220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Questions and Answers

1st CLI Resolution

copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS, which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x)

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x) and a valid gateway/DNS.

The correct answer is D. Chain of custody process, because chain of custody ensures that evidence collected during an incident response is tracked, preserved, and legally defensible. It documents who collected the evidence, when it was collected, how it was stored, and who accessed it throughout the investigation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, chain of custody is essential when evidence may be used in disciplinary actions, audits, or legal proceedings. Any gap in documentation can render evidence inadmissible.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that chain of custody provides accountability and prevents claims of evidence tampering. Each transfer of evidence must be logged and verified.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that while order of volatility determines the sequence of data collection, it does not track ownership or handling. Data integrity best practices ensure evidence is not altered, but they do not provide a record of custody.

Because the question focuses on handling and accountability, the required process is chain of custody, making D the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Thepowercfg commandis a built-in utility for controlling power settings including hibernation. It can be used in scripts and does not require domain access.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“The powercfg command provides granular control of power settings, useful for scripting and configuring systems without Group Policy access.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

VPN clients often create virtual network adapters. If the software wasn't uninstalled properly or crashed during install, leftover (often hidden) virtual adapters can prevent reinstallation. The proper solution is to delete hidden network adapters using Device Manager (with “Show hidden devices” enabled).

A. OS updates won’t fix a leftover driver or adapter issue.

B. Mapping an adapter to the software is not a standard or viable solution.

C. Firmware updates apply to physical adapters, not virtual VPN adapters.

The most likely cause of repeated application installation failures on a work-issued laptop is an incorrectly configured Access Control List (ACL). In corporate environments, security policies are designed to limit what standard users can install in order to reduce malware risk, maintain compliance, and ensure system stability. These restrictions are enforced through NTFS permissions, ACLs, and Group Policy settings.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, ACLs define which users or groups have permission to read, write, modify, or execute files and directories. If a user does not have sufficient permissions to write to protected locations such as C:\Program Files, system folders, or specific registry keys, software installers will fail—even if the installer itself is legitimate and intact.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that many organizations intentionally restrict installation privileges to administrators only. This prevents users from installing unauthorized or potentially harmful software. When ACLs are misconfigured or intentionally restrictive, installation attempts may fail repeatedly without clearly stating that permissions are the root cause.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that issues like a full browser cache or slow internet speeds typically affect downloads, not the execution of installers. An unformatted hard drive would prevent the operating system from functioning at all, making it irrelevant in this scenario.

Therefore, the repeated installation failure on a work laptop is best explained by incorrectly configured ACLs, making C the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), because RDP is the default remote access technology for Windows servers. It allows technicians to remotely connect to the graphical desktop environment of a Windows server to verify services, logs, and system status.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, RDP is built into Windows operating systems and is commonly used by administrators to manage Windows servers and workstations. It provides full access to the desktop, making it ideal for checking whether services such as IIS (Internet Information Services) are running properly.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that while SSH is commonly used for Linux and network devices, Windows servers typically rely on RDP for administrative access. VNC is a third-party remote desktop solution and is not enabled by default on Windows systems.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that SPICE is primarily used in virtualized environments and is not a standard Windows remote access tool.

Because the technician needs to verify a Windows web server’s operational status using a built-in method, RDP is the most appropriate and likely technology, making C the correct answer.

The most likely cause of repeated application installation failures on a work-issued laptop is an incorrectly configured Access Control List (ACL). In corporate environments, security policies are designed to limit what standard users can install in order to reduce malware risk, maintain compliance, and ensure system stability. These restrictions are enforced through NTFS permissions, ACLs, and Group Policy settings.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, ACLs define which users or groups have permission to read, write, modify, or execute files and directories. If a user does not have sufficient permissions to write to protected locations such as C:\Program Files, system folders, or specific registry keys, software installers will fail—even if the installer itself is legitimate and intact.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that many organizations intentionally restrict installation privileges to administrators only. This prevents users from installing unauthorized or potentially harmful software. When ACLs are misconfigured or intentionally restrictive, installation attempts may fail repeatedly without clearly stating that permissions are the root cause.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that issues like a full browser cache or slow internet speeds typically affect downloads, not the execution of installers. An unformatted hard drive would prevent the operating system from functioning at all, making it irrelevant in this scenario.

Therefore, the repeated installation failure on a work laptop is best explained by incorrectly configured ACLs, making C the correct answer.

SSH (Secure Shell) allows encrypted console sessions to access and administer remote servers.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“Secure Shell (SSH) provides an encrypted console session to manage Linux, UNIX, or network devices securely over TCP port 22.” .

The correct answer is C. SSH (Secure Shell), because SSH is the standard method for secure, command-line-based remote management of network devices, including switches, routers, and firewalls. Network switches typically do not provide graphical interfaces, and administrators interact with them using a command-line interface (CLI).

