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350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

How does Cisco Umbrella protect clients when they operate outside of the corporate network?

Options:

A.

by modifying the registry for DNS lookups

B.

by using Active Directory group policies to enforce Cisco Umbrella DNS servers

C.

by using the Cisco Umbrella roaming client

D.

by forcing DNS queries to the corporate name servers

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Questions 5

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices. The default management

port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed. What must be done to ensure

that all devices can communicate together?

Options:

A.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

B.

Set the tunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

C.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTDdevices

D.

Set the tunnel port to 8305

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Questions 6

Which VMware platform does Cisco ACI integrate with to provide enhanced visibility, provide policy integration and deployment, and implement security policies with access lists?

Options:

A.

VMware APIC

B.

VMwarevRealize

C.

VMware fusion

D.

VMware horizons

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Questions 7

Which Cisco platform ensures that machines that connect to organizational networks have the recommended

antivirus definitions and patches to help prevent an organizational malware outbreak?

Options:

A.

Cisco WiSM

B.

Cisco ESA

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

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Questions 8

A network administrator has configured TACACS on a network device using the key Cisc0467380030 tor authentication purposes. However, users are unable to authenticate. TACACS server is reachable, but authentication is tailing. Which configuration step must the administrator complete?

Options:

A.

Implement synchronized system clock on TACACS server that matches the network device.

B.

Install a compatible operating system version on the TACACS server.

C.

Configure the TACACS key on the server to match with the network device.

D.

Apply an access control list on TACACS server to allow communication with the network device.

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Questions 9

In which two ways does Easy Connect help control network access when used with Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It allows multiple security products to share information and work together to enhance security posture in the network.

B.

It creates a dashboard in Cisco ISE that provides full visibility of all connected endpoints.

C.

It allows for the assignment of Security Group Tags and does not require 802.1x to be configured on the switch or the endpoint.

D.

It integrates with third-party products to provide better visibility throughout the network.

E.

It allows for managed endpoints that authenticate to AD to be mapped to Security Groups (PassiveID).

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Questions 10

An engineer is implementing NTP authentication within their network and has configured both the client and server devices with the command ntp authentication-key 1 md5 Cisc392368270. The server at 1.1.1.1 is attempting to authenticate to the client at 1.1.1.2, however it is unable to do so. Which command is required to enable the client to accept the server’s authentication key?

Options:

A.

ntp peer 1.1.1.1 key 1

B.

ntp server 1.1.1.1 key 1

C.

ntp server 1.1.1.2 key 1

D.

ntp peer 1.1.1.2 key 1

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Questions 11

What is a capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

Options:

A.

It filters NSEL events based on traffic

B.

It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured

C.

It logs all event types only to the same collector

D.

It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active standby failover pair

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Questions 12

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

350-701 Question 12

Options:

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Questions 13

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

Options:

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

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Questions 14

Which Cisco ASA Platform mode disables the threat detection features except for Advanced Threat Statistics?

Options:

A.

cluster

B.

transparent

C.

routed

D.

multiple context

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Questions 15

An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Cisco Umbrella to prevent this activity for suspicious domains while allowing normal web traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Set content settings to High

B.

Configure the intelligent proxy.

C.

Use destination block lists.

D.

Configure application block lists.

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Questions 16

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the encryption algorithms on the right.

350-701 Question 16

Options:

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Questions 17

An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUI into a new endpoint group. Which

probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

NMAP

C.

SNMP

D.

DHCP

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Questions 18

Which attack type attempts to shut down a machine or network so that users are not able to access it?

Options:

A.

smurf

B.

bluesnarfing

C.

MAC spoofing

D.

IP spoofing

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Questions 19

An attacker needs to perform reconnaissance on a target system to help gain access to it. The system has weak passwords, no encryption on the VPN links, and software bugs on the system’s applications. Which

vulnerability allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text?

Options:

A.

weak passwords for authentication

B.

unencrypted links for traffic

C.

software bugs on applications

D.

improper file security

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Questions 20

Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for

endpoints? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

exploits

B.

ARP spoofing

C.

denial-of-service attacks

D.

malware

E.

eavesdropping

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Questions 21

Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and Control?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

802.1X

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNORT

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Questions 22

Which industry standard is used to integrate Cisco ISE and pxGrid to each other and with other

interoperable security platforms?

Options:

A.

IEEE

B.

IETF

C.

NIST

D.

ANSI

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Questions 23

Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also

provides an option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?

Options:

A.

url

B.

terminal

C.

profile

D.

selfsigned

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Questions 24

A network engineer must migrate a Cisco WSA virtual appliance from one physical host to another physical host by using VMware vMotion. What is a requirement for both physical hosts?

Options:

A.

The hosts must run Cisco AsyncOS 10.0 or greater.

B.

The hosts must run different versions of Cisco AsyncOS.

C.

The hosts must have access to the same defined network.

D.

The hosts must use a different datastore than the virtual appliance.

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Questions 25

A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for analysis. The network

is congested and is affecting communication. How will the Cisco ESA handle any files which need analysis?

Options:

A.

AMP calculates the SHA-256 fingerprint, caches it, and periodically attempts the upload.

B.

The file is queued for upload when connectivity is restored.

C.

The file upload is abandoned.

D.

The ESA immediately makes another attempt to upload the file.

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Questions 26

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco CTA

D.

Cisco ASA

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Questions 27

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the description on the right.350-701 Question 27

Options:

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Questions 28

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize

applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

Options:

A.

Cisco Security Intelligence

B.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

C.

Cisco Model Driven Telemetry

D.

Cisco DNA Center

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Questions 29

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 29

What is a result of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Traffic from the DMZ network is redirected

B.

Traffic from the inside network is redirected

C.

All TCP traffic is redirected

D.

Traffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected

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Questions 30

An organization has DHCP servers set up to allocate IP addresses to clients on the LAN. What must be done to ensure the LAN switches prevent malicious DHCP traffic while also distributing IP addresses to the correct endpoints?

Options:

A.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and add entries in the DHCP snooping database.

B.

Configure DHCP snooping and set trusted interfaces for all client connections.

C.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and antispoofing ACLs in the DHCP snooping database.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping and set a trusted interface for the DHCP server.

