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Free Practice Questions for the Cisco CCNP Security 350-701 Exam (2026 Updated)

At Marks4sure, we are dedicated to providing IT professionals with the most accurate and reliable preparation materials for the Cisco 350-701 exam. To support your certification journey, we have made a selection of our premium 2026 CCNP Security practice questions and answers available completely free. You can take this practice test as many times as you need. Every question includes a detailed, expertly verified explanation to ensure you fully grasp the core security concepts before test day.

Questions 4

What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?

Options:

A.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes

B.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol

C.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms

D.

IOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and FlexVPN

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Questions 5

An engineer has enabled LDAP accept queries on a listener. Malicious actors must be prevented from quickly

identifying all valid recipients. What must be done on the Cisco ESA to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Configure incoming content filters

B.

Use Bounce Verification

C.

Configure Directory Harvest Attack Prevention

D.

Bypass LDAP access queries in the recipient access table

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350-701 Report Card

Questions 6

A web hosting company must upgrade its older, unsupported on-premises servers. The company wants a cloud solution in which the cloud provider is responsible for:

Server patching

Application maintenance

Data center security

Disaster recovery

Which type of cloud meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

IaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

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Questions 7

An organization is trying to improve their Defense in Depth by blocking malicious destinations prior to a

connection being established. The solution must be able to block certain applications from being used within the network. Which product should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Firepower

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

ISE

D.

AMP

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Questions 8

In which two ways does a system administrator send web traffic transparently to the Web Security Appliance?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

configure Active Directory Group Policies to push proxy settings

B.

configure policy-based routing on the network infrastructure

C.

reference a Proxy Auto Config file

D.

configure the proxy IP address in the web-browser settings

E.

use Web Cache Communication Protocol

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Questions 9

A security engineer must configure a Splunk Universal Forwarder to send network traffic logs from Cisco Catalyst switches to a Splunk indexer cluster. Strict compliance requirements require all network traffic logs to be ingested into Splunk as an audit trail. The environment includes thousands of forwarders, and the data must be distributed across all indexers. Which two configuration actions must be performed? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure outputs.conf with the DNS names and indexing ports of all indexers within the cluster.

B.

Implement a large output queue in outputs.conf and disable automatic load balancing.

C.

Configure the forwarder to write logs to a local file share and schedule a batch job to copy the data into the indexers.

D.

Use a deployment server to push an application containing outputs.conf to all Universal Forwarders.

E.

Configure a single primary indexer in outputs.conf and enable a forced connection.

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Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an access rule for URL filtering, a network engineer adds certain categories and individual URLs to block. What is the result of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Only URLs for botnets with reputation scores of 1-3 will be blocked.

B.

Only URLs for botnets with a reputation score of 3 will be blocked.

C.

Only URLs for botnets with reputation scores of 3-5 will be blocked.

D.

Only URLs for botnets with a reputation score of 3 will be allowed while the rest will be blocked.

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Questions 11

What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

data exfiltration

B.

command and control communication

C.

intelligent proxy

D.

snort

E.

URL categorization

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Questions 12

Which solution detects threats across a private network, public clouds, and encrypted traffic?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch

B.

Cisco CTA

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

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Questions 13

A security engineer must create a policy based on the reputation verdict of a file from a Cisco Secure Email Gateway. The file with an undetermined verdict must be dropped. Which action must the security engineer take to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Configure threshold settings for files with no score to be allowed.

B.

Set up a policy to automatically drop files with no reputation score.

C.

Implement a policy to disable file analysis.

D.

Create a policy to send a file to quarantine.

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Questions 14

Which two methods must be used to add switches into the fabric so that administrators can control how switches are added into DCNM for private cloud management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloud Director

B.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

C.

PowerOn Auto Provisioning

D.

Seed IP

E.

CDP AutoDiscovery

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Questions 15

How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network do EPP solutions solely performance issues?

Options:

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

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Questions 16

Which type of protection encrypts RSA keys when they are exported and imported?

Options:

A.

file

B.

passphrase

C.

NGE

D.

nonexportable

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Questions 17

What is the recommendation in a zero-trust model before granting access to corporate applications and

resources?

Options:

A.

to use multifactor authentication

B.

to use strong passwords

C.

to use a wired network, not wireless

D.

to disconnect from the network when inactive

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Questions 18

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 18

What is the result of this Python script of the Cisco DNA Center API?

Options:

A.

adds authentication to a switch

B.

adds a switch to Cisco DNA Center

C.

receives information about a switch

D.

deletes a switch from Cisco DNA Center

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Questions 19

Which license is required for Cisco Security Intelligence to work on the Cisco Next Generation Intrusion

Prevention System?

