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Free Practice Questions for the Cisco CyberOps Professional 300-215 Exam (2026 Updated)

At Marks4sure, we are dedicated to providing IT professionals with the most accurate and reliable preparation materials for the Cisco 300-215 exam. To support your certification journey, we have made a selection of our premium 2026 CyberOps Professional practice questions and answers available completely free. You can take this practice test as many times as you need. Every question includes a detailed, expertly verified explanation to ensure you fully grasp the core security concepts before test day.

Questions 4

Several previously unseen executable files are detected on an international bank’s transaction servers after an overnight batch-processing update. The executables make covert outbound connections to a server in a jurisdiction known for harboring threat actors. Their creation time also coincides with a network-intrusion attempt that the SOC initially classified as unsuccessful. The IT engineer has collected the observations and available data. Which set of actions should occur next?

Options:

A.

Quarantine the transaction servers, reverse-engineer the executables, and analyze network traffic for data exfiltration.

B.

Escalate the matter to the incident-response team, compare the evidence with system baselines, and investigate the source of the intrusion attempt.

C.

Suspend batch processing, examine network logs for anomalies, and collaborate with financial-sector cyber-intelligence units for a threat assessment.

D.

Lock down the transaction servers, verify the integrity of recent batch updates, and trace the outbound connections.

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Questions 5

An organization publishes a Microsoft Exchange Outlook Web App (OWA) server to provide access to enterprise email and deploys a web application firewall in front of it. Microsoft announces a newly discovered zero-day vulnerability that is being actively exploited. The vulnerability is triggered by a specially crafted request to an uncommonly used URL, and a patch is still being developed. Which action immediately protects the organization?

Options:

A.

Install the patch for the vulnerability as soon as it becomes available.

B.

Use the web application firewall to block access to the exploited URL.

C.

Deploy a custom IDS signature to detect successful exploitation of the vulnerability.

D.

Use a stateful firewall to disable access to OWA ports.

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Questions 6

Which information is provided about the object file by the “-h” option in the objdump line command objdump –b oasys –m vax –h fu.o?

Options:

A.

bfdname

B.

debugging

C.

help

D.

headers

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Questions 7

During a routine security audit, an organization ' s security team detects an unusual spike in network traffic originating from one of their internal servers. Upon further investigation, the team discovered that the server was communicating with an external IP address known for hosting malicious content. The security team suspects that the server may have been compromised. As the incident response process begins, which two actions should be taken during the initial assessment phase of this incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Notify law enforcement agencies about the incident.

B.

Disconnect the compromised server from the network.

C.

Conduct a comprehensive forensic analysis of the server hard drive.

D.

Interview employees who have access to the server.

E.

Review the organization ' s network logs for any signs of intrusion.

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Questions 8

A security team receives a SIEM notification that Cisco Secure Network Analytics detects abnormally high uploads from an internal workstation to external IP addresses over UDP port 53. Investigation confirms that the addresses are known malicious command-and-control servers. Which two actions effectively block these connections and prevent similar incidents? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Add the malicious sources to the blacklist.

B.

Deploy an anti-malware solution on the next-generation firewall.

C.

Configure firewall Security Intelligence to block command-and-control traffic.

D.

Block all UDP port 53 connections from the company network to the Internet.

E.

Allow DNS traffic only to trusted destinations.

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Questions 9

Which tool is used for reverse engineering malware?

Options:

A.

Ghidra

B.

SNORT

C.

Wireshark

D.

NMAP

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Questions 10

An incident response analyst is preparing to scan memory using a YARA rule. How is this task completed?

Options:

A.

deobfuscation

B.

XML injection

C.

string matching

D.

data diddling

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Questions 11

A company had a recent data leak incident. A security engineer investigating the incident discovered that a malicious link was accessed by multiple employees. Further investigation revealed targeted phishing attack attempts on macOS systems, which led to backdoor installations and data compromise. Which two security solutions should a security engineer recommend to mitigate similar attacks in the future? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

endpoint detection and response

B.

secure email gateway

C.

data loss prevention

D.

intrusion prevention system

E.

web application firewall

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Questions 12

Which scripts will search a log file for the IP address of 192.168.100.100 and create an output file named parsed_host.log while printing results to the console?

