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200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23

Options:

A.

G0/23

B.

G0/3

C.

G0/16

D.

G0/6

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Questions 5

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 5

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

200-301 Question 5

B)

200-301 Question 5

C)

200-301 Question 5

D)

200-301 Question 5

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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200-301 Report Card

Questions 6

200-301 Question 6

200-301 Question 6

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 7

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

200-301 Question 7 200-301 Question 7

Options:

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Questions 8

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

Options:

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

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Questions 9

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

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Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 10

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

Options:

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

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Questions 11

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

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Questions 12

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

200-301 Question 12 200-301 Question 12

Options:

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Questions 13

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST API

C.

NETCONF

D.

Southbound API

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Questions 14

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

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Questions 15

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

200-301 Question 15

Options:

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

queueing

C.

bad NIC

D.

broadcast storm

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Questions 16

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

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Questions 17

What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?

Options:

A.

SDN security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS, and traditional networking security policies are created based on telemetry data.

B.

SDN exposes an API to configure locally per device for security policies, and traditional networking uses northbound API for network admin interface for configuring security policies.

C.

SDN creates a unified control point making security policies consistent across all devices, and traditional networking must be configured device by device, leaving room for error.

D.

SDN devices communicate with each other to establish a security policy, and in traditional networking, devices communicate upstream to a central location to establish a security policy.

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Questions 18

What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?

200-301 Question 18

Options:

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

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Questions 19

An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?

Options:

A.

Asset identification

B.

User training

C.

Physical access control

D.

Vulnerability control

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Questions 20

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 20

Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?

Options:

A.

Enable AutoConfig iPSK.

B.

SetCCMP128(AES).

C.

Configure PSK Format HEX with key string.

D.

Configure PSK-SHA2.

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Questions 21

200-301 Question 21

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

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Questions 22

An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.224

B.

255.255.255.248

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.252

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Questions 23

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

Options:

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

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Questions 24

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

Options:

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

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Questions 25

200-301 Question 25

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

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Questions 26

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 26

Options:

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Questions 27

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

Options:

A.

data plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

management plane

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Questions 28

200-301 Question 28

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

D.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: l4/64 fd00:12::2

E.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/64 fd00:12::2

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Questions 29

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

Options:

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

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Questions 30

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addresses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP address

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Questions 31

200-301 Question 31

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

Options:

A.

The domain name server is unreachable.

B.

LAN and WAN network segments are different.

C.

IP address assignment is incorrect.

D.

The default gateway should be the first usable IP address.

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Questions 32

200-301 Question 32

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?

Options:

A.

10.0.0.2

B.

110

C.

30

D.

2

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Questions 33

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

Options:

A.

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

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Questions 34

200-301 Question 34

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:

    Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.

    Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.

Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Aironet IE option.

B.

Enable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required

D.

Enable the client band select option.

E.

Enable the allow AAA Override option

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Questions 35

What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?

200-301 Question 35

Options:

A.

value

B.

object

C.

array

D.

key

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Questions 36

A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

clock summer-time recurring

B.

clock timezone

C.

clock summer-time date

D.

clock set

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Questions 37

Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Only authentication records the duration of a user's connection.

B.

Only authentication supports user-activity audits.

C.

Only authentication provides supporting information for billing users.

D.

Only authentication challenges users for their credentials and returns a response.

E.

Only authentication validates "who you are."

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Questions 38

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

Options:

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

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Questions 39

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 39

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 Question 39

B)

200-301 Question 39

C)

200-301 Question 39

D)

200-301 Question 39

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 40

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 40

What is represented by "R1" and "SW1" within the JSON output?

Options:

A.

key

B.

array

C.

value

D.

object

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Questions 41

What is a functionality of the control plane in the network?

Options:

A.

It exchanges topology information with other routers.

B.

It forwards traffic to the next hop.

C.

It looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base.

D.

It provides CLI access to the network device.

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Questions 42

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

Options:

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

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Questions 43

Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?

Options:

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

multifactor authentication

C.

attribute-based access control

D.

rule-based access control

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Questions 44

Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

Options:

A.

mesh

B.

local

C.

bridge

D.

point-to-point

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Questions 45

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 45

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

Options:

A.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

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Questions 46

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 46

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

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Questions 47

200-301 Question 47

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

Options:

A.

