28

What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?

Options:

A.

Security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS.

B.

Devices communicate with each other to establish a security policy.

C.

It creates a unified control point making security policies consistent across all devices.

D.

It exposes an API to configure locally per device for security policies.

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Questions 29

200-301 Question 29

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

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Questions 30

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

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Questions 31

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

Options:

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

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Questions 32

200-301 Question 32

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/0

C.

GigabitEthernet2/0

D.

Null0

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Questions 33

A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?

Options:

A.

ipconfig /renew

B.

ipconfig

C.

ipconfig /all

D.

ipconfig /displaydns

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Questions 34

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?

Options:

A.

Content-Type: application/json

B.

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.

Accept: application/json

D.

Accept-Language: application/json

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Questions 35

200-301 Question 35

Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SW1#(config-line)#login local  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

B.

SW1#(config-line)#login local  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1#(config-line)#transport input ssh  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#aaa new-model

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Questions 36

200-301 Question 36

Refer to the exhibit. How will router R1 handle packets destined to 192.168.64.22?

Options:

A.

It will use the static route to 10.1.1.1.

B.

It will use the route with the highest AD and highest destination IP.

C.

It will route the packets to 10.1.1.2.

D.

It will drop the packets.

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Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 37

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0 ' 1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

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Questions 38

Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Policing is not supported on subinterfaces.

B.

Shaping and rate limiting have the same effect.

C.

Shaping drops excessive traffic without adding traffic delay.

D.

Shaping levels out traffic bursts by delaying excess traffic.

E.

Policing is performed in the inbound and outbound directions.

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Questions 39

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PBR

B.

FRTS

C.

PQ

D.

CBWFQ

E.

CAR

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Questions 40

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 40

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Questions 41

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

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Questions 42

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?

Options:

A.

QinQ

B.

ISL

C.

PAgP

D.

LAG

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Questions 43

200-301 Question 43

Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?

Options:

A.

10

B.

0

C.

1

D.

110

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Questions 44

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

200-301 Question 44

Options:

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

bad NIC

C.

high throughput

D.

broadcast storm

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Questions 45

200-301 Question 45

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

Options:

A.

EIGRP

B.

OSPF

C.

RIP

D.

Local

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Questions 46

200-301 Question 46

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

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Questions 47

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 47

Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes_ After the engineer applied the initial OSPF

configuration: the routes were still missing on both devices. Which command sequence must be issued before the clear IP ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?

200-301 Question 47

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 48

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the CAM table

C.

sends the frame back to the source to verify availability

D.

drops received MAC addresses not listed in the address table

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Questions 49

Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

SNMP

C.

Kerberos

D.

Telnet

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 50

How many JSON objects are represented?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 51

200-301 Question 51

Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:

handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections

minimizes consumption of public IP addresses

Options:

A.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.3 netmask 255.255.255.248  ip nat inside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

B.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.248 netmask 255.255.255.248  ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

C.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.200.225 209.165.200.226 netmask 255.255.255.252  ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

D.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 255.255.255.248  ip nat inside source list HQC interface gigabitEthernet0/0 overload

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Questions 52

A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20 network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 Question 52

B)

200-301 Question 52

C)

200-301 Question 52

D)

200-301 Question 52

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 53

How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?

Options:

A.

ratio of signal-to-noise rating supplied by the wireless device

B.

signals from other Wi-Fi networks that interfere with the local signal

C.

measured difference between the desired Wi-Fi signal and an interfering Wi-Fi signal

D.

any interference that is not Wi-Fi traffic that degrades the desired signal

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Questions 54

Which is a fact related to FTP?

Options:

A.

It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

B.

It always operates without user authentication

C.

It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.

D.

It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

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Questions 55

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 55

Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?

Options:

A.

Enable AutoConfig iPSK.

B.

SetCCMP128(AES).

C.

Configure PSK Format HEX with key string.

D.

Configure PSK-SHA2.

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Questions 56

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/2 0

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

Options:

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

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Questions 57

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

Options:

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

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Questions 58

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

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Questions 59

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 59

A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements:

• Consume as few IP addresses as possible.

• Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth.

Which set of configurations must be applied?

A)

200-301 Question 59

B)

200-301 Question 59

C)

200-301 Question 59

D)

200-301 Question 59

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 60

A DHCP pool has been created with the name NOCC. The pool is using 192.168.20.0/24 and must use the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. What is the next step in the process?

Options:

A.

default-router192.168.20.253

B.

network 192.168.20.254 255.255.255.0 secondary

C.

ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.20.253

D.

next-server 192.168.20.254

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Questions 61

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 61

Which types of JSON data is shown

Options:

A.

Object

B.

Sequence

C.

String

D.

boolean

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Questions 62

Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively

B.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

C.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

D.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

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Questions 63

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

200-301 Question 63

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

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Questions 64

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 64

R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?

200-301 Question 64

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 65

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

Options:

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

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Questions 66

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 66

Options:

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Questions 67

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 67

Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right

200-301 Question 67

Options:

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Questions 68

What is the function of generative AI in network operations?

Options:

A.

It disables unused services.

B.

It deploys network firmware updates.

C.

It creates synthetic network configurations.

D.

It computes optimal data storage solutions.

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Questions 69

An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?

Options:

A.

crypto key Import rsa pem

B.

crypto key pubkey-chain rsa

C.

crypto key generate rsa

D.

crypto key zeroize rsa

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Questions 70

What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?

Options:

A.

discarding

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

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Questions 71

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

Options:

A.

core and WAN

B.

access and WAN

C.

distribution and access

D.

core and distribution

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Questions 72

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 72

Options:

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Questions 73

Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.

Options:

A.

FlexConnect

B.

SE-Connect

C.

bridge

D.

local

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Questions 74

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

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Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 75

Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.252.0 g0/0

B.

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 g0/0

C.

ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 g0/0

D.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0

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Questions 76

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 76

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?

Options:

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168.16.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

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Questions 77

What is used as a solution for protecting an individual network endpoint from attack?

Options:

A.

Router

B.

Wireless controller

C.

Anti software

D.

Cisco DNA Center

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Questions 78

What are two capabilities provided by VRRP within a LAN network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

dynamic routing updates

B.

bandwidth optimization

C.

granular QoS

D.

load sharing

E.

redundancy

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Questions 79

Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

Options:

A.

ESX host

B.

resolver

C.

web

D.

file transfer

E.

authentication

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Questions 80

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 80

A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?

A)

200-301 Question 80

B)

200-301 Question 80

C)

200-301 Question 80

D)

200-301 Question 80

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 81

200-301 Question 81

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 82

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It uses Telnet to report system issues

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

D.

It moves the control plane to a central point

E.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

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Questions 83

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 83

Options:

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Questions 84

When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP- Manager interface?

Options:

A.

Discovery response

B.

DHCP request

C.

DHCP discover

D.

Discovery request

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Questions 85

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 85

Router R1 is added to the network and configured with the 10.0.0.64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets. However, traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not accessible. Which command when executed on R1 defines a static route to reach the R3 LAN?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.15.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.20.3

B.

ip route 10.0.15.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.20.1

C.

ip route 10.0.0.64 255.255.255.192 10.0.20.3

D.

ip route 10.0.15.0 255.255.255.192 10.0.20.1

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Questions 86

200-301 Question 86

Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network. Which set of actions corrects the configuration?

Options:

A.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.248.

B.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the default gateway to 172.16.1.7.

C.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the DNS server to 172.16.1.12 only.

D.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the DNS servers to 172.18.1.12 and 172.16.1.13.

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Questions 87

200-301 Question 87

Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the Internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

floating static route

C.

default route

D.

network route

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Questions 88

Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?

Options:

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

multifactor authentication

C.

attribute-based access control

D.

rule-based access control

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Questions 89

200-301 Question 89

A)

200-301 Question 89

B)

200-301 Question 89

C)

200-301 Question 89

D)

200-301 Question 89

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 90

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23

Options:

A.

G0/23

B.