300-215 Question 12

300-215 Question 12

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 13

Customers cannot access a company’s internal Apache web server. A security engineer investigates and determines that, several hours earlier, there were multiple failed SSH authentication attempts for the root account. After a successful login, the root user executed the sudo apt purge apache2 command. Which two Indicators of Attack can be determined from this information? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Privilege escalation

B.

Unauthorized system modification

C.

Malware outbreak

D.

Compromised user access

E.

DDoS attack

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Questions 14

What is the purpose of YARA rules in malware analysis and now do the rules atd in identifying, classifying, and documenting malware?

Options:

A.

They automatically remove malware from an infected system while documenting the behavior of the APT

B.

They encrypt identified malware on a system to prevent execution of files with the same classification

C.

They create a backup of identified malware and classify it according to its origin and source

D.

They use specific static patterns and attributes to identify and classify matware, characterizing its nature

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit.

300-215 Question 15

An employee notices unexpected changes and setting modifications on their workstation and creates an incident ticket. A support specialist checks processes and services but does not identify anything suspicious. The ticket was escalated to an analyst who reviewed this event log and also discovered that the workstation had multiple large data dumps on network shares. What should be determined from this information?

Options:

A.

data obfuscation

B.

reconnaissance attack

C.

brute-force attack

D.

log tampering

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Questions 16

A data breach was recently experienced in which sensitive customer information was exfiltrated by an insider. After the incident was contained and affected customers were notified, a post-incident analysis was conducted to identify the root cause of the breach and develop recommendations to prevent similar incidents in the future. Which action should an engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

Conduct a penetration test of the network and systems to identify potential vulnerabilities and recommend mitigations.

B.

Update antivirus software and conduct a full system scan on all devices connected to the organization’s network.

C.

Require all employees to change their passwords and enforce a stronger password policy with rotation.

D.

Implement DLP software to monitor and control the flow of sensitive information across the organization.

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Questions 17

Data has been exfiltrated and advertised for sale on the dark web. A web server shows:

Database unresponsiveness

PageFile.sys changes

Disk usage spikes with CPU spikes

High page faults

Which action should the IR team perform on the server?

Options:

A.

Review the database.log file in the program files directory for database errors

B.

Examine the system.cfg file in the Windows directory for improper system configurations

C.

Analyze the PageFile.sys file in the System Drive and the Virtual Memory configuration

D.

Check the Memory.dmp file in the Windows directory for memory leak indications

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Questions 18

A new zero-day vulnerability is discovered in the web application. Vulnerability does not require physical access and can be exploited remotely. Attackers are exploiting the new vulnerability by submitting a form with malicious content that grants them access to the server. After exploitation, attackers delete the log files to hide traces. Which two actions should the security engineer take next? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Validate input upon submission.

B.

Block connections on port 443.

C.

Install antivirus.

D.

Update web application to the latest version.

E.

Enable file integrity monitoring.

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Questions 19

A cybersecurity analyst detects fileless malware activity on secure endpoints. What should be done next?

Options:

A.

Immediately quarantine the endpoints containing the suspicious files and consider the issue resolved

B.

Isolate the affected endpoints and conduct a detailed memory analysis to identify fileless malware execution.

C.

Delete the suspicious files and monitor the endpoints for any further signs of compromise.

D.

Share the findings with other government agencies for collaborative threat analysis and response.

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Questions 20

Refer to the exhibit.

300-215 Question 20

A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts. The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the engineer assign to this event?

Options:

A.

True Negative alert

B.

False Negative alert

C.

False Positive alert

D.

True Positive alert

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Questions 21

A cybersecurity analyst must identify an unknown service causing high CPU on a Windows server. What tool should be used?

Options:

A.

Volatility to analyze memory dumps for forensic investigation

B.

Process Explorer from the Sysinternals Suite to monitor and examine active processes

C.

TCPdump to capture and analyze network packets

D.

SIFT (SANS Investigative Forensic Toolkit) for comprehensive digital forensics

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Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

300-215 Question 22

What should an engineer determine from this Wireshark capture of suspicious network traffic?

Options:

A.

There are signs of SYN flood attack, and the engineer should increase the backlog and recycle the oldest half-open TCP connections.

B.

There are signs of a malformed packet attack, and the engineer should limit the packet size and set a threshold of bytes as a countermeasure.