200-301 Question 47 Option 1

B.

B. 47

C.

C. 47

D.

D. 47

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Questions 48

Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate register and accept terms before accessing the internet?

Options:

A.

One-Click

B.

Hotspot

C.

Enhanced Bluetooth

D.

Whole Home

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Questions 49

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It needs a high MTU between sites.

B.

It has a high implementation cost.

C.

It must have point-to-point communication.

D.

It requires complex configuration.

E.

It works only with BGP between sites.

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Questions 50

Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?

Options:

A.

cloud computing

B.

virtualization

C.

application hosting

D.

containers

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Questions 51

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 51

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

Options:

A.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

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Questions 52

What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP tracks segments being transmitted or received by assigning segment numbers, and UDP adjusts data flow according to network conditions.

B.

TCP establishes a connection with the device on the other end before transferring, and UDP transfers without establishing a connection.

C.

TCP sends data at a constant rate with error checking on upper protocol layers, and UDP provides error-checking and sequencing.

D.

TCP immediately transmits data without waiting for a handshake, and UDP awaits a response from the receiver before sending additional data.

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Questions 53

200-301 Question 53

200-301 Question 53

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

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Questions 54

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

Forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

C.

Overwrites the known source MAC address in the address table

D.

Protects against denial of service attacks

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Questions 55

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Options:

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Questions 56

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

Options:

A.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

B.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table.

C.

Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.

D.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

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Questions 57

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

Options:

A.

read

B.

update

C.

create

D.

delete

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Questions 58

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

Options:

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

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Questions 59

in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

Options:

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

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Questions 60

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 60

Options:

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Questions 61

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

Options:

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

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Questions 62

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Provide uninterrupted forwarding service.

B.

Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

C.

Provide direct connectivity for end user devices.

D.

Ensure timely data transfer between layers.

E.

Inspect packets for malicious activity.

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Questions 63

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

200-301 Question 63

Options:

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Questions 64

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asychronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 65

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

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Questions 66

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

Options:

A.

read

B.

create

C.

replace

D.

update

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Questions 67

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 67

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

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Questions 68

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 68

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

200-301 Question 68

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 69

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

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Questions 70

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a rooter that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

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Questions 71

How does automation affect network management processes?

Options:

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

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Questions 72

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

Options:

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

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Questions 73

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

Options:

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

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Questions 74

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 75

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B.

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

C.

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

D.

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

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Questions 76

What is the purpose of the URI string in a REST request?

Options:

A.

To identify a resource on a target server.

B.

To transport data or payload to a remote resource.

C.

To specify the way in which a remote resource is modified.

D.

To respond with the data content encoding for a request.

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Questions 77

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

listening

B.

blocking

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

speaking

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Questions 78

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

Options:

A.

it enables BPDU messages

B.

It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

C.

It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

D.

It immediately enables the port in the listening state

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Questions 79

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

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Questions 80

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

Options:

A.

lldp timer

B.

lldp holdtimt

C.

lldp reinit

D.

lldp tlv-select

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Questions 81

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 81

Options:

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Questions 82

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

200-301 Question 82

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 83

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

Options:

A.

wireless access point

B.

firewall

C.

wireless LAN controller

D.

router

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Questions 84

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 84

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

200-301 Question 84

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 85

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 85

Which command provides this output?

Options:

A.

show ip route

B.

show ip interface

C.

show interface

D.

show cdp neighbor

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Questions 86

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

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Questions 87

200-301 Question 87

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

200-301 Question 87

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 88

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

B.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

C.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

D.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

E.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

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Questions 89

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

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Questions 90

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

200-301 Question 90

Options:

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Questions 91

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

200-301 Question 91

Options:

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Questions 92

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

A TCP connection has been torn down

B.

An ICMP connection has been built

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A certificate has expired.

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Questions 93

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

iPv6 address

D.

OSPf process ID

E.