Options:

A.

control

B.

malware

C.

URL filtering

D.

protect

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Questions 20

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of a network?

Options:

A.

SDN controller and the cloud

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the management solution

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Questions 21

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 21

What will happen when this Python script is run?

Options:

A.

The compromised computers and malware trajectories will be received from Cisco AMP

B.

The list of computers and their current vulnerabilities will be received from Cisco AMP

C.

The compromised computers and what compromised them will be received from Cisco AMP

D.

The list of computers, policies, and connector statuses will be received from Cisco AMP

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Questions 22

What is a description of microsegmentation?

Options:

A.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate

B.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery

C.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

D.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container

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Questions 23

What is a difference between DMVPN and sVTI?

Options:

A.

DMVPN supports tunnel encryption, whereas sVTI does not.

B.

DMVPN supports dynamic tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.

C.

DMVPN supports static tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.

D.

DMVPN provides interoperability with other vendors, whereas sVTI does not.

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Questions 24

Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and Control?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

802.1X

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNORT

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Questions 25

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 25

An engineer configured wired 802.1x on the network and is unable to get a laptop to authenticate. Which port configuration is missing?

Options:

A.

authentication open

B.

dotlx reauthentication

C.

cisp enable

D.

dot1x pae authenticator

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Questions 26

Which feature must be configured before implementing NetFlow on a router?

Options:

A.

SNMPv3

B.

syslog

C.

VRF

D.

IP routing

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Questions 27

Which problem Is solved by deploying a multicontext firewall?

Options:

A.

overlapping IP addressing plan

B.

more secure policy

C.

resilient high availability design

D.

faster inspection

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Questions 28

What is a difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints is a cloud-based service, and Cisco Umbrella is not.

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints prevents connections to malicious destinations, and C malware.

C.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints automatically researches indicators of compromise ..

D.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints prevents, detects, and responds to attacks before and against Internet threats.

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Questions 29

An organization wants to implement a cloud-delivered and SaaS-based solution to provide visibility and threat detection across the AWS network. The solution must be deployed without software agents and rely on AWS VPC flow logs instead. Which solution meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

NetFlow collectors

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

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Questions 30

Which attribute has the ability to change during the RADIUS CoA?

Options:

A.

NTP

B.

Authorization

C.

Accessibility

D.

Membership

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Questions 31

How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?

Options:

A.

up to 2

B.

up to 4

C.

up to 8

D.

up to 16

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Questions 32

Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat intelligence in a machine-digestible format?

Options:

A.

OpenC2

B.

OpenlOC

C.

CybOX

D.

STIX

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Questions 33

When a Cisco Secure Web Appliance checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

Options:

A.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

B.

It applies the advanced policy.

C.

It applies the global policy.

D.

It blocks the request.

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Questions 34

A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3

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Questions 35

Which solution for remote workers enables protection, detection, and response on the endpoint against known and unknown threats?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Duo

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Questions 36

What are two workload security models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

off-premises

D.

on-premises

E.

IaaS

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Questions 37

A Cisco FTD engineer is creating a new IKEv2 policy called s2s00123456789 for their organization to allow for additional protocols to terminate network devices with. They currently only have one policy established and need the new policy to be a backup in case some devices cannot support the stronger algorithms listed in the primary policy. What should be done in order to support this?

Options:

A.

Change the integrity algorithms to SHA* to support all SHA algorithms in the primary policy

B.

Make the priority for the new policy 5 and the primary policy 1

C.

Change the encryption to AES* to support all AES algorithms in the primary policy

D.

Make the priority for the primary policy 10 and the new policy 1

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Questions 38

Which Cisco ASA deployment model is used to filter traffic between hosts in the same IP subnet using higher-level protocols without readdressing the network?

Options:

A.

routed mode

B.

transparent mode

C.

single context mode

D.

multiple context mode

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Questions 39

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

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Questions 40

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch

D.

Cisco Tetration

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Questions 41

Which Cisco platform processes behavior baselines, monitors for deviations, and reviews for malicious processes in data center traffic and servers while performing software vulnerability detection?

Options:

A.

Cisco Tetration

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco AMP for Network

D.

Cisco AnyConnect

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Questions 42

What is a capability of Cisco ASA Netflow?

Options:

A.

It filters NSEL events based on traffic

B.

It generates NSEL events even if the MPF is not configured

C.

It logs all event types only to the same collector

D.

It sends NetFlow data records from active and standby ASAs in an active standby failover pair

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Questions 43

Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications

without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

Options:

A.

PaaS

B.

XaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

SaaS

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Questions 44

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises?

Options:

A.

hybrid cloud

B.

private cloud

C.

public cloud

D.

community cloud

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Questions 45

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

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Questions 46

A company identified a phishing vulnerability during a pentest. What are two ways the company can protect employees from the attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

using Cisco Umbrella

B.

using Cisco FTD

C.

using Cisco ISE

D.

using Cisco Secure Email Gateway

E.

using an inline IPS/IDS in the network

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Questions 47

Drag and drop the features of Cisco ASA with Firepower from the left onto the benefits on the right.

350-701 Question 47

Options:

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Questions 48

350-701 Question 48

Refer to the exhibit. What does this Python script accomplish?

Options:

A.

It allows authentication with TLSv1 SSL protocol

B.

It authenticates to a Cisco ISE with an SSH connection.

C.

lt authenticates to a Cisco ISE server using the username of ersad

D.

It lists the LDAP users from the external identity store configured on Cisco ISE

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Questions 49

Which approach reduces the risk of social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

Enabling NAT traversal for endpoint management

B.

Conducting regular security awareness training for all users

C.

Using port security to limit DHCP spoofing

D.

Restricting outbound TCP traffic to known subnets

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Questions 50

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

Options:

A.

virus

B.

NTP amplification

C.

ping of death

D.

HTTP flood

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Questions 51

What are two functionalities of northbound and southbound APIs within Cisco SDN architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Southbound APIs are used to define how SDN controllers integrate with applications.

B.

Southbound interfaces utilize device configurations such as VLANs and IP addresses.

C.

Northbound APIs utilize RESTful API methods such as GET, POST, and DELETE.

D.

Southbound APIs utilize CLI, SNMP, and RESTCONF.

E.

Northbound interfaces utilize OpenFlow and OpFlex to integrate with network devices.

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Questions 52

An attacker needs to perform reconnaissance on a target system to help gain access to it. The system has weak passwords, no encryption on the VPN links, and software bugs on the system’s applications. Which

vulnerability allows the attacker to see the passwords being transmitted in clear text?

Options:

A.

weak passwords for authentication

B.

unencrypted links for traffic

C.

software bugs on applications

D.

improper file security

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Questions 53

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.

B.

An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.

C.

A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.

D.

An endpoint is profiled for the first time.

E.

A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona

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Questions 54

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address https:// < FMC IP > /capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Disable the proxy setting on the browser

B.

Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead

C.

Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser

D.

Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy

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Questions 55

Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA uses it to decrypt application traffic? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It must include the current date.

B.

It must reside in the trusted store of the WSA.

C.

It must reside in the trusted store of the endpoint.

D.

It must have been signed by an internal CA.

E.

it must contain a SAN.

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Questions 56

Which kind of API that is used with Cisco DNA Center provisions SSIDs, QoS policies, and update software versions on switches?

Options:

A.

Integration

B.

Intent

C.

Event

D.

Multivendor

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Questions 57

What is a characteristic of Cisco ASA Netflow v9 Secure Event Logging?

Options:

A.

It tracks flow-create, flow-teardown, and flow-denied events.

B.

It provides stateless IP flow tracking that exports all records of a specific flow.

C.

It tracks the flow continuously and provides updates every 10 seconds.

D.

Its events match all traffic classes in parallel.

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Questions 58

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem?

Options:

A.

DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.

B.

The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs

D.

The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces

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Questions 59

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

flow-export event-type

B.

policy-map

C.

access-list

D.

flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E.

access-group

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Questions 60

What are two benefits of workload security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tracked application security

B.

Automated patching

C.

Reduced attack surface

D.

Scalable security policies

E.

Workload modeling

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Questions 61

Which RADIUS feature provides a mechanism to change the AAA attributes of a session after it is

authenticated?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Accounting

C.

Authentication

D.

CoA

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Questions 62

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 62

Which type of authentication is in use?

Options:

A.

LDAP authentication for Microsoft Outlook

B.

POP3 authentication

C.

SMTP relay server authentication

D.

external user and relay mail authentication

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Questions 63

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure a Cisco router to send traps using SNMPv3. The engineer configures a remote user to receive traps and sets the security level to use authentication without privacy. Which command completes the configuration?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthno remoteuser config

B.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthnoPriv remoteuser config

C.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1

D.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1 priv access des56

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Questions 64

What is the function of the Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol in an IPsec VPN?

Options:

A.

Handle packet filtering

B.

Negotiate tunnel parameters

C.

Manage data transfers

D.

Encrypt data packets

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Questions 65

Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the

deployment?

Options:

A.