G0/3

C.

G0/16

D.

G0/6

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Questions 91

200-301 Question 91

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the CPE router to allow computers in the 172.20.1.0/24 network to obtain their IP configurations from the central DHCP server. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the CPE?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/1ip helper-address 172.20.254.1

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0ip helper-address 172.20.1.1

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0ip helper-address 172.20.255.1

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/ip helper-address 172.20.255.11

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Questions 92

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?

Options:

A.

Virtual Route Forwarding

B.

Virtual Switch System

C.

IPsec Transport Mode

D.

Time Division Multiplexer

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Questions 93

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

Options:

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

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Questions 94

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

Options:

A.

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

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Questions 95

When deploying a new network that includes both Cisco and third-party network devices, which redundancy protocol avoids the interruption of network traffic if the default gateway router fails?

Options:

A.

FHRP

B.

HSRP

C.

GLBP

D.

VRRP

Buy Now
Questions 96

What is represented in line 3 within this JSON schema?

200-301 Question 96

Options:

A.

object

B.

key

C.

array

D.

value

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Questions 97

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 97

SW_1 and SW_12 represent two companies that are merging. They use separate network vendors. The VLANs on both Sides have been migrated to share IP subnets. Which command sequence must be issued on both sides to join the two companies and pass all VLANs between the companies?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

B.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan allswitchport dot1q ethertype 0800

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan allswitchport trunk native vlan 7

D.

switchport dynamic autoswitchport nonegotiate

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Questions 98

A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.

Options:

A.

Place the AP into manual containment.

B.

Remove the AP from WLC management.

C.

Manually remove the AP from Pending state.

D.

Set the AP Class Type to Friendly.

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Questions 99

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 99

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1

B.

ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

C.

ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10

D.

ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10

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Questions 100

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 100

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 101

Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?

A)

200-301 Question 101

B)

200-301 Question 101

C)

200-301 Question 101

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

Buy Now
Questions 102

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 102

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 103

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Options:

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

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Questions 104

A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?

Options:

A.

high bandwidth usage

B.

a physical cable fault

C.

a speed mismatch

D.

a cable that is too long

Buy Now
Questions 105

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

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Questions 106

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 106

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Buy Now
Questions 107

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 107

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 108

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

Buy Now
Questions 109

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 109

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Buy Now
Questions 110

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 110

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

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Questions 111

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 111

What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.192

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.240.0

D.

255.255.248.0

Buy Now
Questions 112

How is AI used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds

B.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection

C.

It exclusively predicts device malfunctions

D.

It guarantees zero packet loss in the network

Buy Now
Questions 113

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

ip domain-name domain

B.

password password

C.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Buy Now
Questions 114

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 114

Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

Options:

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

OSPF

D.

RIP

Buy Now
Questions 115

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 115

A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running- config. Which command completes the configuration?

Options:

A.

Device(config)# netconf lock-time 500

B.

Device(config)# netconf max-message 1000

C.

Device(config)# no netconf ssh acl 1

D.

Device(config)# netconf max-sessions 100

Buy Now
Questions 116

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 116

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 117

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Buy Now
Questions 118

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 118

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

Options:

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

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Questions 119

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 119

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config > #ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

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Questions 120

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Buy Now
Questions 121

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

Options:

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

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Questions 122

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

200-301 Question 122

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 123

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

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Questions 124

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

Buy Now
Questions 125

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

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Questions 126

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 126

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

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Questions 127

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

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Questions 128

which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/12

Buy Now
Questions 129

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Buy Now
Questions 130

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 130

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

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Questions 131

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

Options:

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

Buy Now
Questions 132

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

C.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 133

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

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Questions 134

200-301 Question 134

200-301 Question 134

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 135

Which statement describes virtual machines?

Options:

A.

They include a guest OS and the service.

B.

They enable the network to become agile and hardware-centric.

C.

They use a supervisor to provide management for services.

D.

They facilitate local management of infrastructure devices.

Buy Now
Questions 136

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

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Questions 137

Drag and drop the network topology architecture types from the left onto the corresponding function on the right. Not all architecture types are used.