OSPf stub flag

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Questions 94

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

Options:

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

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Questions 95

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Options:

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

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Questions 96

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

200-301 Question 96

Options:

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Questions 97

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

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Questions 98

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

B.

support standalone or controller-based architectures

C.

serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

D.

provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

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Questions 99

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 99

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

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Questions 100

What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?

Options:

A.

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

B.

FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC

C.

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

D.

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

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Questions 101

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

Options:

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

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Questions 102

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

Options:

A.

0000.5E00.010a

B.

0005.3711.0975

C.

0000.0C07.AC99

D.

0007.C070/AB01

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Questions 103

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 103

Options:

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Questions 104

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

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Questions 105

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Even: Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

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Questions 106

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 106

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

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Questions 107

Which two wireless security stewards use Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity'? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WPA2

B.

WPA3

C.

Wi-Fi 6

D.

WEP

E.

WPA

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Questions 108

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

B.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

C.

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

D.

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

E.

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

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Questions 109

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 109

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

C.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

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Questions 110

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 110

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.

Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport access vlan 67

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

C.

switchport private-vlan association host 67

D.

switchport trunk native vlan 67

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Questions 111

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

200-301 Question 111

Options:

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Questions 112

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

Options:

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

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Questions 113

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 113

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

JSON

C.

Chef

D.

Puppet

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Questions 114

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

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Questions 115

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

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Questions 116

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

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Questions 117

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)

Options:

A.

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B.

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C.

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

D.

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E.

It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

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Questions 118

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

200-301 Question 118

Options:

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Questions 119

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

Options:

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

anti-replay

D.

accounting

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Questions 120

Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?

Options:

A.

multicast address

B.

loopback IP address

C.

virtual IP address

D.

broadcast address

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Questions 121

200-301 Question 121

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

Options:

A.

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

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Questions 122

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 122

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

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Questions 123

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 123

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

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Questions 124

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 124

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Null0

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 125

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 125

How many objects, Keys and JSON list values are present?

Options:

A.

three objects, two Keys, and three JSON list values

B.

three objects, three keys and two JSON Ml values

C.

one object, three keys, and three JSON list values

D.

one object, three keys and two JSON list values

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Questions 126

What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute data-plane functions.

B.

Controller-based networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute control-plane functions.

C.

Traditional networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute control-plane functions.

D.

Traditional networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute data-plane functions.

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Questions 127

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Options:

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

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Questions 128

What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topology?

Options:

A.

It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.

B.

It enables the core and access layers to connect to one logical distribution device over an EtherChannel.

C.

It enables all workstations in a SOHO environment to connect on a single switch with internet access.

D.

It allows wireless devices to connect directly to the core layer, which enables faster data transmission.

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Questions 129

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

200-301 Question 129

Options:

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Questions 130

200-301 Question 130

Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:0FFA:0::/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::1/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 anycast

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Questions 131

200-301 Question 131

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.

200-301 Question 131

Options:

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Questions 132

Drag and drop the management connection types from the left onto the definitions on the right.

200-301 Question 132

Options:

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Questions 133

A switch is forwarding a frame out of all interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

Multicast

C.

CDP

D.

Flooding

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Questions 134

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

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Questions 135

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

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Questions 136

Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria?

• Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters

• Auto detection MDi-X is unavailable

Options:

A.

straight-through

B.

rollover

C.

crossover

D.

console

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Questions 137

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100.

C.

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

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Questions 138

What describes a northbound REST API for SON?

Options:

A.

application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests

B.

network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods

C.

network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes

D.

application-facing interface far GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

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Questions 139

A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?

Options:

A.

high bandwidth usage

B.

a physical cable fault

C.

a speed mismatch

D.

a cable that is too long

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Questions 140

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

provides external internet network connectivity

B.

provides unlimited address ranges

C.

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.

reuses addresses at multiple sites

E.

conserves globally unique address space

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Questions 141

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 141

Options:

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Questions 142

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

200-301 Question 142

Options:

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Questions 143

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7

10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6

10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4

10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5

Options:

A.

F0/7

B.

F0/5

C.

F0/4

D.

F0/6

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Questions 144

A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?

