220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2025) Questions and Answers

When a legacy application is running on multiple physical servers, and the organization wants to maintain it until retirement, the best CompTIA-aligned solution is virtualization. Virtualization allows the engineer to convert existing physical servers into virtual machines (VMs), a process known as P2V (Physical-to-Virtual) migration. This reduces hardware footprint, simplifies management, and isolates the application within a controlled environment. CompTIA A+ emphasizes virtualization for legacy support because it eliminates dependence on aging physical hardware while preserving application functionality exactly as before.

Virtual machines also provide snapshots, backups, failover capabilities, and easier resource allocation, making them more reliable than maintaining old hardware. A SAN (A) provides storage, not application hosting. FaaS (B) is a serverless model inappropriate for legacy applications that require full OS environments. A configuration management platform (D) manages software deployments and settings but does not replace or consolidate physical servers.

Thus, virtualization is the most suitable and industry-standard method for sustaining legacy applications.

Port flapping refers to a network port continuously going up and down, which can prevent the access point from fully coming online.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Wired and wireless troubleshooting:

“Repeated loss and restoration of network link is called port flapping and may result in network devices, such as access points, not coming online.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4

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A PoE (Power over Ethernet) switch transmits both data and electrical power over Ethernet cables to devices like wireless access points or VoIP phones. This is especially useful in areas where separate power sources are not available.

High resource usage along with frequentpop-upsare strong signs of amalware infection. The next logical step is toupdate anti-malware definitionsandrun a full scanto detect and remove threats.

Option A:Network performance is likely not the root cause local system behavior points to malware.

Option B:Drivers affect hardware functionality; they don’t resolve malware-related slowness.

Option D:DHCP issues usually cause IP conflicts or no network access, not CPU spikes or pop-ups.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.

A sandbox is a secure, isolated environment used to test potentially harmful software or code. It prevents the software from affecting the main system, allowing safe malware testing. Thismethod is standard in cybersecurity best practices.

If paper gets stuck at the last stage of printing, the rollers responsible for moving the paper through the printer are likely worn out or dirty.

Why Not B (Tray assembly): The tray assembly manages paper loading, not feeding during the print process.

Why Not C (Toner): Toner is unrelated to paper jams.

Why Not D (Printhead): Printheads manage ink/toner distribution, not paper movement.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer troubleshooting​.

If a laptop shuts down when undocked and remains powered off even with a new charging cable, the internal battery is likely faulty and cannot hold a charge. Replacing the battery is the next troubleshooting step.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

"If a laptop only works when docked or connected to AC power, and a replacement cable does not resolve the issue, the internal battery may need to be replaced."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Mobile Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

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When a laptop powers on but the screen is blank, the quickest way to isolate the problem is to connect to an external monitor. This helps determine if the issue is with the laptop display or with the graphics subsystem.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

“A blank screen on a laptop with power indicators lit should be tested with an external display first to rule out a faulty screen or ribbon cable.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Laptop Display Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

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Laptop display assemblies typically include not only the LCD panel but also the webcam, microphone, display cable, and critically, the Wi-Fi antennas. In most laptops, Wi-Fi antennas are built into the display bezel, because the elevated position allows for stronger wireless signal reception. When replacing the entire display assembly, the antennas must be carefully disconnected and reconnected during reinstallation.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes proper cable routing and antenna reattachment as essential steps in laptop hardware disassembly and reassembly. Failing to reconnect these antennas results in weak or nonfunctional wireless connectivity, even though the display replacement itself may be successful.

Heat sinks and CPU fans are located on the motherboard and are unrelated to display assembly replacement. Resetting BIOS settings is unnecessary unless troubleshooting firmware-related issues, not replacing hardware components like a display. Therefore, the only action that aligns with standard laptop design and CompTIA A+ procedures is ensuring that the wireless antennas are reconnected.

Thus, the correct answer is B.

