Free Practice Questions for the Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam (2026 Updated)
At Marks4sure, we are dedicated to providing IT professionals with the most accurate and reliable preparation materials for the Cisco 200-301 exam. To support your certification journey, we have made a selection of our premium 2026 CCNA practice questions and answers available completely free. You can take this practice test as many times as you need. Every question includes a detailed, expertly verified explanation to ensure you fully grasp the core security concepts before test day.
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
200-301 Report Card
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.
Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW1. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?
Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCII format?
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office/home office architecture?
What software-defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST+ listens and learns for a specific time period?
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken on router R1 to resolve the configuration issue?
Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.
Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to dynamic desirable.
What is the result of this configuration?
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
Refer to the exhibit.

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit
.

After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?
Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?
Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-GHz clients connect? (Choose two.)
A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?
Which type of port is used to connect to the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?
Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?
Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?
When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by " R1 " and " SW1 " within the JSON output?
Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet prefixes: 172.31.0.0/16, 172.31.0.0/24, and 172.31.0.0/25. How does the router handle the packet?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.

Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Drag and drop the IPv6 address types from the left onto their description on the right.

Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?
Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router.
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the prefix length for the route that router1 will use to reach host A?
Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
Refer to the exhibit.

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?
A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?
The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements
• Create 8 new subnets
• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet
• A Layer 3 interface is used
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?
Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?
Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?
What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?
Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?
Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)
What is the function of " off-the-shelf " switches in a controller-based network?
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
A network engineer must configure an interface with IIP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?
Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
Which two wireless security standards use Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol for encryption and data integrity ' ? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization??
Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?
Refer to the exhibit.

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?
Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)

B)

C)

D)


Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static route for prefix 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64. The next hop must be 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1 The route must be reachable via the R1 Gigabit 0/0 interface. Which command configures the designated route?
Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for new hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)

B)

C)

D)

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:
* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically
* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen
Which two commands must be configuredd to complete this task " ? (Choose two)
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10.70.128.0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a three-tier architecture model?
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?


When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet?
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172.1.1.1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Topology:

All relevant ports are preconfigured as IEEE 802.1Q trunks.
Task 1
Configure SW-1 port Ethernet0/0 to permit only VLANs 5 and 6.
Task 2
Configure ports Ethernet0/1 on SW-1 and SW-2 to use VLAN 77 as the native VLAN.
Task 3
Configure SW-2 port Ethernet0/2 to permit only VLAN 6.
Task 4
Using LACP, create a Port-Channel between SW-3 and SW-4.
Combine Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 into a Port-Channel while leaving the existing trunk configurations intact.
Assign Port-Channel number 34.
Only SW-3 must initiate LACP negotiations.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.



Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Topology:

Configure OSPF routing for the network by completing the following tasks:
Task 1
Configure OSPF on R2. Ensure that R1 and R3 become neighbors.
Use process ID 30.
Use 10.22.22.22 as the router ID.
Under the OSPF process, advertise the following specific prefixes:
10.0.23.0/28
10.0.12.0/30
Task 2
Ensure that R2 always becomes the designated router (DR).


Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.


All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.




IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.



IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.


Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3
Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the addresss 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
Which command creates a static NAT binding for a PC addresss of 10.1.1.1 to the public routable addresss 209.165.200.225 assigned to the PC?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?
Which command must be configured to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC addresss of aabb.cc00.1234 for a VoIP handset on VLAN 4?

Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices froin the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?
Which feature Is mandatory when configuring a new SSID for a wirelesss network running WPA3-Personal mode?
Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?
Which AP mode wirelesssly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Which mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP addressss for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?
What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure pre-shared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wirelesss network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the prefix length for the route that Router1 will use to reach Host A?

Refer to the exhibit. All routers In the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?
Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to change default settings on SW1 to allow remote access and has entered the following in the configuration mode:
SW1(config)#line vty 0 15
SW1(config-line)#password Labtest32!
Which set of commands are needed to allow only SSH access and hide passwords in the running configuration?
Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics froin the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP addressss of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router for user access via SSH. The service-password encryption command has been issued. The configuration must meet these requirements:
• Create the username as CCUser.
• Create the password as NA!2Scc.
• Encrypt the user password.
What must be configured to meet the requirements?

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two)
Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)
Which function generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?
Drag and drop the network topology architecture types froin the left onto the corresponding function on the right. Not all architecture types are used.

Drag and drop the characteristic froin the left onto the IPv6 addresss type on the right.

Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration parameter is preventing host C from reaching the internet?
Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?








In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).






































