Options:

A.

ipconfig /renew

B.

ipconfig

C.

ipconfig /all

D.

ipconfig /displaydns

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Questions 145

What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?

Options:

A.

16

B.

32

C.

48

D.

64

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Questions 146

200-301 Question 146

Refer to the exhibit. How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

B.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

C.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

D.

Add the ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands under both interfaces.

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Questions 147

Which component controls and distributes physical resources for each virtual machine?

Options:

A.

OS

B.

hypervisor

C.

CPU

D.

physical enclosure

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Questions 148

Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Policing is not supported on subinterfaces.

B.

Shaping and rate limiting have the same effect.

C.

Shaping drops excessive traffic without adding traffic delay.

D.

Shaping levels out traffic bursts by delaying excess traffic.

E.

Policing is performed in the inbound and outbound directions.

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Questions 149

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

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Questions 150

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

Options:

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

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Questions 151

Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.

to uniquely identify clients to monitor their usage patterns

B.

to encrypt data to prevent excessive usage

C.

to contain embedded permissions that automatically expire

D.

to track the geographical location of each request

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Questions 152

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

200-301 Question 152 200-301 Question 152

Options:

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Questions 153

200-301 Question 153

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.

Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active

B.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode active

C.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode on

D.

switchport switchport mode trunk

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Questions 154

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

Options:

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

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Questions 155

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

Options:

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

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Questions 156

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

Options:

A.

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

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Questions 157

Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

distribution

B.

service

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual

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Questions 158

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

Options:

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

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Questions 159

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?

Options:

A.

Virtual Route Forwarding

B.

Virtual Switch System

C.

IPsec Transport Mode

D.

Time Division Multiplexer

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Questions 160

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

Options:

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

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Questions 161

What is the function of generative AI in network operations?

Options:

A.

It disables unused services.

B.

It deploys network firmware updates.

C.

It creates synthetic network configurations.

D.

It computes optimal data storage solutions.

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Questions 162

200-301 Question 162

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

200-301 Question 162

Options:

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Questions 163

200-301 Question 163

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?

Options:

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

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Questions 164

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 164

Options:

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Questions 165

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

Options:

A.

Centralized cloud management platform

B.

Central WLC

C.

Individual AP

D.

Client device

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Questions 166

200-301 Question 166

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

Options:

A.

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

channel-group 1 mode on

C.

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 167

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

Options:

A.

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.

They assign IP addresses to devices.

C.

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

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Questions 168

Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?

Options:

A.

BPDU guard

B.

loop guard

C.

portfast

D.

uplinkfast

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Questions 169

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 169

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configured to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configured to complete this task?

A)

200-301 Question 169

B)

200-301 Question 169

C)

200-301 Question 169

D)

200-301 Question 169

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 170

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 170

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interlace Seria10. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

Options:

A.

The permit command fails and returns an error code.

B.

The router accepts all incoming traffic to Seria10 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0.

C.

The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255 is allowed on Seria10.

D.

The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

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Questions 171

Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

site-to-site VPN

B.

IDMVPN

C.

IGETVPN

D.

IPsec remote access

E.

clientless VPN

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Questions 172

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

200-301 Question 172

Options:

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Questions 173

Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS to host virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Type 1

B.

Type 2

C.

Type 3

D.

Type 12

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Questions 174

200-301 Question 174

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to change default settings on SW1 to allow remote access and has entered the following in the configuration mode:

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15

SW1(config-line)#password Labtest32!

Which set of commands are needed to allow only SSH access and hide passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#aaa new-model

B.

SW1(config-line)#login localSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1(config-line)#transport input sshSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1(config-line)#login localSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

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Questions 175

Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

Options:

A.

SLB

B.

FHRP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRP

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Questions 176

Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtain insights, and traditional campus management requires manual analysis.

B.

Cisco DNA Center handles management tasks at the controller to reduce the load on infrastructure devices, and traditional campus management uses the data backbone.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages YANG and NETCONF to assess the status of fabric and nonfabric devices, and traditional campus management uses CLI exclusively.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automatically compares security postures among network devices, and traditional campus management needs manual comparisons.