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Questions 31

An organization has a Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud deployment in their environment. Cloud logging is working as expected, but logs are not being received from the on-premise network, what action will resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure security appliances to send syslogs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Configure security appliances to send NetFlow to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

C.

Deploy a Cisco FTD sensor to send events to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Deploy a Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud sensor on the network to send data to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

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Questions 32

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

Options:

A.

advanced persistent threat

B.

open command and control

C.

structured threat information expression

D.

trusted automated exchange of indicator information

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Questions 33

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Email Gateway and must ensure it reaches the Cisco update servers to retrieve new rules. The engineer must now manually configure the Outbreak Filter rules on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway. Only outdated rules must be replaced. Up-to-date rules must be retained. Which action must the engineer take next to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Select Outbreak Filters

B.

Perform a backup/restore of the database

C.

Use the outbreakconfig command in CLI

D.

Click Update Rules Now

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Questions 34

Which Cisco ISE service checks the compliance of endpoints before allowing the endpoints to connect to

the network?

Options:

A.

posture

B.

profiler

C.

Cisco TrustSec

D.

Threat Centric NAC

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Questions 35

350-701 Question 35

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must retrieve the interface configuration on a Cisco router by using the NETCONF API. The engineer uses a python script to automate the activity.

Which code snippet completes the script?

Options:

A.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data+json

B.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data

C.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data+api

D.

Content-Type: applications/json/vnd.yang.data

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Questions 36

In which cloud services model is the customer responsible for scanning for and mitigation of application vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

PaaS

B.

VMaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

SaaS

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Questions 37

An engineer must implement a file transfer solution between a company ' s data center and branches. The company has numerous servers hosted in a hybrid cloud implementation. The file transfer protocol must support authentication, protect the data against unauthorized access, and ensure that users cannot list directories or remove files remotely. Which protocol must be used?

Options:

A.

SCP

B.

SSH

C.

FTPS

D.

SFTP

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Questions 38

Which solution is made from a collection of secure development practices and guidelines that developers must follow to build secure applications?

Options:

A.

AFL

B.

Fuzzing Framework

C.

Radamsa

D.

OWASP

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Questions 39

Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

Options:

A.

It allows traffic if it does not meet the profile.

B.

It defines a traffic baseline for traffic anomaly deduction.

C.

It inspects hosts that meet the profile with more intrusion rules.

D.

It blocks traffic if it does not meet the profile.

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Questions 40

A network administrator is modifying a remote access VPN on an FTD managed by an FMC. The administrator wants to offload traffic to certain trusted domains. The administrator wants this traffic to go out of the client ' s local internet and send other internet-bound traffic over the VPN Which feature must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

dynamic split tunneling

B.

local LAN access

C.

dynamic access policies

D.

reverse route injection

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Questions 41

An engineer recently completed the system setup on a Cisco WSA Which URL information does the system send to SensorBase Network servers?

Options:

A.

Summarized server-name information and MD5-hashed path information

B.

complete URL,without obfuscating the path segments

C.

URL information collected from clients that connect to the Cisco WSA using Cisco AnyConnect

D.

none because SensorBase Network Participation is disabled by default

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Questions 42

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B.

Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C.

Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D.

Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E.

Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

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Questions 43

Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

Options:

A.

Encrypted Traffic Analytics

B.

Threat Intelligence Director

C.

Cognitive Threat Analytics

D.

Cisco Talos Intelligence

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Questions 44

Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

64-bit block size, 112-bit key length

B.

64-bit block size, 168-bit key length

C.

128-bit block size, 192-bit key length

D.

128-bit block size, 256-bit key length

E.

192-bit block size, 256-bit key length

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Questions 45

Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a

private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

FlexVPN

C.

IPsec DVTI

D.

GET VPN

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Questions 46

For a given policy in Cisco Umbrella, how should a customer block websites based on a custom list?

Options:

A.

By adding the websites to a blocked type destination list

B.

By specifying blocked domains in the policy settings

C.

By adding the website IP addresses to the Cisco Umbrella blocklist

D.

By specifying the websites in a custom blocked category

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Questions 47

An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to analyze protocol fields and detect anomalies in the traffic from industrial systems. What must be done to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Implement pre-filter policies for the CIP preprocessor

B.

Enable traffic analysis in the Cisco FTD

C.

Configure intrusion rules for the DNP3 preprocessor

D.

Modify the access control policy to trust the industrial traffic

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Questions 48

What are two functions of IKEv1 but not IKEv2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NAT-T is supported in IKEv1 but rot in IKEv2.

B.

With IKEv1, when using aggressive mode, the initiator and responder identities are passed cleartext

C.

With IKEv1, mode negotiates faster than main mode

D.

IKEv1 uses EAP authentication

E.

IKEv1 conversations are initiated by the IKE_SA_INIT message

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Questions 49

An engineer must modify an existing remote access VPN using a Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility client solution and a Cisco Secure Firewall. Currently, all the traffic generate by the user Is sent to the VPN tunnel and the engineer must now exclude some servers and access them directly instead. Which element must be modified to achieve this goat?

Options:

A.

NAT exemption

B.

encryption domain

C.

routing table

D.

group policy

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Questions 50

Which solution supports high availability in routed or transparent mode as well as in northbound and

southbound deployments?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD with Cisco ASDM

B.

Cisco FTD with Cisco FMC

C.

Cisco Firepower NGFW physical appliance with Cisco. FMC

D.

Cisco Firepower NGFW Virtual appliance with Cisco FMC

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Questions 51

Which technology limits communication between nodes on the same network segment to individual applications?

Options:

A.

serverless infrastructure

B.

microsegmentation

C.

SaaS deployment

D.

machine-to-machine firewalling

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Questions 52

Which MDM configuration provides scalability?

Options:

A.

pushing WPA2-Enterprise settings automatically to devices

B.

enabling use of device features such as camera use

C.

BYOD support without extra appliance or licenses

D.

automatic device classification with level 7 fingerprinting

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Questions 53

An organization recently installed a Cisco WSA and would like to take advantage of the AVC engine to allow the organization to create a policy to control application specific activity. After enabling the AVC engine, what must be done to implement this?

Options:

A.

Use security services to configure the traffic monitor, .

B.

Use URL categorization to prevent the application traffic.

C.

Use an access policy group to configure application control settings.

D.

Use web security reporting to validate engine functionality

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Questions 54

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

Options:

A.

HMAC

B.