CompTIA A+ teaches that S.M.A.R.T. warnings indicate imminent drive failure. Even if the RAID controller reports the array as “healthy,” a S.M.A.R.T. alert means the drive should be replaced immediately.

RAID 5 provides redundancy for one drive failure, but technicians should replace the degrading drive before it fails fully, ensuring the rebuild happens proactively.

Running chkdsk affects file systems, not drive health. Disabling write caching is unrelated. Rebuilding the array should only occur after replacing the faulty drive.

Replacing the drive prevents a catastrophic dual-drive failure scenario, which RAID 5 cannot survive.

This approach aligns with CompTIA troubleshooting guidelines for RAID maintenance and S.M.A.R.T. diagnostics.

Reasoning: A cable tester capable of testing Power over Ethernet (PoE) functionality can verify whether the switchport is providing the required power to the phone. This tool measures both the presence of data and the voltage or wattage being provided through the Ethernet cable.

This is the most effective way to confirm that PoE is available on the port.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Network tap:

A network tap is primarily used to monitor network traffic, not to test for PoE availability. It cannot verify if power is being supplied through the Ethernet cable.

C. Loopback plug:

A loopback plug is used to test the functionality of a network port by creating a loop for transmitted and received signals. It does not measure or verify PoE availability.

D. Toner probe:

A toner probe is used for tracing and identifying network cables. It cannot test for PoE functionality.

Practical Example:

A PoE phone might not turn on due to a misconfigured or faulty switchport. Using a cable tester capable of measuring PoE would help the technician determine if the switchport is supplying sufficient power to the phone.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 2.1: Identify common networking hardware and tools, including PoE-enabled devices and cable testers.

When printing on preprinted forms, precise alignment is critical. If print output shifts downward on the page, the first step is to ensure that the correct paper type and form stock are loaded properly. CompTIA A+ emphasizes verifying media type and tray configuration when dealing with alignment issues, especially in environments using specialized or preformatted paper.

Preprinted forms often require thicker media, specialty settings, or exact tray loading orientation to ensure feeding accuracy. If the wrong paper type is selected on the printer or print driver, the printer may adjust feed rate, roller pressure, or margin expectations incorrectly, causing vertical misalignment. Thus, confirming the correct paper type is loaded—and that the printer is configured for that type—is the most fundamental starting point.

Orientation settings (C) could affect sideways alignment but not vertical shifting. Pickup rollers (D) can cause skewing or paper jams, but they generally do not cause consistent downward shifts. PostScript drivers (B) relate to graphic rendering but do not affect form alignment unless dealing with complex images, which is not indicated here.

Therefore, confirming correct paper type and loading aligns with CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology: always check the simplest, most likely physical cause first—especially with form printing.

If only one print job fails and others succeed, it is often due to a paper type or tray selection mismatch for that specific job. If a print job is configured to use a tray that is empty or set to manual feed, it will not be released until resolved.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Printer troubleshooting:

“If a specific print job stalls while others succeed, check the job settings for specific tray or paper type configurations that do not match the printer’s current setup.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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Firmware is the embedded software on a device such as a printer. Manufacturers often release firmware updates to resolve hardware-specific functionality issues, such as scan-to-email or security vulnerabilities.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – Printer installation and maintenance:

“Firmware updates provide bug fixes and add new features for multifunction printers. Apply firmware updates to resolve device-specific issues.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Maintenance

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4

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Changing the page orientation(e.g., fromportrait to landscape) allows wider columns to fit on one side of the page. This maintains readability while continuing to use duplex printing.

Option A:Disabling duplex defeats the goal of printing on both sides.

Option B:May help, but could make the document harder to read if the font is too small.

Option D:Unlikely to resolve formatting issues related to layout and dimensions.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud deployment models:

“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (From CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Concepts):

A consistent Wi-Fi SSID across all APs allows users to roam throughout the office while maintaining access to local resources without reconnecting manually.

CompTIA Core 1 Study Guide Concept Reference:

Wireless networking configuration

SSID broadcast and roaming

WLAN infrastructure

The study guide explains that a common SSID enables seamless roaming and uninterrupted access to network resources.

