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Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
Refer to Exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.
Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?
Refer to the exhibit.
An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured'? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
Refer to the exhibit.
After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
Refer to the exhibit.
How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?
What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
Refer to the exhibit.
Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.
Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?
Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)
B)
C)
D)
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate, register, and accept terms before accessing the internet?
Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Refer to the exhibit.
Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?
Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)
Which switch port configuration must be configured when connected to an AP running in FlexConnect mode, and the WLANs use flex local switching?
Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)
An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?
Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?
Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?
B. 
C. 
D. 
An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers In the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by "R1" and "SW1" within the JSON output?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?
Refer to the exhibit.
Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to confère router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?
What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?
Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Which type of DNS record is used to specify the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient's domain?
Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?
Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?
Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?
What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)
A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?
Which architecture is best for small offices with minimal wireless needs and no central management?
Refer to the exhibit.
Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
A network architect planning a new Wi-Fi network must decide between autonomous, cloud-based, and split MAC architectures. Which two facts should the architect consider? (Choose two.)
What are two facts that differentiate optical fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Refer to the exhibit.
The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?
(Choose two.)
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.
Which set of actions corrects the configuration?
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?
Refer to the exhibit.
To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.
Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
Refer to the exhibit.
Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to connect with the 172.16.10.0/24 network on VLAN 20. The engineer wants to limit the number of devices that connect to the WLAN on the USERWL SSID to 125. Which configuration must the engineer perform on the WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?
Drag and drop the management connection types from the left onto the definitions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the prefix length for the route that Router1 will use to reach Host A?
An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled
Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Refer to the exhibit.
Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
Refer to Exhibit.
How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
Refer to me exhibit.
Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
Refer to the exhibit.
With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.
Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If
the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
TESTED 12 Nov 2025
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).