SHA-1

C.

MD5

D.

SISHA-2

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Questions 55

Which Cisco solution integrates industry-leading artificial intelligence and machine learning analytics and an assurance database to review the security posture and maintain visibility of an organization’s cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cisco CSR1000v

B.

Cisco Secure Workload

C.

Cisco DNA

D.

Cisco FTD

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Questions 56

For Cisco IOS PKI, which two types of Servers are used as a distribution point for CRLs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SDP

B.

LDAP

C.

subordinate CA

D.

SCP

E.

HTTP

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Questions 57

An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identity that references two different policies. Which action ensures that the policy that the identity must use takes precedence over the second one?

Options:

A.

Configure the default policy to redirect the requests to the correct policy

B.

Place the policy with the most-specific configuration last in the policy order

C.

Configure only the policy with the most recently changed timestamp

D.

Make the correct policy first in the policy order

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Questions 58

Drag and drop the concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

350-701 Question 58

Options:

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Questions 59

A customer has various external HTTP resources available including Intranet. Extranet, and Internet, with a proxy configuration running in explicit mode Which method allows the client desktop browsers to be configured to select when to connect direct or when to use the proxy?

Options:

A.

Transparent mode

B.

Forward file

C.

PAC file

D.

Bridge mode

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Questions 60

For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Windows service

B.

computer identity

C.

user identity

D.

Windows firewall

E.

default browser

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Questions 61

An administrator is implementing management plane protection and must configure an interface on a Cisco router to only terminate management packets that are destined for the router. Which set of IOS commands must be used to complete the implementation?

Options:

A.

350-701 Question 61 Option 1

B.

61

C.

61

D.

61

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Questions 62

A network engineer must configure a Cisco Secure Email Gateway to prompt users to enter two forms of information before gaining access. The Secure Email Gateway must also join a cluster machine using preshared keys. What must be configured to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server and then join the cluster by using the Secure Email Gateway CLI.

B.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server and then join the cluster by using the Secure Email Gateway CLI.

C.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server and then join the cluster by using the Secure Email Gateway GUI.

D.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server and then join the cluster by using the Secure Email Gateway GUI.

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Questions 63

Which direction do attackers encode data in DNS requests during exfiltration using DNS tunneling?

Options:

A.

inbound

B.

north-south

C.

east-west

D.

outbound

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Questions 64

A Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics administrator is setting up a private network monitor sensor to monitor an on-premises environment. Which two pieces of information from the sensor are used to link to the Secure Cloud Analytics portal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Unique service key

B.

NAT ID

C.

SSL certificate

D.

Public IP address

E.

Private IP address

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Questions 65

A Cisco Firepower administrator needs to configure a rule to allow a new application that has never been seen

on the network. Which two actions should be selected to allow the traffic to pass without inspection? (Choose

two)

Options:

A.

permit

B.

trust

C.

reset

D.

allow

E.

monitor

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Questions 66

A networking team must harden an organization ' s network from VLAN hopping attacks. The team disables Dynamic Trunking Protocol and puts any unused ports in an unused VLAN. A trunk port is used as a trunk link. What must the team configure next to harden the network against VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

disable STP on the network devices

B.

dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports

C.

DHCP snooping on all the switches

D.

enable port-based network access control

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Questions 67

Which Cisco platform provides an agentless solution to provide visibility across the network including encrypted traffic analytics to detect malware in encrypted traffic without the need for decryption?

Options:

A.

Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

D.

Cisco AnyConnect

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Questions 68

An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked from being

accessed via the firewall which requires that the administrator input the bad URL categories that the

organization wants blocked into the access policy. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Cisco ASA because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco FTDdoes not

B.

Cisco ASA because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not

C.

Cisco FTD because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco FTD because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco ASA does not

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Questions 69

Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?

Options:

A.

An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces

B.

Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.

C.

An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.

D.

An interface can be assigned only to one zone.

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Questions 70

Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?

Options:

A.

DMZ multiple zone mode

B.

transparent firewall mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

routed mode

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Questions 71

What is a benefit of using Cisco AVC (Application Visibility and Control) for application control?

Options:

A.

management of application sessions

B.

retrospective application analysis

C.

zero-trust approach

D.

dynamic application scanning

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Questions 72

Which action must be taken in the AMP for Endpoints console to detect specific MD5 signatures on endpoints and then quarantine the files?

Options:

A.

Configure an advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure an IP Block & Allow custom detection list

C.

Configure an application custom detection list

D.

Configure a simple custom detection list

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Questions 73

What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on a network?

Options:

A.

It provides operating system patches on the endpoints for security.

B.

It provides flow-based visibility for the endpoints network connections.

C.

It enables behavioral analysis to be used for the endpoints.

D.

It protects endpoint systems through application control and real-time scanning

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Questions 74

An organization plans to upgrade its current email security solutions, and an engineer must deploy Cisco Secure Email. The requirements for the upgrade are:

    Implement Data Loss Prevention

    Implement mail encryption

    Integrate with an existing Cisco IronPort Secure Email Gateway solution

Which Cisco Secure Email license is needed to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Email Outbound Essentials

B.

Cisco Secure Email Phishing Defense

C.

Cisco Secure Email Domain Protection

D.

Cisco Secure Email Inbound Essentials

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Questions 75

Which VPN provides scalability for organizations with many remote sites?

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

site-to-site iPsec

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GRE over IPsec

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Questions 76

Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

water holing

C.

DDoS

D.

buffer overflow

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Questions 77

Which Cisco WSA feature supports access control using URL categories?

Options:

A.

transparent user identification

B.

SOCKS proxy services

C.

web usage controls

D.

user session restrictions

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Questions 78

Which standard is used to automate exchanging cyber threat information?

Options:

A.

TAXII

B.

MITRE

C.

IoC

D.

STIX

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Questions 79

An administrator needs to configure the Cisco ASA via ASDM such that the network management system

can actively monitor the host using SNMPv3. Which two tasks must be performed for this configuration?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Specify the SNMP manager and UDP port.

B.

Specify an SNMP user group

C.

Specify a community string.

D.

Add an SNMP USM entry

E.

Add an SNMP host access entry

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Questions 80

What is an attribute of the DevSecOps process?

Options:

A.

mandated security controls and check lists

B.

security scanning and theoretical vulnerabilities

C.

development security

D.

isolated security team

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Questions 81

Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?