If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads. Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded output.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing problems:

“Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use the printer's cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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Secure badging—often used with “pull printing” or “secure print release”—requires users to authenticate at the printer before documents are printed. CompTIA A+ highlights this feature as critical for protecting sensitive data in corporate environments. With badge-based printing, jobs stay in a secure print queue until the authorized user physically scans their badge.

This prevents confidential documents, like HR termination notices, from sitting unattended in the output tray. It also reduces print waste and ensures accountability for printed materials.

Duplex printing (B) simply prints double-sided pages. Printer sharing (C) allows multiple users to use a printer but does not provide security. Wireless encryption (D) protects network traffic but does not address abandoned print jobs.

Therefore, badging / secure print release is the correct protective measure.

A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services. One significant advantage is that it allows organizations to keep sensitive data in a private environment to meet regulatory or data residency requirements, while still utilizing the scalability and cost-efficiency of the public cloud for other workloads. This ensures compliance with legal mandates about data location.

A hypervisor allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single physical host, making it the ideal solution for providing concurrent access to different test environments. Developers can use virtual machines (VMs) for testing and development.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts:

“A hypervisor is software that enables multiple operating systems to run on a single host as virtual machines. This is commonly used in development and testing environments for flexibility and isolation.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

If performance isnot a primary concernand the user requireslarge, cost-effective storage, a2TB 5400rpm SATA HDDis ideal. It offers high capacity at a lower price point than SSDs and faster HDDs.

Option A:NVMe drives offer exceptional speed but are significantly more expensive per GB and not necessary when read/write speed is not a concern.

Option B:RAID 1 improves redundancy but cuts usable capacity in half and uses expensive SSDs.

Option D:SAS drives are fast and reliable but are enterprise-grade and expensive overkill for desktop use.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.3: Given a scenario, install and configure storage devices.

RG11 coaxial cable with quad shielding is designed to handle large volumes of internet traffic, providing excellent resistance to interference and high bandwidth capacity.

Why Not A (USB 3.1): USB 3.1 is used for connecting peripherals, not for high-volume internet traffic.

Why Not C (SATA3.0): SATA is used for internal data storage connections, not for network traffic.

Why Not D (Unshielded plenum RJ45): While RJ45 cables are commonly used, unshielded cables are prone to interference and are not ideal for high-volume traffic.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cable types and their characteristics​.

Identifying changes made to the system is the next step to troubleshoot why an application no longer launches, as recent changes often cause such issues.

Why Not A (Research the symptoms): Research is broader and should come after identifying changes.

Why Not C (Determine which steps need to be performed): This comes after identifying the issue.

Why Not D (Check the vendor's website): This is a later step if further guidance is needed.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology​.

DisplayPort is a fully digital video interface that supports HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection), a digital rights-management protocol used to protect copyrighted content such as movies, streaming video, and Blu-ray playback. The CompTIA A+ study guide notes that DisplayPort and HDMI support HDCP, while analog connections like VGA and DVI-A do not support HDCP because analog signals cannot enforce digital content protection.

F-type connectors are used for coaxial cabling (cable TV, satellite), not digital video output. DisplayPort's support for encrypted high-definition video streams makes it the correct answer and aligns with CompTIA’s coverage of display connectors and digital content protection technologies.

A blinking orange light typically indicates a failed hard drive in the RAID array. In RAID 1 (mirroring), you can replace the failed drive and rebuild the array without data loss.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – RAID configuration and troubleshooting:

"In the event of a hard drive failure in RAID 1, replace the failed disk and allow the array to rebuild using the remaining mirrored disk."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: RAID and Storage

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4

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Ultra HD (UHD), also referred to as4K UHD, has a resolution of3840x2160. It's four times the resolution of standard 1080p (Full HD), offering more screen real estate and sharper images.

Option A (1920x1080):Full HD (FHD), not UHD.