200-301 Question 137

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 138

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 138

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 138

B)

200-301 Question 138

C)

200-301 Question 138

D)

200-301 Question 138

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 139

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 139

How many arrays are present in the JSON data?

Options:

A.

one

B.

three

C.

six

D.

nine

Buy Now
Questions 140

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 140

What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?

Options:

A.

172.16.1.4

B.

172.16.1.1

C.

172.16.1.2

D.

172.16.1.3

Buy Now
Questions 141

200-301 Question 141

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the subnet masks from the left onto the corresponding subnets on the right. Not all subnet masks used.

200-301 Question 141

Options:

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Questions 142

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

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Questions 143

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 143

A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

Loopback0

C.

10.1.1.1

D.

10.1.1.3

Buy Now
Questions 144

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

Buy Now
Questions 145

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 145

When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192 1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0.0/0

B.

10.56.0.1

C.

10.56.128.19

D.

Vlan57

Buy Now
Questions 146

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 146

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

Options:

A.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

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Questions 147

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Buy Now
Questions 148

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

Buy Now
Questions 149

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 149

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Buy Now
Questions 150

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 150

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Buy Now
Questions 151

Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

Options:

A.

The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly

B.

The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic

C.

The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2

D.

The traffic to 192 168 010 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.

Buy Now
Questions 152

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

200-301 Question 152

B)

200-301 Question 152

C)

200-301 Question 152

D)

200-301 Question 152

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 153

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 153

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

200-301 Question 153

B)

200-301 Question 153

C)

200-301 Question 153

D)

200-301 Question 153

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 154

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

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Questions 155

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 155

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

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Questions 156

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

200-301 Question 156

Options:

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Questions 157

200-301 Question 157

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport private-vlan association host 5

B.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation negotiate

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan add 5

D.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk pruning vlan add 5

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Questions 158

Which security protocol is appropriate for a WPA3 implementation?

Options:

A.

CCMP

B.

MD5

C.

TKIP

D.

GCMP

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Questions 159

200-301 Question 159

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

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Questions 160

Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

default

C.

trunk

D.

Bopess

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Questions 161

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 161

A)

200-301 Question 161

B)

200-301 Question 161

C)

200-301 Question 161

D)

200-301 Question 161

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 162

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

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Questions 163

200-301 Question 163

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

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Questions 164

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

Options:

A.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

B.

filters traffic based on destination IP addressing

C.

sends the default route to the hosts on a network

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

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Questions 165

What is the put method within HTTP?

Options:

A.

It is a read-only operation.

B.

It is a nonldempotent operation.

C.

It replaces data at the destination.

D.

It displays a web site.

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Questions 166

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

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Questions 167

200-301 Question 167

Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?

Options:

A.

Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.

B.

Select a correctly configured Layer 2 ACL.

C.

Set the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy to Not-Allow.

D.

Set the MFP Client Protection to Required.

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Questions 168

200-301 Question 168

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

Options:

A.

cost 20

B.

cost 30

C.

cost 40

D.

cost 50

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Questions 169

How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.

to specify the type of data format the client prefers to receive

B.

to define the network path the API request should take

C.

to encrypt data sent in the API request

D.

to uniquely identify each client application

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Questions 170

What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

AH

B.

3DES

C.

ESP

D.

TLS

E.

AES

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Questions 171

What is represented by the word " switch " within this JSON schema?

200-301 Question 171

Options:

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

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Questions 172

Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.

200-301 Question 172

Options:

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Questions 173

What is a function of a southbound API?

Options:

A.

Automate configuration changes between a server and a switching fabric.

B.

Use orchestration to provision a virtual server configuration from a web server.

C.

Manage flow control between an SDN controller and a switching fabric.

D.

Facilitate the information exchange between an SDN controller and application.

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Questions 174

How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

Options:

A.

TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately.

B.

TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.

C.

TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments.

D.

TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering.

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Questions 175

What is the default interface for in-band wireless network management on a WLC?

Options:

A.