Options:

A.

per-interface stats

B.

SNMP trap notification

C.

Layer 2 device discovery

D.

central syslog system

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Questions 82

What is the role of an endpoint in protecting a user from a phishing attack?

Options:

A.

Use Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco ISE Integration.

B.

Utilize 802.1X network security to ensure unauthorized access to resources.

C.

Use machine learning models to help identify anomalies and determine expected sending behavior.

D.

Ensure that antivirus and anti malware software is up to date

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Questions 83

What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate applications and

resources?

Options:

A.

to use multifactor authentication

B.

to use strong passwords

C.

to use a wired network, not wireless

D.

to disconnect from the network when inactive

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Questions 84

Drag and drop the deployment models from the left onto the explanations on the right.

350-701 Question 84

Options:

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Questions 85

A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the “Chat and Instant Messaging” category. Which reputation score should be selected to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

5

D.

10

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Questions 86

A network administrator is setting up Cisco FMC to send logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging (SaaS). The network administrator is anticipating a high volume of logging events from the firewalls and wants lo limit the strain on firewall resources. Which method must the administrator use to send these logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging?

Options:

A.

SFTP using the FMCCLI

B.

syslog using the Secure Event Connector

C.

direct connection using SNMP traps

D.

HTTP POST using the Security Analytics FMC plugin

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Questions 87

A web hosting company must upgrade its older, unsupported on-premises servers. The company wants a cloud solution in which the cloud provider is responsible for:

    Server patching

    Application maintenance

    Data center security

    Disaster recovery

Which type of cloud meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

IaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

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Questions 88

Which Cisco cloud security software centrally manages policies on multiple platforms such as Cisco ASA, Cisco Firepower, Cisco Meraki, and AWS?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Configuration Professional

C.

Cisco Secureworks

D.

Cisco DNAC

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Questions 89

What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and data breaches in an environment that is not on-premise?

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco AMP

D.

Cisco App Dynamics

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Questions 90

An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a

recipient address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

Options:

A.

SAT

B.

BAT

C.

HAT

D.

RAT

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Questions 91

An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to

prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?

Options:

A.

Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails

B.

Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails

C.

Configure policies to stop and reject communication

D.

Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection

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Questions 92

In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint Protection Platform?

Options:

A.

When there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities

B.

When there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection

C.

When there is no need to have the solution centrally managed

D.

When there is no firewall on the network

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Questions 93

What is the process of performing automated static and dynamic analysis of files against preloaded

behavioral indicators for threat analysis?

Options:

A.

deep visibility scan

B.

point-in-time checks

C.

advanced sandboxing

D.

advanced scanning

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Questions 94

What is the difference between EPP and EDR?

Options:

A.

EDR focuses solely on prevention at the perimeter.

B.

Having an EPP solution allows an engineer to detect, investigate, and remediate modern threats.

C.

Having an EDR solution gives an engineer the capability to flag offending files at the first sign of malicious behavior.

D.

EPP focuses primarily on threats that have evaded front-line defenses that entered the environment.

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Questions 95

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 95

Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco ISE administrator adds a new switch to an 802.1X deployment and has difficulty with some endpoints gaining access.

Most PCs and IP phones can connect and authenticate using their machine certificate credentials. However printer and video cameras cannot base d on the interface configuration provided, what must be to get these devices on to the network using Cisco ISE for authentication and authorization while maintaining security controls?

Options:

A.

Change the default policy in Cisco ISE to allow all devices not using machine authentication .

B.

Enable insecure protocols within Cisco ISE in the allowed protocols configuration.

C.

Configure authentication event fail retry 2 action authorize vlan 41 on the interface

D.

Add mab to the interface configuration.

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Questions 96

What are two advantages of using Cisco Any connect over DMVPN? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It provides spoke-to-spoke communications without traversing the hub

B.

It allows different routing protocols to work over the tunnel

C.

It allows customization of access policies based on user identity

D.

It allows multiple sites to connect to the data center

E.

It enables VPN access for individual users from their machines

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Questions 97

Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

Options:

A.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

C.

asa-host(config)#snmpserver group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

D.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

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Questions 98

An engineer must enable Outbreak Filters globally on an AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Email Gateway to protect the network from large-scale malware attacks. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

350-701 Question 98

Options:

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Questions 99

Which API is used for Content Security?

Options:

A.

NX-OS API

B.

IOS XR API

C.

OpenVuln API

D.

AsyncOS API

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Questions 100

What are two functions of TAXII in threat intelligence sharing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

determines the " what " of threat intelligence

B.

Supports STIX information

C.

allows users to describe threat motivations and abilities

D.

exchanges trusted anomaly intelligence information

E.

determines how threat intelligence information is relayed

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Questions 101

A Cisco ESA administrator has been tasked with configuring the Cisco ESA to ensure there are no viruses before quarantined emails are delivered. In addition, delivery of mail from known bad mail servers must be prevented. Which two actions must be taken in order to meet these requirements? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Use outbreak filters from SenderBase

B.

Enable a message tracking service

C.

Configure a recipient access table

D.

Deploy the Cisco ESA in the DMZ

E.

Scan quarantined emails using AntiVirus signatures

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Questions 102

Which technology should be used to help prevent an attacker from stealing usernames and passwords of users within an organization?

Options:

A.

RADIUS-based REAP

B.

fingerprinting

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

D.

multifactor authentication

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Questions 103

How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

Options:

A.

It delivers visibility and threat detection.

B.

It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.

C.

It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.

D.

It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.

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Questions 104

An organization is implementing AAA for their users. They need to ensure that authorization is verified for every command that is being entered by the network administrator. Which protocol must be configured in order to provide this capability?

Options:

A.

EAPOL

B.

SSH

C.

RADIUS

D.

TACACS+

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Questions 105

What are the components of endpoint protection against social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

IDS

C.

Firewall

D.

Cisco Secure Email Gateway

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Questions 106

Drag and drop the features of Cisco ASA with Firepower from the left onto the benefits on the right.

350-701 Question 106

Options:

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Questions 107

Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight viruses and malware?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Sophos engine

B.

white list

C.

RAT

D.

outbreak filters

E.

DLP

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Questions 108

Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.

B.

Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.

C.

Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.

D.

An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.

E.

Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls

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Questions 109

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 109

An engineer is implementing a certificate based VPN. What is the result of the existing configuration?

Options:

A.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is used as the identity when matching an IKEv2 authorization policy.

B.

Only an IKEv2 peer that has an OU certificate attribute set to MANGLER establishes an IKEv2 SA successfully

C.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is encrypted when the OU is set to MANGLER

D.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is set to MANGLER

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Questions 110

What is the term for the concept of limiting communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

container orchestration

B.

software-defined access

C.

microservicing

D.

microsegmentation

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Questions 111

Which type of data does the Cisco Stealthwatch system collect and analyze from routers, switches, and firewalls?

Options:

A.

NTP

B.

syslog

C.

SNMP

D.

NetFlow

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Questions 112

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

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Questions 113

Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Talos?

Options:

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

analysis

D.

authoring

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Questions 114

A company has 5000 Windows users on its campus. Which two precautions should IT take to prevent WannaCry ransomware from spreading to all clients? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Segment different departments to different IP blocks and enable Dynamic ARp inspection on all VLANs

B.

Ensure that noncompliant endpoints are segmented off to contain any potential damage.

C.

Ensure that a user cannot enter the network of another department.

D.

Perform a posture check to allow only network access to (hose Windows devices that are already patched.

E.

Put all company users in the trusted segment of NGFW and put all servers to the DMZ segment of the Cisco NGFW. ni

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Questions 115

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises?

Options:

A.

hybrid cloud

B.

private cloud

C.

public cloud

D.

community cloud

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Questions 116

An organization has a requirement to collect full metadata information about the traffic going through their AWS cloud services They want to use this information for behavior analytics and statistics Which two actions must be taken to implement this requirement? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure Cisco ACI to ingest AWS information.

B.

Configure Cisco Thousand Eyes to ingest AWS information.

C.

Send syslog from AWS to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

D.

Send VPC Flow Logs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

E.

Configure Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud to ingest AWS information

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Questions 117

An administrator is configuring N I P on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Specify the NTP version

B.

Configure the NTP stratum

C.

Set the authentication key

D.

Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP DNS hostname

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Questions 118

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asset inventory management

B.

allowed application management

C.

Active Directory group policy management

D.

network device management

E.

critical device management

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Questions 119

Which CLI command is used to register a Cisco FirePower sensor to Firepower Management Center?

Options:

A.

configure system add < host > < key >

B.

configure manager < key > add host

C.

configure manager delete

D.

configure manager add < host > < key

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Questions 120

Which kind of API that is used with Cisco DNA Center provisions SSIDs, QoS policies, and update software versions on switches?

Options:

A.

Integration

B.

Intent

C.

Event

D.

Multivendor

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Questions 121

An administrator configures new authorization policies within Cisco ISE and has difficulty profiling the devices. Attributes for the new Cisco IP phones that are profiled based on the RADIUS authentication are seen however the attributes for CDP or DHCP are not. What should the administrator do to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the DHCP interfaces to get the information to Cisco ISE

B.

Configure the authentication port-control auto feature within Cisco ISE to identify the devices that are trying to connect

C.

Configure a service template within the switch to standardize the port configurations so that the correct information is sent to Cisco ISE

D.

Configure the device sensor feature within the switch to send the appropriate protocol information

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Questions 122

Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM

B.

SHA-96

C.

AES-256

D.

SHA-384

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Questions 123

When choosing an algorithm to us, what should be considered about Diffie Hellman and RSA for key

establishment?

Options:

A.

RSA is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys

B.

RSA is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys

C.

DH is a symmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output asymmetric keys

D.

DH is an asymmetric key establishment algorithm intended to output symmetric keys

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Questions 124

What is a key difference between Cisco Firepower and Cisco ASA?

Options:

A.

Cisco ASA provides access control while Cisco Firepower does not.

B.

Cisco Firepower provides identity-based access control while Cisco ASA does not.

C.

Cisco Firepower natively provides intrusion prevention capabilities while Cisco ASA does not.

D.

Cisco ASA provides SSL inspection while Cisco Firepower does not.

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Questions 125

A mall provides security services to customers with a shared appliance. The mall wants separation of

management on the shared appliance. Which ASA deployment mode meets these needs?

Options:

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

multiple zone mode

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Questions 126

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

Options:

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

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Questions 127

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 127

A network engineer is testing NTP authentication and realizes that any device synchronizes time with this router and that NTP authentication is not enforced What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The key was configured in plain text.

B.

NTP authentication is not enabled.

C.

The hashing algorithm that was used was MD5. which is unsupported.

D.

The router was not rebooted after the NTP configuration updated.

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Questions 128

Which technology provides the benefit of Layer 3 through Layer 7 innovative deep packet inspection,

enabling the platform to identify and output various applications within the network traffic flows?

Options:

A.

Cisco NBAR2

B.

Cisco ASAV

C.

Account on Resolution

D.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

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Questions 129

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

B.

Connect to ITSM platforms

C.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

D.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

E.

Third party reporting

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Questions 130

What is a description of microsegmentation?

Options:

A.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

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Questions 131

An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL injection while machine 2 is vulnerable to buffer overflows. What action would allow the attacker to gain access to machine 1 but not machine 2?

Options:

A.

sniffing the packets between the two hosts

B.

sending continuous pings

C.

overflowing the buffer’s memory

D.

inserting malicious commands into the database

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Questions 132

What is the role of Cisco Umbrella Roaming when it is installed on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

To protect the endpoint against malicious file transfers

B.

To ensure that assets are secure from malicious links on and off the corporate network

C.

To establish secure VPN connectivity to the corporate network

D.

To enforce posture compliance and mandatory software

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Questions 133

What are two functionalities of SDN Northbound APIs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Northbound APIs provide a programmable interface for applications to dynamically configure the network.

B.

Northbound APIs form the interface between the SDN controller and business applications.

C.

OpenFlow is a standardized northbound API protocol.

D.

Northbound APIs use the NETCONF protocol to communicate with applications.

E.

Northbound APIs form the interface between the SDN controller and the network switches or routers.

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Questions 134

Drag and drop the cloud security assessment components from the left onto the definitions on the right.

350-701 Question 134

Options:

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Questions 135

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an access rule for URL filtering, a network engineer adds certain categories and individual URLs to block. What is the result of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Only URLs for botnets with reputation scores of 1-3 will be blocked.