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Questions 177

When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

for small networks with minimal need for growth

B.

the access and distribution layers must be on the same device

C.

for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites

D.

only when using VSS technology

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Questions 178

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 178

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A)

200-301 Question 178

B)

200-301 Question 178

C)

200-301 Question 178

D)

200-301 Question 178

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 179

What is the role of community strings in SNMP operations?

Options:

A.

It serves as a sequence tag on SNMP traffic messages.

B.

It serves as a password lo protect access to MIB objects.

C.

It passes the Active Directory username and password that are required for device access

D.

It translates alphanumeric MIB output values to numeric values.

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Questions 180

What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?

Options:

A.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a loopback address, and an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a directly attached interface.

B.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address can be used throughout a company site or network, but an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

C.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is global, but the scope of an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

D.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local address is used throughout a company site or network.

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Questions 181

200-301 Question 181

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 181

B)

200-301 Question 181

C)

200-301 Question 181

D)

200-301 Question 181

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 182

PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?

Options:

A.

MAC address aging

B.

MAC address table

C.

frame flooding

D.

spanning-tree protocol

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Questions 183

A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

Options:

A.

The router chooses the route with the oldest age.

B.

The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

C.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.

D.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.

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Questions 184

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8 :: 500:a:400F:583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8 :: 5:a:4F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :: db8:0000 :: 500:a:400F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0 :: 500:a:4F:583B

Buy Now
Questions 185

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

Options:

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

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Questions 186

A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

Options:

A.

ntp master 172.24.54.8

B.

ntp client 172.24.54.8

C.

ntp peer 172.24.54.8

D.

ntp server 172.24.54.8

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Questions 187

What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?

Options:

A.

to reduce interference

B.

to allow for channel bonding

C.

to stabilize the RF environment

D.

to increase bandwidth

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Questions 188

Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

200-301 Question 188

Options:

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Questions 189

Which device separates networks by security domains?

Options:

A.

firewall

B.

access point

C.

intrusion protection system

D.

wireless controller

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Questions 190

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 190

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?

Options:

A.

Configure the no lldp tlv-select-management-address command globally on Cat9K-2

B.

Configure the no lldp transmit command on interface G1/0/21 in Cat9K-1

C.

Configure the no lldp receive command on interface G1/0/21 on Cat9K-1

D.

Configure the no lldp mac-phy-cfg command globally on Cat9K-2

Buy Now
Questions 191

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Buy Now
Questions 192

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Buy Now
Questions 193

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

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Questions 194

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 194

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

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Questions 195

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 195

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

200-301 Question 195

B)

200-301 Question 195

C)

200-301 Question 195

D)

200-301 Question 195

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 196

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 Question 196

B)

200-301 Question 196

C)

200-301 Question 196

D)

200-301 Question 196

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 197

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Questions 198

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 198

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Options:

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

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Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 199

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Buy Now
Questions 200

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

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Questions 201

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

Buy Now
Questions 202

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Buy Now
Questions 203

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

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Questions 204

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 204

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

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Questions 205

How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

B.

The EthernetChannel must be configured in "mode active".

C.

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

D.

To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

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Questions 206

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 206

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Buy Now
Questions 207

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

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Questions 208

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

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Questions 209

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 209

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

200-301 Question 209

B)

200-301 Question 209

C)

200-301 Question 209

D)

200-301 Question 209

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 210

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 210

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

200-301 Question 210

B)

200-301 Question 210

C)

200-301 Question 210

D)

200-301 Question 210

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 211

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 Question 211

Options:

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Questions 212

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 213

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Buy Now
Questions 214

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 214

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

Options:

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Buy Now
Questions 215

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

200-301 Question 215

Options:

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Questions 216

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 216

Options:

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Questions 217

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

200-301 Question 217

B)

200-301 Question 217

C)

200-301 Question 217

D)

200-301 Question 217

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 218

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 218

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Buy Now
Questions 219

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 219

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Buy Now
Questions 220

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

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Questions 221

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 221

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

Buy Now
Questions 222

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Buy Now
Questions 223

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 223

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Buy Now
Questions 224

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 224

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 225

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 225

Options:

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Questions 226

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 226

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

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Questions 227

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 227

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Buy Now
Questions 228

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Buy Now
Questions 229

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

200-301 Question 229

Options:

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Questions 230

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 230

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 231

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Questions 232

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 232

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

200-301 Question 232

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

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Questions 233

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

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Questions 234

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 234

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Questions 235

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

Options:

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

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Questions 236

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 236

Options:

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Questions 237

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Questions 238

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

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Questions 239

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 239

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

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Questions 240

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 241

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 241

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

200-301 Question 241

B)

200-301 Question 241

C)

200-301 Question 241

D)

200-301 Question 241

E)

200-301 Question 241

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 242

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

200-301 Question 242

Options:

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Questions 243

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

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Questions 244

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 244

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 244

B)

200-301 Question 244

C)

200-301 Question 244

D)

200-301 Question 244

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 245

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

200-301 Question 245

B)

200-301 Question 245

C)

200-301 Question 245

D)

200-301 Question 245

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 246

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 246

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

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Questions 247

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 247

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

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Questions 248

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

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Questions 249

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 249

Options:

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Questions 250

When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP- Manager interface?

Options:

A.

Discovery response

B.

DHCP request

C.

DHCP discover

D.

Discovery request

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Questions 251

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

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Questions 252

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 253

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 253

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Questions 254

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Questions 255

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 255

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

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Questions 256

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

Options:

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

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Questions 257

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 257

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

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Questions 258

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

Options:

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

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Questions 259

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

Options:

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

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Questions 260

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

management interface settings

B.

QoS settings

C.

Ip address of one or more access points

D.

SSID

E.

Profile name

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Questions 261

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

Options:

A.

policy plane

B.

management plane

C.

control plane

D.

data plane

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Questions 262

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

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Questions 263

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

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Questions 264

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Options:

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

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Questions 265

200-301 Question 265

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?

    object

Options:

A.

value

B.

key

C.

array

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Questions 266

200-301 Question 266

Refer to the exhibit. Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management

B.

Set the Fast Transition option and the WPA gik-randomize State to disable

C.

Under Protected Management Frames, set the PMF option to Required

D.

Enable CCKM under Authentication Key Management

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Questions 267

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addresses.

B.

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

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Questions 268

What is a specification for SSIDS?

Options:

A.

They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.

B.

They must include one number and one letter.

C.

They define the VLAN on a switch.

D.

They are case sensitive.

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Questions 269

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

B.

It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.

C.

It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network

D.

It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.

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Questions 270

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 270

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Se0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers reach one another? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

C.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Questions 271

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

Options:

A.

to secure physical access to a data center

B.

to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram

C.

to securely manage and deploy network devices

D.

to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points

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Questions 272

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 272

The router has been configured with a subnet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet. The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

Options:

A.

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0Broadcast address: 10.7.54.255Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

B.

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.128.0Broadcast address: 10.7.55.255Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

C.

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0Broadcast address: 10.7.54.255Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

D.

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0Broadcast address: 10.7.55.255Usable IP address range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

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Questions 273

What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a controller-based network?

Options:

A.

providing a central view of the deployed network

B.

forwarding packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

setting packet-handling policies

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Questions 274

What does the term "spirt MAC” refer to in a wireless architecture?

Options:

A.

divides data link layer functions between the AP and WLC

B.

combines the management and control functions from the data-forwarding functions

C.

uses different MAC addresses for 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands on the same AP

D.

leverages two APs to handle control and data traffic

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Questions 275

An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static route for prefix 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64. The next hop must be 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1 The route must be reachable via the R1 Gigabit 0/0 interface. Which command configures the designated route?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

B.

R1(config-if)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

C.

R1(config-if)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

D.

R1(config)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

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Questions 276

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 276

PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

A)

200-301 Question 276

B)

200-301 Question 276

C)

200-301 Question 276

D)

200-301 Question 276

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 277

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 277

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

Options:

A.

Subnet Mask

B.

DNS Servers

C.

Default Gateway

D.

DHCP Server

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Questions 278

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 278

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

200-301 Question 278

Options:

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Questions 279

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

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Questions 280

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 280

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

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Questions 281

Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?

