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250-580 Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

Options:

A.

Enable port scan detection

B.

Automatically block an attacker's IP address

C.

Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops

D.

Enable denial of service detection

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Questions 5

When can an administrator add a new replication partner?

Options:

A.

Immediately following the first LiveUpdate session of the new site

B.

During a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager upgrade

C.

During the initial installation of the new site

D.

Immediately following a successful Active Directory sync

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Questions 6

What type of Threat Defense for Active Directory alarms are displayed after domain misconfigurations or hidden backdoors are detected?

Options:

A.

Computer Information Gathering

B.

Pass-The-Ticket

C.

Credential Theft

D.

Dark Corners

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Questions 7

Which report template type should an administrator utilize to create a daily summary of network threats detected?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention Report

B.

Blocked Threats Report

C.

Network Risk Report

D.

Access Violation Report

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Questions 8

An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment. What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

System Lockdown

C.

Application Control

D.

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

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Questions 9

An administrator needs to identify infected computers that require a restart to finish remediation of a threat. What steps in the SEPM should an administrator perform to identify and restart the systems?

Options:

A.

View the Computer Status log to determine if any computers require a restart. Run a command from the Risk log to restart computers.

B.

View the SONAR log to determine if any computers require a restart. Run a command from the Computer Status log to restart computers.

C.

View the Computer Status log to determine if any computers require a restart. Run a command from the SONAR log to restart computers.

D.

View the Computer Status log to determine if any computers require a restart. Run a command from the Attack log to restart computers.

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Questions 10

Which two (2) considerations must an administrator make when enabling Application Learning in an environment? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

Application Learning can generate increased false positives.

B.

Application Learning should be deployed on a small group of systems in the enterprise.

C.

Application Learning can generate significant CPU or memory use on a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.

D.

Application Learning requires a file fingerprint list to be created in advance.

E.

E . Application Learning is dependent on Insight.

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Questions 11

Which IPS signature type is primarily used to identify specific unwanted network traffic?

Options:

A.

Attack

B.

Audit

C.

Malcode

D.

Probe

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Questions 12

Which communication method is utilized within SES to achieve real-time management?

Options:

A.

Long polling

B.

Standard polling

C.

Push Notification

D.

Heartbeat

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Questions 13

Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

Options:

A.

Push Enrollment

B.

Auto Discovery

C.

Push Discovery

D.

Device Enrollment

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Questions 14

Which of the following is a benefit of choosing a hybrid SES Complete architecture?

Options:

A.

The ability to use the cloud EDR functionality

B.

The ability to manage legacy clients running an embedded OS

C.

The ability to manage Active Directory group structure without Azure

D.

The ability to use Adaptive Protection features

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Questions 15

Why is it important for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the SEDR file store or create an image of the infected system during the Recovery phase?

Options:

A.

To create custom IPS signatures

B.

To test the effectiveness of the current assigned policy settings in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM)

C.

To have a copy of the file for policy enforcement

D.

To document and preserve any pieces of evidence associated with the incident

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Questions 16

From which source can an administrator retrieve the SESC Network Integrity agent for a Windows 10 S mode endpoint?

Options:

A.

SESC Installation files

B.

MDM distribution

C.

Microsoft Store

D.

ICDm package

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Questions 17

What is a feature of Cynic?

Options:

A.

Local Sandboxing

B.

Forwarding event data to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

C.

Cloud Sandboxing

D.

Customizable OS Images

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Questions 18

Why is it important for an Incident Responder to search for suspicious registry and system file changes when threat hunting?

Options:

A.

Attackers can establish persistence within an infected host

B.

Attackers can trick users into giving up their enterprise credentials

C.

Attackers may shadow valid sessions and inject hidden actions

D.

Attackers may cause unusual DNS requests

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Questions 19

Files are blocked by hash in the deny list policy. Which algorithm is supported, in addition to MD5?

Options:

A.

SHA2

B.

SHA256

C.

SHA256 "salted"

D.

MD5 "Salted"

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Questions 20

What are the two (2) locations where an Incident Responder should gather data for an After Actions Report in SEDR? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Incident Manager

B.

Policies

C.

Syslog

D.

Action Manager

E.

Endpoint Search

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Questions 21

Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?

Options:

A.

opportunistic attack

B.

file-less attack

C.

script kiddies

D.

living off the land

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Questions 22

Which action can an administrator take to improve the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) dashboard performance and report accuracy?

Options:

A.

Decreasing the number of content revisions to keep

B.

Lowering the client installation log entries

C.

Rebuilding database indexes

D.

Limiting the number of backups to keep

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Questions 23

What feature is used to get a comprehensive picture of infected endpoint activity?

Options:

A.

Entity View

B.

Process View

C.

Full Dump

D.

Endpoint Dump

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Questions 24

Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)

Options:

A.

Sensitivity

B.

Prevalence

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Content

E.

Age

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Questions 25

An organization is considering a single site for their Symantec Endpoint Protection environment. What are two (2) reasons that the organization should consider? (Select two)

Options:

A.

Organizational merger

B.

Sufficient WAN bandwidth

C.

Delay-free, centralized reporting

D.

24x7 admin availability

E.

E . Legal constraints

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Questions 26

Which SES advanced feature detects malware by consulting a training model composed of known good and known bad files?