B.

Only URLs for botnets with a reputation score of 3 will be blocked.

C.

Only URLs for botnets with reputation scores of 3-5 will be blocked.

D.

Only URLs for botnets with a reputation score of 3 will be allowed while the rest will be blocked.

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Questions 136

Which type of protection encrypts RSA keys when they are exported and imported?

Options:

A.

file

B.

passphrase

C.

NGE

D.

nonexportable

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Questions 137

A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Cisco ESA is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold

C.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold

D.

The policy was created to disable file analysis

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Questions 138

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

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Questions 139

What is a feature of NetFlow Secure Event Logging?

Options:

A.

It exports only records that indicate significant events in a flow.

B.

It filters NSEL events based on the traffic and event type through RSVP.

C.

It delivers data records to NSEL collectors through NetFlow over TCP only.

D.

It supports v5 and v8 templates.

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Questions 140

What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?

Options:

A.

show authorization status

B.

show authen sess int gi0/1

C.

show connection status gi0/1

D.

show ver gi0/1

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Questions 141

Elliptic curve cryptography is a stronger more efficient cryptography method meant to replace which current

encryption technology?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

RSA

C.

DES

D.

AES

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Questions 142

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

Options:

A.

structured threat information expression

B.

advanced persistent threat

C.

trusted automated exchange or indicator information

D.

open command and control

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Questions 143

A security engineer is tasked with configuring TACACS on a Cisco ASA firewall. The engineer must be able to access the firewall command line interface remotely. The authentication must fall back to the local user database of the Cisco ASA firewall. AAA server group named TACACS-GROUP is already configured with TACACS server IP address 192.168.10.10 and key C1sc0512222832!. Which configuration must be done next to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication ssh console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

B.

aaa authentication ssh console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

C.

aaa authentication serial console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

D.

aaa authentication http console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

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Questions 144

An engineer must configure Cisco AMP for Endpoints so that it contains a list of files that should not be executed by users. These files must not be quarantined. Which action meets this configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

Identity the network IPs and place them in a blocked list.

B.

Modify the advanced custom detection list to include these files.

C.

Create an application control blocked applications list.

D.

Add a list for simple custom detection.

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Questions 145

Which security solution is used for posture assessment of the endpoints in a BYOD solution?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco ASA

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ISE

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Questions 146

A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load on their headend Cisco ASA in order to

ensure that bandwidth is available for VPN users needing access to corporate resources on the10.0.0.0/24 local HQ network. How is this accomplished without adding additional devices to the

network?

Options:

A.

Use split tunneling to tunnel traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network only.

B.

Configure VPN load balancing to distribute traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network,

C.

Configure VPN load balancing to send non-corporate traffic straight to the internet.

D.

Use split tunneling to tunnel all traffic except for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.

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Questions 147

Which solution stops unauthorized access to the system if a user ' s password is compromised?

Options:

A.

VPN

B.

MFA

C.

AMP

D.

SSL

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Questions 148

What are two Trojan malware attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Frontdoor

B.

Rootkit

C.

Smurf

D.

Backdoor

E.

Sync

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Questions 149

Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor, and secure mobile devices on Windows and Mac computers from a centralized dashboard?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Buy Now
Questions 150

What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

They allow the user to configure flow information to perform customized traffic identification

B.

They provide attack prevention by dropping the traffic

C.

They provide accounting and billing enhancements

D.

They converge multiple accounting technologies into one accounting mechanism

E.

They provide monitoring of a wider range of IP packet information from Layer 2 to 4

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Questions 151

Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management

Center?

Options:

A.

quality of service

B.

time synchronization

C.

network address translations

D.

intrusion policy

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Questions 152

An administrator configures a new destination list in Cisco Umbrella so that the organization can block specific domains for its devices. What should be done to ensure that all subdomains of domain.com are blocked?

Options:

A.

Configure the *.com address in the block list.

B.

Configure the *.domain.com address in the block list

C.

Configure the *.domain.com address in the block list

D.

Configure the domain.com address in the block list

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Questions 153

Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco FTD

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ASA

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Questions 154

What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?

Options:

A.

To issue and revoke digital certificates

B.

To validate the authenticity of a digital certificate

C.

To create the private key for a digital certificate

D.

To certify the ownership of a public key by the named subject

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Questions 155

Where are individual sites specified to be block listed in Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

Application settings

B.

Security settings

C.

Destination lists

D.

Content categories

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Questions 156

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

Options:

A.

You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B.

It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C.

It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D.

It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

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Questions 157

Which service allows a user export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility

and control?

Options:

A.

SNORT

B.

NetFlow

C.

SNMP

D.

802.1X

Buy Now
Questions 158

An engineer adds a custom detection policy to a Cisco AMP deployment and encounters issues with the

configuration. The simple detection mechanism is configured, but the dashboard indicates that the hash is not 64 characters and is non-zero. What is the issue?

Options:

A.

The engineer is attempting to upload a hash created using MD5 instead of SHA-256

B.

The file being uploaded is incompatible with simple detections and must use advanced detections

C.

The hash being uploaded is part of a set in an incorrect format

D.

The engineer is attempting to upload a file instead of a hash

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Questions 159

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch

offices, and cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Buy Now
Questions 160

Which type of DNS abuse exchanges data between two computers even when there is no direct connection?

Options:

A.

Malware installation

B.

Command-and-control communication

C.

Network footprinting

D.

Data exfiltration

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Questions 161

How does a cloud access security broker function?

Options:

A.

It is an authentication broker to enable single sign-on and multi-factor authentication for a cloud solution

B.

lt integrates with other cloud solutions via APIs and monitors and creates incidents based on events from the cloud solution

C.

It acts as a security information and event management solution and receives syslog from other cloud solutions.

D.

It scans other cloud solutions being used within the network and identifies vulnerabilities

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Questions 162

What is a difference between GETVPN and IPsec?

Options:

A.

GETVPN reduces latency and provides encryption over MPLS without the use of a central hub

B.

GETVPN provides key management and security association management

C.

GETVPN is based on IKEv2 and does not support IKEv1

D.

GETVPN is used to build a VPN network with multiple sites without having to statically configure all devices

Buy Now
Questions 163

DoS attacks are categorized as what?