Option B (2048x1080):DCI 2K used in cinema, not common for Ultra HD.

Option D (7680x4320):Known as 8K UHD, not standard Ultra HD.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.7: Compare and contrast display technologies and their features.

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Physical damage from dropping a tablet may often affect ports or connectors. Before taking deeper diagnostic or replacement steps, it's important to visually inspect the USB-C charging port for damage or debris. If the port is damaged, charging issues can occur regardless of battery health.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

CompTIA networking fundamentals describe VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) as a method to segment network traffic logically, even while using the same physical switch hardware.

A VLAN allows a company to:

Separate traffic by department

Improve security

Reduce broadcast domains

Control inter-department access

To separate accounting and customer service networks, VLANs are the industry-standard and the CompTIA-approved method.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. VPN – Used for secure remote connections, not internal LAN segmentation.

B. DNS – Resolves hostnames to IPs, not used for network separation.

D. DHCP – Assigns IP addresses; does not isolate network groups.

Final Answer: C

In Wi-Fi, the 2.4GHz band contains 14 total channels (depending on region), but only channels 1, 6, and 11 are considered non-overlapping in most countries. CompTIA A+ highlights the importance of selecting these channels to minimize interference, especially in environments with multiple wireless networks or access points.

The 2.4GHz band is narrower than 5GHz, causing adjacent channels to overlap significantly. Using channels 1, 6, and 11 prevents overlap and reduces signal interference, improving performance and stability.

5GHz (B) has many non-overlapping channels and does not use the 1/6/11 scheme. The 6GHz band (C) is part of Wi-Fi 6E and uses entirely different channel planning. The 60GHz band (D) supports short-range high-speed connections like WiGig, not traditional Wi-Fi channels.

Therefore, the 2.4GHz band is the correct answer.

Containers provide lightweight virtualization, ideal for deploying microservices because they are isolated, portable, and require fewer resources than traditional VMs.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization and cloud computing:

“Containers package applications and their dependencies, making them ideal for running microservices efficiently and independently.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud and Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To answer this question, we need to identify the port numbers associated with email protocols used in client-server communication.

Port 25 (SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):

This port is primarily used for sending emails between mail servers and from mail clients to mail servers (sending outbound mail).

SMTP is an essential protocol for email traffic.

A container is the ideal environment for software testing when access to the underlying operating system must be restricted. CompTIA A+ explains that containers isolate applications from the host OS by packaging the app and all its dependencies into a controlled environment. This prevents the application from modifying or interfering with the host system and ensures predictable, consistent behavior across environments.

Unlike virtual machines, containers do not include a full OS installation; they share the host OS kernel but run in isolated user-space environments. This makes them lightweight, fast to deploy, and secure—perfect for developers testing new or potentially unstable applications.

A Type 2 hypervisor hosts full virtual machines but does not inherently limit OS access. A VDI provides remote desktops but is not designed for controlled application testing. A quarantined PC is used for isolating infected or suspicious systems, not structured development testing.

Thus, containers provide the controlled, restricted environment required.

Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible issues and solutions:

1. PC 1

Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses 192.168.1.1).

Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.

2. PC 2

Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.

Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.

3. Server 1

Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.

Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1, you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.

4. Server 2

Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.

Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.

General Remediation:

The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access shared resources.

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Wall Outlet

(empty — nothing goes directly to the wall)

Surge Protector (Power Source: Wall Outlet)

Printer

Scanner

UPS (Power Source: Surge Protector)

Computer

Monitor

Cable Modem

Wi-Fi Router

correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed" CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer sothe user probably took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/

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Answer of both steps below.

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Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.

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Part 2

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The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.

Recommended Replacement Drive:

To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:

SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).

Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.

In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.

A user reports poor performance on the

application server.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review

the information presented in each chart to

determine which drives need to be replaced.

Select the appropriate replacement drive

that should be used, for the least

performance degradation to the server.

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Packet loss

Plug an Ethernet cable into the workstation

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solution as

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