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSH is widely used to securely access and manage network infrastructure devices. It encrypts all communication between the technician’s system and the remote device, protecting credentials and command output from interception.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SSH allows administrators to execute commands remotely and capture text-based output, which can easily be copied and shared for documentation or escalation. This makes it ideal for fulfilling requests that involve running commands and returning results.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that RDP and VNC are graphical desktop-sharing tools typically used for managing workstations or servers, not network switches. WinRM is used for Windows system management, not network hardware.

Because the task involves secure CLI access to a network switch, SSH is the correct and expected tool, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)guide technicians through consistent and complete processes, including documentation.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“SOPs ensure that all required steps—such as data collection and issue description—are followed in every support interaction.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Windows Helloallows biometric and PIN-based login, which are easier and more user-friendly than passwords.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Windows Hello supports biometric authentication and PINs, providing easier and secure access especially for users who have trouble remembering passwords.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows workstations to boot over the network and download an OS image from a server. It is ideal for automating mass deployments using baseline images across many machines without the need for physical media.

A. An ISO is a disk image file but requires mounting or physical media.

B. Secure Boot is a security feature, not a method of deploying OS images.

C. USB requires manual installation and is not suitable for automated deployment at scale.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Cloud-based software often enforcesdevice limitsper license. Before reinstallation or switching software, checking license allocations is the most logical first step.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Many cloud apps enforce user or device count restrictions. When an install fails, check licensing before troubleshooting other areas.”

The correct answer is D. Enabling HTTPS-Only Mode, because HTTPS ensures that all communication between the browser and websites is encrypted using TLS (Transport Layer Security). This protects sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and payment details from interception.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, HTTPS encrypts data in transit, preventing attackers from eavesdropping or modifying communications. HTTPS-only modes in modern browsers block or warn users when a site does not support secure connections.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that HTTPS is essential for protecting authentication credentials and financial information, especially on public or untrusted networks. Enforcing HTTPS-only connections ensures users cannot accidentally submit data over unencrypted HTTP.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that disabling cookies or JavaScript may break website functionality but does not guarantee encryption. Pop-up blockers address nuisance behavior, not data security.

Because the objective is to encrypt browser communications and protect sensitive data, enabling HTTPS-Only Mode is the most effective and direct solution, making D the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

NET Framework versions are often required for applications to run. If an older app requires .NET Framework 3.5, it must be explicitly installed as it is not included by default in newer versions of Windows. The best method to do this safely is through the built-in "Turn Windows features on or off" utility, which downloads and installs it via official Microsoft services.

B. Using third-party repositories is unsafe and not recommended.

C. Installing .NET 4 does not include 3.5; versions are not fully backward compatible.

D. The issue is technical, not a security incident for the SOC team.

The correct answer is C. DDoS (Distributed Denial-of-Service), because the attack involves thousands of compromised machines, commonly referred to as a botnet, generating fraudulent traffic against an online service. Although the activity includes fake purchases, the scale and distributed nature indicate an attempt to overwhelm or disrupt the service.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, DDoS attacks use multiple systems to flood a target with traffic, exhausting server resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing the service. These attacks often involve compromised devices controlled remotely.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that DDoS attacks can take many forms, including HTTP request floods and application-layer attacks that mimic legitimate user actions, such as fake transactions.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that brute-force attacks focus on credential guessing, spoofing involves identity falsification, and SQL injection targets database queries. None of those specifically require thousands of compromised machines.

Because the defining characteristics here are scale, distribution, and coordinated malicious activity, the correct classification is a DDoS attack, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The Linux machine likely formatted the drive in a file system like ext4, which Windows cannot natively read. Reformatting the drive toexFATallows cross-platform compatibility.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When migrating data between OSes, using a file system like exFAT ensures compatibility. Windows cannot read Linux-native file systems such as ext4 without third-party tools.”

The correct answer is B. The SATA HDD power cable is disconnected, because RAM upgrades require opening the case, which can easily result in accidentally loosening or disconnecting internal cables. If the system cannot detect the boot drive, it will display a “No boot device found” error.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, one of the first troubleshooting steps after hardware changes is to verify that all internal cables—especially SATA data and power cables—are securely connected. A disconnected drive will not be detected by the BIOS or UEFI firmware.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that boot order changes are less likely unless the technician explicitly modified BIOS settings. Similarly, reformatting a drive would not occur during a RAM upgrade.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that physical connection issues are among the most common causes of boot failures following hardware maintenance. A disconnected power cable prevents the hard drive from spinning up, making it invisible to the system.

Because the issue appeared immediately after opening the case for a RAM upgrade, the most likely cause is a disconnected SATA power cable, making B the correct answer.

The correct answers are D. Use PIN authentication and F. Enable screen timeout, because both controls directly protect a mobile device from unauthorized physical access. Physical access controls are designed to prevent someone from using a device if it is lost, stolen, or left unattended.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, mobile device security begins with lock-screen controls, such as PINs, passwords, biometrics, and automatic locking mechanisms. A PIN authentication requirement ensures that even if an attacker physically possesses the device, they cannot access its contents without the correct credentials.