Options:

A.

phishing attacks

B.

flood attacks

C.

virus attacks

D.

trojan attacks

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Questions 164

Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to

network resources?

Options:

A.

BYOD on boarding

B.

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

C.

Client provisioning

D.

MAC authentication bypass

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Questions 165

Which algorithm provides asymmetric encryption?

Options:

A.

RC4

B.

AES

C.

RSA

D.

3DES

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Questions 166

When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

authentication server: Cisco Identity Service Engine

B.

supplicant: Cisco AnyConnect ISE Posture module

C.

authenticator: Cisco Catalyst switch

D.

authenticator: Cisco Identity Services Engine

E.

authentication server: Cisco Prime Infrastructure

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Questions 167

Drag and drop the posture assessment flow actions from the left into a sequence on the right.

350-701 Question 167

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 168

An engineer is trying to securely connect to a router and wants to prevent insecure algorithms from being used.

However, the connection is failing. Which action should be taken to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Disable telnet using the no ip telnet command.

B.

Enable the SSH server using the ip ssh server command.

C.

Configure the port using the ip ssh port 22 command.

D.

Generate the RSA key using the crypto key generate rsa command.

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Questions 169

An engineer is implementing NAC for LAN users on a segmented network. The engineer confirms that the device of each user is supported and the Cisco switch configuration is correct.

Which configuration should be made next to ensure there are no authentication issues?

Options:

A.

Disable the host firewall.

B.

Enable TACACS+ on the switch.

C.

Open TCP port 49.

D.

Permit UDP port 1812.

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Questions 170

In which two customer environments is the Cisco Secure Web Appliance Virtual connector traffic direction method selected? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer needs to support roaming users.

B.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Transparent Redirection (WCCP).

C.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and Virtual Form Factor is required.

D.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Explicit Proxy.

E.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and SSL Tunneling is required.

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Questions 171

A company identified a phishing vulnerability during a pentest What are two ways the company can protect employees from the attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

using Cisco Umbrella

B.

using Cisco ESA

C.

using Cisco FTD

D.

using an inline IPS/IDS in the network

E.

using Cisco ISE

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Questions 172

Drag and drop the security solutions from the left onto the benefits they provide on the right.

350-701 Question 172

Options:

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Questions 173

An engineer needs to add protection for data in transit and have headers in the email message Which configuration is needed to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Provision the email appliance

B.

Deploy an encryption appliance.

C.

Map sender !P addresses to a host interface.

D.

Enable flagged message handling

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Questions 174

How does the Cisco WSA enforce bandwidth restrictions for web applications?

Options:

A.

It implements a policy route to redirect application traffic to a lower-bandwidth link.

B.

It dynamically creates a scavenger class QoS policy and applies it to each client that connects through the WSA.

C.

It sends commands to the uplink router to apply traffic policing to the application traffic.

D.

It simulates a slower link by introducing latency into application traffic.

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Questions 175

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process

activity on an endpoint?

Options:

A.

endpoint isolation

B.

advanced search

C.

advanced investigation

D.

retrospective security

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Questions 176

On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus?

Options:

A.

application development

B.

wireless network

C.

data center

D.

perimeter network

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Questions 177

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

Options:

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

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Questions 178

What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premises Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

Cisco CWS eliminates the need to backhaul traffic through headquarters for remote workers whereas Cisco WSA does not

B.

Cisco CWS minimizes the load on the internal network and security infrastructure as compared to Cisco WSA.

C.

URL categories are updated more frequently on Cisco CWS than they are on Cisco WSA

D.

Content scanning for SAAS cloud applications is available through Cisco CWS and not available through Cisco WSA

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Questions 179

Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?

Options:

A.

compliant

B.

unknown

C.

authorized

D.

noncompliant

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Questions 180

Which attribute has the ability to change during the RADIUS CoA?

Options:

A.

NTP

B.

Authorization

C.

Accessibility

D.

Membership

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Questions 181

An organization is selecting a cloud architecture and does not want to be responsible for patch management of the operating systems. Why should the organization select either Platform as a Service or Infrastructure as a Service for this environment?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service because the customer manages the operating system

B.

Infrastructure as a Service because the customer manages the operating system

C.

Platform as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system

D.

Infrastructure as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system

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Questions 182

What is a function of the Layer 4 Traffic Monitor on a Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

blocks traffic from URL categories that are known to contain malicious content

B.

decrypts SSL traffic to monitor for malicious content

C.

monitors suspicious traffic across all the TCP/UDP ports

D.

prevents data exfiltration by searching all the network traffic for specified sensitive information

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Questions 183

When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Security Category Blocking

C.

Content Category Blocking

D.

File Analysis

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Questions 184

An engineer is configuring guest WLAN access using Cisco ISE and the Cisco WLC. Which action temporarily gives guest endpoints access dynamically while maintaining visibility into who or what is connecting?

Options:

A.

Modify the WLC configuration to require local WLC logins for the authentication prompts.

B.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a self-registered portal.

C.

Configure ISE and the WLC for guest redirection and services using a hotspot portal.

D.

Modify the WLC configuration to allow any endpoint to access an internet-only VLAN.

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Questions 185

An organization wants to provide visibility and to identify active threats in its network using a VM. The

organization wants to extract metadata from network packet flow while ensuring that payloads are not retained

or transferred outside the network. Which solution meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella Cloud

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PCM

D.

Cisco Umbrella On-Premises

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Questions 186

Drag and drop the VPN functions from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

350-701 Question 186

Options:

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Questions 187

Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?

Options:

A.

smurf

B.

MITM

C.

teardrop

D.

LAND

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Questions 188

Which benefit is provided by ensuring that an endpoint is compliant with a posture policy configured in Cisco ISE?

Options:

A.

It allows the endpoint to authenticate with 802.1x or MAB.

B.

It verifies that the endpoint has the latest Microsoft security patches installed.

C.

It adds endpoints to identity groups dynamically.

D.

It allows CoA to be applied if the endpoint status is compliant.

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Questions 189

Which two activities are performed using Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Provision

D.

DNS

E.

Accounting

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Questions 190

What must be configured on Cisco Secure Endpoint to create a custom detection tile list to detect and quarantine future files?

Options:

A.

Use the simple custom detection feature and add each detection to the list.

B.

Add a network IP block allowed list to the configuration and add the blocked files.

C.

Create an advanced custom detection and upload the hash of each file

D.