Redundant port

B.

Out-of-band

C.

Service port

D.

Wireless management

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Questions 176

200-301 Question 176

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

Options:

A.

via 10.0.4.2

B.

via 10.0.0.2

C.

via FastEthernet0/1

D.

via FastEthernet1/1

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Questions 177

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

Options:

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

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Questions 178

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

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Questions 179

200-301 Question 179

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

Options:

A.

The domain name server is unreachable.

B.

LAN and WAN network segments are different.

C.

IP address assignment is incorrect.

D.

The default gateway should be the first usable IP address.

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Questions 180

200-301 Question 180

200-301 Question 180

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

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Questions 181

200-301 Question 181

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable the MAC Filtering option

B.

Enable the OSEN Policy option

C.

Enable the CCKM option for Authentication Key Management

D.

Enable the WPA2 Policy option

E.

Enable the 802.1X option for Authentication Key Management

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Questions 182

A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Options:

A.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to it.

B.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

D.

Configure high availability and redundancy for the access points.

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Questions 183

200-301 Question 183

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

Options:

A.

Ri(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.62R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5 2

B.

Ri(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

C.

Ri(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5

D.

Ri(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

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Questions 184

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses

D.

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

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Questions 185

Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

Options:

A.

Informational

B.

debugging

C.

alerts

D.

notifications

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Questions 186

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addresses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP address

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Questions 187

How does automation affect network management processes?

Options:

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

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Questions 188

What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?

Options:

A.

16

B.

32

C.

48

D.

64

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Questions 189

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC address storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

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Questions 190

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

Options:

A.

collision

B.

CRC

C.

runt

D.

late collision

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Questions 191

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Options:

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

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Questions 192

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 192

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

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Questions 193

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 193

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

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Questions 194

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

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Questions 195

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

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Questions 196

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 196

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

Options:

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

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Questions 197

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable NTP authentication.

B.

Verify the time zone.

C.

Disable NTP broadcasts

D.

Specify the IP address of the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP server private key

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Questions 198

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

Options:

A.

Exchange

B.

2-way

C.

Full

D.

Init

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Questions 199

How does WPA3 improve security?

Options:

A.

It uses SAE for authentication.

B.

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

C.

It uses RC4 for encryption.

D.

It uses TKIP for encryption.

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Questions 200

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

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Questions 201

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

RADIUS

C.

TACACS+

D.

HTTP

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Questions 202

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

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Questions 203

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

Options:

A.

data plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

management plane

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Questions 204

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 204

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

Options:

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

Buy Now
Questions 205

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

200-301 Question 205

Options:

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Questions 206

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

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Questions 207

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

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Questions 208

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 208

Options:

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Questions 209

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

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Questions 210

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Questions 211

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

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Questions 212

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 Question 212

Options:

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Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 213

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

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Questions 214

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

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Questions 215

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 215

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

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Questions 216

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Questions 217

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 217

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

200-301 Question 217

B)

200-301 Question 217

C)

200-301 Question 217

D)

200-301 Question 217

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 218

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 218

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

200-301 Question 218

B)

200-301 Question 218

C)

200-301 Question 218

D)

200-301 Question 218

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 219

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 219

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

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Questions 220

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 220

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Buy Now
Questions 221

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Buy Now
Questions 222

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

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Questions 223

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 223

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

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Questions 224

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 224

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Buy Now
Questions 225

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 225

Options:

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Questions 226

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

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Questions 227

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 227

Options:

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Questions 228

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 228

Options:

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Questions 229

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

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Questions 230

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

200-301 Question 230

B)

200-301 Question 230

C)

200-301 Question 230

D)

200-301 Question 230

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 231

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 231

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

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Questions 232

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 232

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 233

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 233

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Questions 234

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

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Questions 235

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 235

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

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Questions 236

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

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Questions 237

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

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Questions 238

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

200-301 Question 238

B)

200-301 Question 238

C)

200-301 Question 238

D)

200-301 Question 238

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 239

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

200-301 Question 239

Options:

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Questions 240

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 241

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 241

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

200-301 Question 241

B)

200-301 Question 241

C)

200-301 Question 241

D)

200-301 Question 241

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 242

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Questions 243

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 243

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

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Questions 244

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

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Questions 245

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

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Questions 246

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 246

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

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Questions 247

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 247

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

200-301 Question 247

B)

200-301 Question 247

C)

200-301 Question 247

D)

200-301 Question 247

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 248

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 248

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

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Questions 249

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 249

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

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Questions 250

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 250

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 251

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 251

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Buy Now
Questions 252

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 252

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

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Questions 253

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 253

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

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Questions 254

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 254

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

200-301 Question 254

B)

200-301 Question 254

C)

200-301 Question 254

D)

200-301 Question 254

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 255

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

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Questions 256

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

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Questions 257

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 257

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

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Questions 258

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

A.

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

B.

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

C.

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

D.

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

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Questions 259

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 259

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

200-301 Question 259

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 260

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

200-301 Question 260

Options:

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Questions 261

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

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Questions 262

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

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Questions 263

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

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Questions 264

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

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Questions 265

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

Options:

A.

transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password

B.

transfers files between file systems on a router

C.

transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link

D.

transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

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Questions 266

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

Options:

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

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Questions 267

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 267

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

200-301 Question 267

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 268

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Options:

A.

FIFO

B.

WFQ

C.

PQ

D.

WRED

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Questions 269

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

Options:

A.

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D.

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

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Questions 270

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

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Questions 271

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

200-301 Question 271

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 272

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 272

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Options:

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

Buy Now
Questions 273

200-301 Question 273

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

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Questions 274

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

Options:

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Buy Now
Questions 275

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

Options:

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

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Questions 276

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

B.

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C.

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D.

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

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Questions 277

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

Options:

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Buy Now
Questions 278

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

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Questions 279

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 279

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

Options:

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

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Questions 280

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

200-301 Question 280

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 281

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 281

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

200-301 Question 281

Options:

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Questions 282

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

200-301 Question 282

Options:

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Questions 283

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 283

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Buy Now
Questions 284

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

link-local

C.

unique local

D.

multicast

Buy Now
Questions 285

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 285

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Options:

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

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Questions 286

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

Options:

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

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Questions 287

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

Buy Now
Questions 288

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Options:

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

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Questions 289

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 289

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

Options:

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

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Questions 290

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 290

An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

C.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2

D.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

E.

ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

Buy Now
Questions 291

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

200-301 Question 291

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 292

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 292

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Buy Now
Questions 293

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 293

What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Buy Now
Questions 294

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

Buy Now
Questions 295

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Options:

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Buy Now
Questions 296

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

Buy Now
Questions 297

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

Options:

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

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Questions 298

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

Buy Now
Questions 299

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

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Questions 300

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

Options:

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Buy Now
Questions 301

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

Options:

A.

encrypts data before sending between data resources

B.

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

C.

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

D.

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

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Questions 302

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

Options:

A.

policy plane

B.

management plane

C.

control plane

D.

data plane

Buy Now
Questions 303

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 303

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

Options:

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

Buy Now
Questions 304

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 304

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

Options:

A.

Add a " permit ip any any " statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a " permit ip any any " statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

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Questions 305

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 305

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

200-301 Question 305

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 306

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 306

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

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Questions 307

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

Options:

A.

TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B.

UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits

C.

UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

D.

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

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Questions 308

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

Options:

A.

outside global

B.

outsdwde local

C.

inside global

D.

insride local

E.

outside public

F.

inside public

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Questions 309

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

200-301 Question 309

Options:

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Questions 310

What does physical access control regulate?

Options:

A.

access to spec fie networks based on business function

B.

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

C.

access to computer networks and file systems

D.

access to networking equipment and facilities

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Questions 311

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

iPv6 address

D.

OSPf process ID

E.

OSPf stub flag

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Questions 312

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

Options:

A.

read

B.

create

C.

replace

D.

update

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Questions 313

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

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Questions 314

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Options:

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

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Questions 315

Refer to exhibit.