Options:

A.

broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites

B.

multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location

C.

spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites

D.

unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

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Questions 282

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

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Questions 283

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 283

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

200-301 Question 283

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

Options:

A.

Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

B.

Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

C.

Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

D.

Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

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Questions 284

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

Options:

A.

The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

C.

The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.

D.

The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

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Questions 285

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

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Questions 286

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Options:

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

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Questions 287

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 287

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 288

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 289

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides

B.

configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process

C.

configure the same router ID on both routing processes

D.

Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.

E.

configure both interfaces with the same area ID

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Questions 290

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

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Questions 291

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

Options:

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

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Questions 292

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

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Questions 293

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

Options:

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

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Questions 294

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

Options:

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

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Questions 295

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

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Questions 296

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

Options:

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

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Questions 297

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 297

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

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Questions 298

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

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Questions 299

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

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Questions 300

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

Options:

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

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Questions 301

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

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Questions 302

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

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Questions 303

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 303

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Questions 304

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

Options:

A.

Each device is separated by the same number of hops

B.

It provides variable latency

C.

It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.

D.

Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

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Questions 305

How does WPA3 improve security?

Options:

A.

It uses SAE for authentication.

B.

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

C.

It uses RC4 for encryption.

D.

It uses TKIP for encryption.

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Questions 306

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

Options:

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

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Questions 307

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

Options:

A.

propagates VLAN information between switches

B.

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

C.

provides DDoS mitigation

D.

rate-limits certain traffic

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Questions 308

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Options:

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

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Questions 309

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

200-301 Question 309

Options:

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Questions 310

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

A.

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

B.

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

C.

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

D.

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

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Questions 311

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 311

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

Options:

A.

modify hello interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

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Questions 312

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

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Questions 313

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 313

The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

Options:

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

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Questions 314

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?

Options:

A.

It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.

B.

For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.

C.

It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

D.

It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric

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Questions 315

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

link-local

C.

unique local

D.

multicast

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Questions 316

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 316

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

200-301 Question 316

Options:

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Questions 317

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 317

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

200-301 Question 317

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 318

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 318

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

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Questions 319

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 319

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

Options:

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

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Questions 320

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

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Questions 321

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

200-301 Question 321

Options:

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Questions 322

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 322

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

Options:

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

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Questions 323

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 323

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

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Questions 324

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 324

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Options:

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

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Questions 325

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

Options:

A.

1,6,11

B.

1,5,10

C.

1,2,3

D.

5,6,7

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Questions 326

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

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Questions 327

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

Options:

A.

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

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Questions 328

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 328

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

Options:

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

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Questions 329

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

Internal EIGRP

D.

OSPF

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Questions 330

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

Options:

A.

northbound API

B.

REST API

C.

SOAP API

D.

southbound API

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Questions 331

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

Options:

A.

move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B.

transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively

C.

forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses

D.

flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

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Questions 332

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Options:

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

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Questions 333

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 333

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

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Questions 334

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Options:

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

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Questions 335

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 335

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

200-301 Question 335

B)

200-301 Question 335

C)

200-301 Question 335

D)

200-301 Question 335

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 336

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

Options:

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

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Questions 337

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

Options:

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

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Questions 338

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

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Questions 339

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

200-301 Question 339

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

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Questions 340

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 340

Options:

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Questions 341

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

Options:

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

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Questions 342

200-301 Question 342

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

200-301 Question 342

Options:

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Questions 343

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

Options:

A.

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

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Questions 344

Why would a network administrator implement the HSRP protocol?

Options:

A.

To provide network redundancy in the case of a router failure

B.

To use an open standard protocol that is configured on Cisco and third-party routers

C.

To allow hosts in a network to use the same default gateway virtual IP when load-balancing traffic

D.

To allow clients to be configured with multiple default gateway IPs

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Questions 345

What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It uses a single router to route traffic between sites.

B.

It leverages a dedicated connection.

C.

It connects remote networks through a single line.

D.

t delivers redundancy between the central office and branch offices.

E.

It provides direct connections between each router in the topology.

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Last Update: Sep 27, 2025
Questions: 1191

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