NGFW

B.

AMP

C.

WSA

D.

ESA

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Questions 66

What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure new routers for monitoring purposes?

Options:

A.

Telemetry uses a pull mehod, which makes it more reliable than SNMP

B.

Telemetry uses push and pull, which makes it more scalable than SNMP

C.

Telemetry uses push and pull which makes it more secure than SNMP

D.

Telemetry uses a push method which makes it faster than SNMP

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Questions 67

Which two request of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

put

B.

options

C.

get

D.

push

E.

connect

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Questions 68

Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured against Cisco ISE without requiring an inline

posture node?

Options:

A.

RADIUS Change of Authorization

B.

device tracking

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

VLAN hopping

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Questions 69

An organization has two systems in their DMZ that have an unencrypted link between them for communication.

The organization does not have a defined password policy and uses several default accounts on the systems.

The application used on those systems also have not gone through stringent code reviews. Which vulnerability

would help an attacker brute force their way into the systems?

Options:

A.

weak passwords

B.

lack of input validation

C.

missing encryption

D.

lack of file permission

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Questions 70

When a next-generation endpoint security solution is selected for a company, what are two key

deliverables that help justify the implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signature-based endpoint protection on company endpoints

B.

macro-based protection to keep connected endpoints safe

C.

continuous monitoring of all files that are located on connected endpoints

D.

email integration to protect endpoints from malicious content that is located in email

E.

real-time feeds from global threat intelligence centers

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Questions 71

What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

sequential

B.

protocol

C.

database

D.

volume-based

E.

screen-based

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Questions 72

What is the role of an endpoint in protecting a user from a phishing attack?

Options:

A.

Use Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco ISE Integration.

B.

Utilize 802.1X network security to ensure unauthorized access to resources.

C.

Use machine learning models to help identify anomalies and determine expected sending behavior.

D.

Ensure that antivirus and anti malware software is up to date

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Questions 73

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asset inventory management

B.

allowed application management

C.

Active Directory group policy management

D.

network device management

E.

critical device management

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Questions 74

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

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Questions 75

How is DNS tunneling used to exfiltrate data out of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

It corrupts DNS servers by replacing the actual IP address with a rogue address to collect information or start other attacks.

B.

It encodes the payload with random characters that are broken into short strings and the DNS serverrebuilds the exfiltrated data.

C.

It redirects DNS requests to a malicious server used to steal user credentials, which allows further damageand theft on the network.

D.

It leverages the DNS server by permitting recursive lookups to spread the attack to other DNS servers.

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Questions 76

An administrator is configuring N I P on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Specify the NTP version

B.

Configure the NTP stratum

C.

Set the authentication key

D.

Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP DNS hostname

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Questions 77

What is a difference between a DoS attack and a DDoS attack?

Options:

A.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP and UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where multiple systems target a single system with a DoS attack

B.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP and UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood multiple servers that are distributed over a LAN

C.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP packets

D.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with UDP packets

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Questions 78

Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP/TCP flags, and payload length?

Options:

A.

interpacket variation

B.

software package variation

C.

flow insight variation

D.

process details variation

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Questions 79

Which two components do southbound APIs use to communicate with downstream devices? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

services running over the network

B.

OpenFlow

C.

external application APIs

D.

applications running over the network

E.

OpFlex

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Questions 80

What is a benefit of an endpoint patch management strategy?

Options:

A.

Patches are deployed without a testing phase.

B.

Fewer staff is needed to manage the endpoints.

C.

Endpoints are resistant to vulnerabilities.

D.

Ensures adherence to regulatory and compliance standards.

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Questions 81

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

Options:

A.

to register new laptops and mobile devices

B.

to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C.

to provision userless and agentless systems

D.

to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end user

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Questions 82

Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Cisco TrustSec devices to force a session to be adjusted after a policy change is made? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

posture assessment

B.

aaa authorization exec default local

C.

tacacs-server host 10.1.1.250 key password

D.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

E.

CoA

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Questions 83

In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint Protection Platform?

Options:

A.

When there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities

B.

When there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection

C.

When there is no need to have the solution centrally managed

D.

When there is no firewall on the network

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Questions 84

A network engineer must distribute an operating system image to a network device and activate the image on that device by using the Cisco Catalyst Center API. Which two API requests perform the required operations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/image/distribution

B.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device/import

C.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/image/activation/device

D.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/network/{site_id}

E.

POST /dna/intent/api/v1/template-programmer/project/{project_id}/template

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Questions 85

350-701 Question 85

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a new Cisco ISE backend server as a RADIUS server to provide AAA for all access requests from the client to the ISE-Frontend server.