200-301 Question 315

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

Options:

A.

It is a broadcast IP address

B.

The router does not support /28 mask.

C.

It belongs to a private IP address range.

D.

IT is a network IP address.

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Questions 316

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

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Questions 317

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

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Questions 318

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

Options:

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

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Questions 319

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

Options:

A.

WPA2 + AES

B.

WPA + AES

C.

WEP

D.

WPA + TKIP

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Questions 320

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

Options:

A.

BPDUfilter

B.

PortFast

C.

Backbonefast

D.

BPDUguard

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Questions 321

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

Options:

A.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

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Questions 322

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B.

runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

C.

handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

D.

runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

E.

housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

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Questions 323

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

Options:

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

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Questions 324

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

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Questions 325

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

B.

selects the best route between networks on a WAN

C.

moves packets within a VLAN

D.

moves packets between different VLANs

E.

makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

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Questions 326

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

200-301 Question 326

Options:

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Questions 327

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

Clock timezone

B.

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.

Clock summer-time date

D.

Clock set

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Questions 328

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

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Questions 329

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

Options:

A.

It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

B.

It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

C.

It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

D.

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

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Questions 330

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 330

Options:

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Questions 331

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

Options:

A.

lldp timer

B.

lldp holdtimt

C.

lldp reinit

D.

lldp tlv-select

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Questions 332

What is a function of a remote access VPN?

Options:

A.

used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

B.

used exclusively when a user is connected to a company ' s internal network

C.

establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

D.

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

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Questions 333

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

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Questions 334

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

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Questions 335

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

200-301 Question 335

Options:

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Questions 336

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 336

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

Options:

A.

adminadmin123

B.

default

C.

testing 1234

D.

cisco123

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Questions 337

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

B.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

C.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

D.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

E.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

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Questions 338

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

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Questions 339

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

Options:

A.

enforcing routing policies

B.

marking interesting traffic for data polices

C.

attaching users to the edge of the network

D.

applying security policies

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Questions 340

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 340

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.

Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport access vlan 67

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

C.

switchport private-vlan association host 67

D.

switchport trunk native vlan 67

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Questions 341

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

200-301 Question 341

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 342

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 342

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

C.

it load-balances traffic between all three routes

D.

It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 343

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

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Questions 344

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

200-301 Question 344

Options:

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Questions 345

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

Options:

A.

worm

B.

malware

C.

DDoS

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 346

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

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Questions 347

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

Options:

A.

virtual routing and forwarding

B.

network port ID visualization

C.

virtual device contexts

D.

server visualization

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Questions 348

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Options:

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

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Questions 349

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

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Questions 350

An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

200-301 Question 350

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 351

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Options:

A.

ISATAP

B.

GRE over iPsec

C.

iPsec over ISATAP

D.

GRE

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Questions 352

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Options:

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

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Questions 353

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

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Questions 354

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

Options:

A.

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.

assign it as VLAN 1

D.

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

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Questions 355

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

200-301 Question 355

Options:

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Questions 356

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asychronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 357

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

Options:

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

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Questions 358

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

Options:

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

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Questions 359

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

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Questions 360

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

Options:

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

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Questions 361

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

Options:

A.

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

B.

broadcast to all ports

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

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Questions 362

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

Options:

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

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Questions 363

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

200-301 Question 363

Options:

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Questions 364

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

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Questions 365

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 365

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

JSON

C.

Chef

D.

Puppet

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Questions 366

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

B.

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

C.

send LWAPP packets to access points.

D.

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

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Questions 367

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 368

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

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Questions 369

An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure IEEE 802.1p

B.

configure IEEE 802.1q

C.

configure ISL

D.

configure DSCP

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Questions 370

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

Options:

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

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Questions 371

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 371

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

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Questions 372

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

Options:

A.

reduced management overhead on network routers

B.

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.

higher degree of availability

D.

reduced ARP traffic on the network

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1
Last Update: May 5, 2026
Questions: 1240

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