C.

There are signs of a DNS attack, and the engineer should hide the BIND version and restrict zone transfers as a countermeasure.

D.

There are signs of ARP spoofing, and the engineer should use Static ARP entries and IP address-to-MAC address mappings as a countermeasure.

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Questions 23

Which challenge is introduced by the dynamic nature of cloud environments during forensic analysis?

Options:

A.

Resources can be rapidly provisioned and deprovisioned, which can lead to the loss of critical forensic evidence.

B.

Data cannot be stored persistently in cloud storage services across distributed infrastructure.

C.

Forensic tools are incompatible with the virtualized infrastructure platforms used in modern cloud deployments.

D.

Investigators cannot obtain any relevant logs from cloud service providers during investigations.

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Questions 24

Which tool should an investigator use to extract information about running processes from RAM?

Options:

A.

Sleuth Kit with Autopsy

B.

Volatility

C.

Linux dd

D.

SANS SIFT

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Questions 25

Refer to the exhibit.

300-215 Question 25

An alert came with a potentially suspicious activity from a machine in HR department. Which two IOCs should the security analyst flag? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

powershell.exe used on HR machine

B.

cmd.exe executing from \Device\HarddiskVolume3\

C.

WScript.exe initiated by powershell.exe

D.

cmd.exe starting powershell.exe with Base64 conversion

E.

WScript.exe acting as a parent of cmd.exe

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Questions 26

A company’s security engineer notices through the SIEM that an employee’s workstation sent several DNS requests involving the external IP address of the suspicious domain a4sn77d8z3dsci9416cov.com. After investigating multiple log sources, the security team determines that the employee downloaded an infected PDF file through a URL in an email. Which two elements must be included in the root cause analysis report? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Malware with a command-and-control callback

B.

DNS requests to the external IP address

C.

Malicious insider

D.

Suspicious domain

E.

Phishing attempt

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Questions 27

A security team received an alert of suspicious activity on a user’s Internet browser. The user’s anti-virus software indicated that the file attempted to create a fake recycle bin folder and connect to an external IP address. Which two actions should be taken by the security analyst with the executable file for further analysis? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Evaluate the process activity in Cisco Umbrella.

B.

Analyze the TCP/IP Streams in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).

C.

Evaluate the behavioral indicators in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).

D.

Analyze the Magic File type in Cisco Umbrella.

E.

Network Exit Localization in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).

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Questions 28

Which two tools conduct network traffic analysis in the absence of a graphical user interface? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Network Extractor

B.

TCPdump

C.

TCPshark

D.

Wireshark

E.

NetworkDebuggerPro

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Questions 29

An investigator notices that GRE packets are going undetected over the public network. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

tunneling

C.

decryption

D.

steganography

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Questions 30

An attacker embedded a macro within a word processing file opened by a user in an organization’s legal department. The attacker used this technique to gain access to confidential financial data. Which two recommendations should a security expert make to mitigate this type of attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

controlled folder access

B.

removable device restrictions

C.

signed macro requirements

D.

firewall rules creation

E.

network access control

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Questions 31

An investigator is analyzing an attack in which malicious files were loaded on the network and were undetected. Several of the images received during the attack include repetitive patterns. Which anti-forensic technique was used?

Options:

A.

spoofing

B.

obfuscation

C.

tunneling

D.

steganography

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Questions 32

An attacker modifies a malicious file named TOPSECRET0523619132 by changing its file extension from a .png to a doc in an attempt to evade detection. Which technique is being used to disguise the file?

Options:

A.

steganography

B.

obfuscatiofi

C.

spoofing

D.

hashing

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Questions 33

300-215 Question 33

Options:

A.

VBScript

B.

Python

C.

Bash

D.

shell

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Questions 34

Which technique exemplifies an antiforensic technique?

Options:

A.

steganalysis

B.

data replication

C.

stepheorology

D.

steganography

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Questions 35

Refer to the exhibit.

import requests

def check_status(url):

response = requests.get(url)

return response.status_code

In which programming language is the code written, and what is it trying to accomplish?

Options:

A.

C++; data-parsing tool

B.

JavaScript; content-management system

C.

Ruby; file-download utility

D.

Python; website-uptime monitor

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Questions 36

What is the transmogrify anti-forensics technique?