Configure an application control allowed applications list to block the files

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Questions 191

Which statement describes a serverless application?

Options:

A.

The application delivery controller in front of the server farm designates on which server the application runs each time.

B.

The application runs from an ephemeral, event-triggered, and stateless container that is fully managed by a cloud provider.

C.

The application is installed on network equipment and not on physical servers.

D.

The application runs from a containerized environment that is managed by Kubernetes or Docker Swarm.

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Questions 192

What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?

Options:

A.

Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.

B.

Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.

C.

Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.

D.

Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices

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Questions 193

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

intent-based APIs

B.

automation adapters

C.

domain integration

D.

application adapters

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Questions 194

Which two methods must be used to add switches into the fabric so that administrators can control how switches are added into DCNM for private cloud management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloud Director

B.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

C.

PowerOn Auto Provisioning

D.

Seed IP

E.

CDP AutoDiscovery

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Questions 195

Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS

B.

Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured

C.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises

D.

Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured

E.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured

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Questions 196

Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

Options:

A.

Sensitive data must remain onsite.

B.

Demand is unpredictable.

C.

The server team wants to outsource this service.

D.

ESA is deployed inline.

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Questions 197

In an IaaS cloud services model, which security function is the provider responsible for managing?

Options:

A.

Internet proxy

B.

firewalling virtual machines

C.

CASB

D.

hypervisor OS hardening

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Questions 198

Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

phishing

B.

brute force

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

DDOS

E.

teardrop

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Questions 199

Which two parameters are used for device compliance checks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

endpoint protection software version

B.

Windows registry values

C.

DHCP snooping checks

D.

DNS integrity checks

E.

device operating system version

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Questions 200

What is a difference between a zone-based firewall and a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewall?

Options:

A.

Zone-based firewalls provide static routing based on interfaces, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls provide dynamic routing.

B.

Zone-based firewalls support virtual tunnel interfaces across different locations, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls support DMVPN.

C.

Zone-based firewalls have a default allow-all policy between interfaces in the same zone, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls have a deny-all policy.

D.

Zone-based firewalls are used in large deployments with multiple areas, and Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewalls are used in small deployments.

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Questions 201

An engineer is configuring device-hardening on a router in order to prevent credentials from being seen

if the router configuration was compromised. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

service password-encryption

B.

username < username > privilege 15 password < password >

C.

service password-recovery

D.

username < username > password < password >

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Questions 202

350-701 Question 202

Refer to the exhibit. What does this Python script accomplish?

Options:

A.

It allows authentication with TLSv1 SSL protocol

B.

It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.

C.

lt authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username of ersad

D.

It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE

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Questions 203

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 203

What will happen when the Python script is executed?

Options:

A.

The hostname will be translated to an IP address and printed.

B.

The hostname will be printed for the client in the client ID field.

C.

The script will pull all computer hostnames and print them.

D.

The script will translate the IP address to FODN and print it

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Questions 204

Which endpoint solution protects a user from a phishing attack?

Options:

A.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

B.

Cisco AnyConnect with ISE Posture module

C.

Cisco AnyConnect with Network Access Manager module

D.

Cisco AnyConnect with Umbrella Roaming Security module

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Questions 205

With Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which option shows a list of all files that have been executed in your

environment?

Options:

A.

Prevalence

B.

File analysis

C.

Detections

D.

Vulnerable software

E.

Threat root cause

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Questions 206

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.

350-701 Question 206

Options:

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Questions 207

What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?

Options:

A.

data loss prevention

B.

controls malicious cloud apps

C.

detects anomalies

D.

user and entity behavior analytics

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Questions 208

When a Cisco Secure Web Appliance checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

Options:

A.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

B.

It applies the advanced policy.

C.

It applies the global policy.

D.

It blocks the request.

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Questions 209

What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

Options:

A.

Enable IP Layer enforcement.

B.

Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license

C.

Activate SSL decryption.

D.

Enable Intelligent Proxy.

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Questions 210

What are two benefits of workload security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tracked application security

B.

Automated patching

C.

Reduced attack surface

D.

Scalable security policies

E.

Workload modeling

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Questions 211

What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of malware?

Options:

A.

Ethos Engine to perform fuzzy fingerprinting

B.

Tetra Engine to detect malware when me endpoint is connected to the cloud

C.

Clam AV Engine to perform email scanning

D.

Spero Engine with machine learning to perform dynamic analysis

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Questions 212

A company recently discovered an attack propagating throughout their Windows network via a file named abc428565580xyz exe The malicious file was uploaded to a Simple Custom Detection list in the AMP for Endpoints Portal and the currently applied policy for the Windows clients was updated to reference the detection list Verification testing scans on known infected systems shows that AMP for Endpoints is not detecting the presence of this file as an indicator of compromise What must be performed to ensure detection of the malicious file?

Options:

A.

Upload the malicious file to the Blocked Application Control List

B.

Use an Advanced Custom Detection List instead of a Simple Custom Detection List

C.

Check the box in the policy configuration to send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

D.

Upload the SHA-256 hash for the file to the Simple Custom Detection List

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Questions 213

350-701 Question 213

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance.

B.

Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

C.

The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

D.

Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

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Questions 214

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 214

What will happen when this Python script is run?

Options:

A.

The compromised computers and malware trajectories will be received from Cisco AMP

B.

The list of computers and their current vulnerabilities will be received from Cisco AMP

C.

The compromised computers and what compromised them will be received from Cisco AMP

D.

The list of computers, policies, and connector statuses will be received from Cisco AMP

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Questions 215

What are two differences between a Cisco Secure Web Appliance that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

B.

When the Cisco Secure Web Appliance is running in transparent mode, it uses the Secure Web Appliance ' s own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

C.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

D.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

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Questions 216

Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?

Options:

A.

RBAC

B.

ETHOS detection engine

C.

SPERO detection engine

D.

TETRA detection engine

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Questions 217

What are two characteristics of the RESTful architecture used within Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

REST uses methods such as GET, PUT, POST, and DELETE.

B.

REST codes can be compiled with any programming language.

C.

REST is a Linux platform-based architecture.

D.

The POST action replaces existing data at the URL path.

E.

REST uses HTTP to send a request to a web service.

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Exam Code: 350-701
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701)
Last Update: Jun 5, 2026
Questions: 726

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