Options:

A.

Signatures

B.

Reputation

C.

Artificial Intelligence

D.

Advanced Machine Learning

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Questions 27

A company allows users to create firewall rules. During the course of business, users are accidentally adding rules that block a custom internal application.

Which steps should the Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator take to prevent users from blocking the custom application?

Options:

A.

Create an Allow Firewall rule for the application and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules below the blue line

B.

Create an Allow Firewall rule for the application and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules above the blue line

C.

Create an Allow All Firewall rule for the fingerprint of the file and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules above the blue line

D.

Create an Allow for the network adapter type used by the application and place it at the top of the firewall rules below the blue line

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Questions 28

Which Incident View widget shows the parent-child relationship of related security events?

Options:

A.

The Incident Summary Widget

B.

The Process Lineage Widget

C.

The Events Widget

D.

The Incident Graph Widget

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Questions 29

Which action does SONAR take before convicting a process?

Options:

A.

Quarantines the process

B.

Blocks suspicious behavior

C.

Restarts the system

D.

Checks the reputation of the process

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Questions 30

Which SES feature helps to ensure that devices are compliant with a company's security standards?

Options:

A.

Host Integrity

B.

Intensive Protection

C.

Trusted Updater

D.

Adaptive Protection

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Questions 31

Which statement demonstrates how Symantec EDR hunts and detects IoCs in the environment?

Options:

A.

Searching the EDR database and multiple data sources directly

B.

Viewing PowerShell processes

C.

Detecting Memory Exploits in conjunction with SEP

D.

Detonating suspicious files using cloud-based or on-premises sandboxing

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Questions 32

What priority would an incident that may have an impact on business be considered?

Options:

A.

Low

B.

Critical

C.

High

D.

Medium

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Questions 33

On which platform is LiveShell available?

Options:

A.

Windows

B.

All

C.

Linux

D.

Mac

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Questions 34

Administrators at a company share a single terminal for configuring Symantec Endpoint Protection. The administrators want to ensure that each administrator using the console is forced to authenticate using their individual credentials. They are concerned that administrators may forget to log off the terminal, which would easily allow others to gain access to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console.

Which setting should the administrator disable to minimize the risk of non-authorized users logging into the SEPM console?

Options:

A.

Allow users to save credentials when logging on

B.

Delete clients that have not connected for specified time

C.

Lock account after the specified number of unsuccessful logon attempts

D.

Allow administrators to reset passwords

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Questions 35

Which type of security threat continues to threaten endpoint security after a system reboot?

Options:

A.

file-less

B.

memory attack

C.

script

D.

Rootkit

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Questions 36

An organization has several Symantec Endpoint Protection Management (SEPM) Servers without access to the internet. The SEPM can only run LiveUpdate within a specified "maintenance window" outside of business hours.

What content distribution method should the organization utilize?

Options:

A.

JDB file

B.

External LiveUpdate

C.

Internal LiveUpdate

D.

Group Update Provider

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Questions 37

What is the function of Symantec Insight?

Options:

A.

Provides reputation ratings for structured data

B.

Enhances the capability of Group Update Providers (GUP)

C.

Increases the efficiency and effectiveness of LiveUpdate

D.

Provides reputation ratings for binary executables

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Questions 38

What does the Endpoint Communication Channel (ECC) 2.0 allow Symantec EDR to directly connect to?

Options:

A.

SEDR Cloud Console

B.

Synapse

C.

SEP Endpoints

D.

SEPM

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Questions 39

Which client log shows that a client is downloading content from its designated source?

Options:

A.

Risk Log

B.

System Log

C.

SesmLu.log

D.

Log.LiveUpdate

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Questions 40

How does an administrator view all devices impacted by a suspicious file?

Options:

A.

From the Alerts and Events list, select Files; then, from the file list, select Devices.

B.

From the Discovered Items list, select Devices.

C.

From the Discovered Items list, select the file; then, from the Details page, select Devices.

D.

From the Alerts and Event list, select Device.

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Questions 41

When a re events generated within SEDR ?

Options:

A.

When an incident is selected

B.

When an activity occurs

C.

When any event is opened

D.

When entities are viewed

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Questions 42

What is the difference between running Device Control for a Mac versus Windows?

Options:

A.

Mac Device Control runs at the driver level. It enforces control only on Apple supported devices.

B.

Mac Device Control runs at the volume level. It enforces control only on storage devices. O C. Mac Device Control runs at the kernel level. It enforces control only on built-in devices.

C.

Mac Device Control runs at the user level. It enforces control only on iCIoud storage.

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Questions 43

Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."

Options:

A.

Level 6

B.

Level 5

C.

Level 2

D.

Level 1

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Questions 44

What does a medium-priority incident indicate?

Options:

A.

The incident may have an impact on the business

B.

The incident can result in a business outage

C.

The incident does not affect critical business operation

D.

The incident can safely be ignored

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Questions 45

Which SES feature helps administrators apply policies based on specific endpoint profiles?

Options:

A.

Policy Bundles

B.

Device Profiles

C.

Policy Groups

D.

Device Groups

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Exam Code: 250-580
Exam Name: Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist
Last Update: May 19, 2026
Questions: 150

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