Options:

A.

hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file

B.

sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation

C.

concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places

D.

changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type

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Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

300-215 Question 37

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

The request was redirected.

B.

WAF detected code injection.

C.

An attacker attempted SQL injection.

D.

The requested page was not found.

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Questions 38

A security team needs to prevent a remote code execution vulnerability. The vulnerability can be exploited only by sending ' ${ string in the HTTP request. WAF rule is blocking ' ${ ' , but system engineers detect that attackers are executing commands on the host anyway. Which action should the security team recommend?

Options:

A.

Enable URL decoding on WAF.

B.

Block incoming web traffic.

C.

Add two WAF rules to block ' S ' and ' { ' characters separately.

D.

Deploy antimalware solution.

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Questions 39

An EDR solution reports that a suspicious process dropped a malicious file on endpoint DE23X5940P. Sandbox analysis shows that the malware propagates through SMB and communicates through an encrypted command-and-control channel. A business-critical solution also depends on SMB. Which action should the security analyst take to respond to the incident and mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Isolate the machine and block the command-and-control IP address.

B.

Disable SMB communications on all networks.

C.

Deploy an SSL-inspection solution and remove the malware.

D.

Reimage the machine and reset the user’s credentials.

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Questions 40

Refer to the exhibit.

300-215 Question 40

An engineer received a ticket to analyze a recent breach on a company blog. Every time users visit the blog, they are greeted with a message box. The blog allows users to register, log in, create, and provide comments on various topics. Due to the legacy build of the application, it stores user information in the outdated MySQL database. What is the recommended action that an engineer should take?

Options:

A.

Validate input on arrival as strictly as possible.

B.

Implement TLS 1.3 for external communications.

C.

Match the web server software for the front-end and back-end servers.

D.

Upgrade the MySQL database.

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Questions 41

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the order to perform forensics analysis of infrastructure networks on the right.

300-215 Question 41

Options:

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Questions 42

What describes the first step in performing a forensic analysis of infrastructure network devices?

Options:

A.

immediately disconnecting the device from the network

B.

initiating an immediate full system scan

C.

resetting the device to factory settings and analyzing the difference

D.

producing an accurate, forensic-grade duplicate of the device ' s data

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Questions 43

A SOC team identifies the presence of APT29. The threat actor gained access to the environment through a phishing email sent to the communications manager one year earlier. APT29 is also known to exploit vulnerabilities remotely to gain access to victims’ systems. The SOC team takes the necessary actions and removes the backdoor. What is the next recommended step to protect the environment?

Options:

A.

Run an antimalware scan on all devices.

B.

Deploy a cyber threat intelligence solution.

C.

Share a detailed incident report with senior management.

D.

Deploy an email sandbox solution.

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Questions 44

A security team received reports of users receiving emails linked to external or unknown URLs that are non-returnable and non-deliverable. The ISP also reported a 500% increase in the amount of ingress and egress email traffic received. After detecting the problem, the security team moves to the recovery phase in their incident response plan. Which two actions should be taken in the recovery phase of this incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

verify the breadth of the attack

B.

collect logs

C.

request packet capture

D.

remove vulnerabilities

E.

scan hosts with updated signatures

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Questions 45

An enterprise security analyst is investigating a potential breach. Internal logs show repeated login failures from an internal IP address, followed by a successful login during the early morning when no staff should be active. External threat intelligence associates the IP range with a known malicious actor. Which action correctly interprets the threat-intelligence data and determines IOCs and IOAs?

Options:

A.

Focus on internal log data while considering external threat feeds only for broader context.

B.

Treat the login failures as a potential system error because a successful login eventually occurred.

C.

Compare the successful login’s IP address with known malicious IP ranges and analyze the account’s subsequent actions.

D.

Monitor the internal IP address for additional login attempts before investigating further.

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Questions 46

Which issue is related to gathering evidence from cloud vendors?

Options:

A.

Deleted data cannot be recovered in cloud services.

B.

There is limited access to physical media.

C.

Forensics tools do not apply on cloud services.

D.

The chain of custody does not apply on cloud services.

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Questions 47

Refer to the exhibit.300-215 Question 47

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Obfuscated scripts are getting executed on the victim machine.

B.

Malware is modifying the registry keys.