The guide further explains that screen timeout (automatic locking after inactivity) is a critical security feature. Without it, a device left unattended—even briefly—could be accessed by unauthorized individuals. Enabling a short timeout greatly reduces this risk.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide reinforces that VPNs and antivirus software protect data in transit and against malware, not physical access. Likewise, disabling hotspots and enabling location services are management or tracking features, not access prevention mechanisms.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual emphasizes that physical security controls focus on preventing interaction with the device itself, making PIN authentication and automatic screen locking the most effective measures.

Therefore, D and F are the correct answers.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier—often a steel or concrete post—designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.

A. PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.

B. Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn’t physically prevent entry.

C. Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.

The correct answer is D. cp, which is a core Linux command used to copy files and directories. File management in Linux is performed primarily through command-line utilities, and cp is one of the most fundamental commands for this purpose.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Linux administrators frequently use commands such as cp, mv, rm, and ls to manage files. The cp command allows users to copy files between directories or locations and supports options for recursive copying and permission preservation.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide highlights that Linux file management commands differ significantly from Windows equivalents. While Windows uses robocopy and xcopy, Linux relies on simpler, built-in commands like cp.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further explains that curl is used for transferring data over network protocols, not for managing local files. Commands such as robocopy and xcopy are Windows-specific and not available in standard Linux environments.

Because the question asks specifically about managing files in Linux, and cp is a native Linux file-management command, D is the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. Windows Server 2022, because Windows Server editions are specifically designed to run server workloads, such as file services, Active Directory, DNS, DHCP, virtualization, and application hosting.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Windows Server operating systems differ significantly from desktop versions. They support server roles, higher hardware limits, and enterprise features not available in client editions.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Windows 10 Enterprise and Windows 11 Pro are client operating systems intended for end-user workstations. While they can connect to servers, they are not designed to function as servers themselves.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that version identifiers like 22H2 represent feature updates for Windows client operating systems, not standalone server products.

Because the question asks which version would most likely be installed on a server, the correct choice is Windows Server 2022, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Windows Helloallows biometric and PIN-based login, which are easier and more user-friendly than passwords.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Windows Hello supports biometric authentication and PINs, providing easier and secure access especially for users who have trouble remembering passwords.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When a technician exhausts all troubleshooting steps within their knowledge and the issue remains unresolved, the best practice is to escalate the issue to a higher-level technician or team. Additionally, the technician should clearly communicate the next steps to the customer to maintain transparency and reduce frustration. This ensures continuity of support and upholds customer satisfaction.

B. Dismissing the customer is unprofessional and violates proper customer service protocols.

C. Interrupting the customer and providing excuses escalates the tension and is inappropriate.

D. Continuing to ask questions without new troubleshooting steps wastes time and increases frustration.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

For persistent printing issues due to spooler service, ensure theprint spooler is started and set to Automatic. This maintains print capability across reboots.

FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“If users lose printing capabilities on reboot, the print spooler service must be configured to start automatically and be confirmed as running.”

The correct answer is A. Check for malicious applications, because excessive data usage, device overheating, and rapid battery drain are classic indicators of mobile malware or spyware running in the background.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, malicious applications can continuously transmit data, mine cryptocurrency, or monitor user activity, all of which cause increased network usage and battery consumption—even when the device appears idle.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that the first step in mobile troubleshooting is identifying whether unauthorized or malicious apps are present. Reviewing installed applications and running a mobile security scan can quickly confirm the root cause.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual explains that disabling networks or enabling airplane mode only masks symptoms temporarily and does not remove malware. Factory resets are effective but should be used after confirming malware or if other remediation steps fail.

Because the symptoms strongly suggest malicious background activity, the most appropriate first action is to check for malicious applications, making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If uploading fails only offsite,mobile data limits or restrictionsare the likely cause. Data caps or network management can interfere with uploads.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“When mobile users experience network issues, always check if the device has reached a data cap or roaming restriction.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In a domain environment, printers are typically deployed via a print server. Users can browse available printers on the server and install them directly.

All-in-One Exam Guidementions:

“In a corporate domain, printers are managed via a centralized print server. Users can select the desired printer from the server’s shared list.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Shreddingphysically destroys the platters, making data recovery virtually impossible. It's more effective and accessible than degaussing or low-level formatting.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Physical destruction methods like shredding are the most secure options for ensuring data on failed drives cannot be recovered.”

Hash values(like SHA256) are published by vendors to verify file integrity. A match confirms the file hasn’t been tampered with.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use hash values to ensure downloaded software matches the vendor’s published version and hasn't been modified.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions, Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.

A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.

B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.

C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), now commonly referred to as SDS (Safety Data Sheet), is a document that provides detailed information on the properties of a particular substance. It includes safety guidelines and emergency procedures related to handling, exposure, fire hazards, and first aid—not installation or configuration instructions.

For a battery backup (UPS device), the MSDS would include emergency procedures such as what to do in case of a chemical spill, exposure to battery acid, or fire hazard due to overheating or chemical leakage. This ensures the safety of personnel and complies with hazardous materials handling regulations.