C.

RDP is used to move laterally to systems within the victim environment.

D.

The threat actor creates persistence by creating a repeatable task.

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Questions 48

A network host is infected with malware by an attacker who uses the host to make calls for files and shuttle traffic to bots. This attack went undetected and resulted in a significant loss. The organization wants to ensure this does not happen in the future and needs a security solution that will generate alerts when command and control communication from an infected device is detected. Which network security solution should be recommended?

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Firewall ASA

B.

Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (Firepower)

C.

Cisco Secure Email Gateway (ESA)

D.

Cisco Secure Web Appliance (WSA)

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Questions 49

What is the primary role of hex editors such as HxD in digital forensics and incident-response investigations?

Options:

A.

To examine and manipulate binary data and file structures.

B.

To oversee the flow of network data and recognize unauthorized intrusion attempts.

C.

To run potentially harmful code in a controlled environment.

D.

To analyze and deconstruct the underlying source code of malware.

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

Registry Key Activity

MACHINE\SOFTWARE\MICROSOFT\WINDOWS\CURRENTVERSION\RUN modified (1)

MACHINE\SOFTWARE\MICROSOFT\WINDOWS\CURRENTVERSION\RUNONCE created (1), modified (2)

MACHINE\SOFTWARE\MICROSOFT\WINDOWS NT\CURRENTVERSION\WINLOGON modified (1)

MACHINE\SYSTEM\CURRENTCONTROLSET\CONTROL\SESSION MANAGER\ENVIRONMENT modified (1)

MACHINE\SOFTWARE\MICROSOFT\WINDOWS\CURRENTVERSION\POLICIES\EXPLORER modified (2)

MACHINE\SOFTWARE\MICROSOFT\COMMAND PROCESSOR modified (1)

For user S-5-21-0533532869, which registry key shows evidence of persistence through a newly created autorun entry?

Options:

A.

Run

B.

Winlogon

C.

Environment

D.

RunOnce

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Questions 51

Refer to the exhibit.

300-215 Question 51

A security analyst notices unusual connections while monitoring traffic. What is the attack vector, and which action should be taken to prevent this type of event?

Options:

A.

DNS spoofing; encrypt communication protocols

B.

SYN flooding; block malicious packets

C.

ARP spoofing; configure port security

D.

MAC flooding; assign static entries

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Questions 52

A cybersecurity analyst is investigating a high-priority incident involving a company executive’s workstation. The endpoint detection and response system flagged multiple file-modification events on the workstation. The files are normally read-only and contain sensitive financial data. The workstation’s antivirus software has not detected known malware or suspicious activity, and initial dynamic analysis of the files revealed no abnormal network behavior. Given this complex scenario, what is the recommended next step?

Options:

A.

Perform a full system reset on the workstation without further investigation.

B.

Install different antivirus software on the workstation and conduct another scan.

C.

Restore the files from the most recent backup, attribute the modifications to a system error, and enhance endpoint monitoring for further anomalies.

D.

Isolate the workstation from the network and perform a detailed forensic analysis of the modified files to reveal subtle signs of an advanced persistent threat.

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Questions 53

A company’s IIS web server is breached, and the attacker accesses a Microsoft Windows Server 2016 host by exploiting an SMB vulnerability on the same subnet. The intruder shuts down critical services on the Windows server. A security engineer must retrieve the IIS logs from the web server and service-related logs from the Windows server. Which two actions accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Export the full Security log from Event Viewer on the Windows server.

B.

Copy the log files from the %SystemDrive%\inetpub\logs\LogFiles folder on the IIS server.

C.

Copy the log files from the C:\Windows\Temp\Logs folder on the IIS server.

D.

Export System Log > Service Control Manager events from Event Viewer on the Windows server.

E.

Export Security Log > Service Control Manager events from Event Viewer on the IIS server.

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Questions 54

What is the steganography anti-forensics technique?

Options:

A.

hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file

B.

changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type

C.

sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation

D.

concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places

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Questions 55

Which tool should be used for dynamic malware analysis?

Options:

A.

Decompiler

B.

Unpacker

C.

Disassembler

D.

Sandbox

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Exam Code: 300-215
Exam Name: Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR v1.2)
Last Update: Oct 5, 2026
Questions: 184

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