Which Cisco ISE configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Set 10.11.1.2 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set port 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

B.

Set 10.11.1.1 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

C.

Set 10.11.1.2 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

D.

Set 10.11.1.1 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

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Questions 86

What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

Options:

A.

CMX

B.

WMI

C.

Prime Infrastructure

D.

Telemetry

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Questions 87

For a given policy in Cisco Umbrella, how should a customer block website based on a custom list?

Options:

A.

by specifying blocked domains in me policy settings

B.

by specifying the websites in a custom blocked category

C.

by adding the websites to a blocked type destination list

D.

by adding the website IP addresses to the Cisco Umbrella blocklist

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Questions 88

A network engineer is deploying multiple Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense devices across two data centers. The solution has the following requirements:

    Management must have no Internet dependency.

    Management must remain accessible during major outages.

    Policy management must be centralized.

Which solution must be implemented to meet the requirements?

Options:

A.

Deploy an on-premises Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center high-availability pair with a dedicated out-of-band network.

B.

Deploy one Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center per data center with in-band network management.

C.

Use Cisco Security Cloud Control over the Internet with no on-premises managers.

D.

Manage each firewall locally with Cisco Secure Firewall Device Manager over the production network.

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Questions 89

Why is it important to have a patching strategy for endpoints?

Options:

A.

to take advantage of new features released with patches

B.

so that functionality is increased on a faster scale when it is used

C.

so that known vulnerabilities are targeted and having a regular patch cycle reduces risks

D.

so that patching strategies can assist with disabling nonsecure protocols in applications

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Questions 90

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 90

Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco ISE administrator adds a new switch to an 802.1X deployment and has difficulty with some endpoints gaining access.

Most PCs and IP phones can connect and authenticate using their machine certificate credentials. However printer and video cameras cannot base d on the interface configuration provided, what must be to get these devices on to the network using Cisco ISE for authentication and authorization while maintaining security controls?

Options:

A.

Change the default policy in Cisco ISE to allow all devices not using machine authentication .

B.

Enable insecure protocols within Cisco ISE in the allowed protocols configuration.

C.

Configure authentication event fail retry 2 action authorize vlan 41 on the interface

D.

Add mab to the interface configuration.

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Questions 91

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 91

An engineer is implementing a network access control solution. Users can authenticate against the RADIUS server using 802.1X, and now the engineer wants to configure a downloadable access control list on the switchport using Cisco ISE. Which command must be used next on the Cisco Catalyst switch to complete the requirement?

Options:

A.

ip access-group ACL-NAME out

B.

switchport mode access

C.

authentication order mab dot1x

D.

radius-server vsa send authentication

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Questions 92

An organization has DHCP servers set up to allocate IP addresses to clients on the LAN. What must be done to ensure the LAN switches prevent malicious DHCP traffic while also distributing IP addresses to the correct endpoints?

Options:

A.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and add entries in the DHCP snooping database.

B.

Configure DHCP snooping and set trusted interfaces for all client connections.

C.

Configure Dynamic ARP inspection and antispoofing ACLs in the DHCP snooping database.

D.

Configure DHCP snooping and set a trusted interface for the DHCP server.

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Questions 93

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 93

During the rollout of a new site-to-site VPN between a headquarters Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device and a partner firewall, the tunnel never completes IKEv1 Phase 1 and remains in the MM_WAIT_MSG_6 state. Reachability between the firewalls over the Internet is verified, ISAKMP UDP port 500 is permitted end-to-end, and the IKE Phase 1 policy parameters—including encryption, hashing, DH group, and lifetime—match exactly on both ends. Which configuration action must be performed to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure matching peer-identity values under each tunnel group on both endpoints.

B.

Add the same pre-shared key on both peers within their tunnel-group attributes.

C.

Implement identical Diffie-Hellman group numbers within the active IKEv1 policy.

D.

Apply equivalent transform sets and lifetimes inside the crypto-map entries.

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Questions 94

A logistics company issues corporate laptops that must automatically establish a Cisco Secure Client VPN tunnel whenever users are outside the office and connected to an untrusted external network. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense is the VPN headend and is already configured with remote-access profiles, address pools, and a PKI that distributes both machine and user certificates to endpoints. Management requires the tunnel to come up unattended before any user signs in to a laptop. Device-based authentication must be used, and the client must distinguish the corporate LAN from outside networks. The VPN must be connected when a user is outside the corporate network. Which configuration action must be performed to meet the requirements?

Options:

A.

Configure a Management VPN tunnel with user-certificate authentication for unattended connectivity.

B.

Configure Trusted Network Detection and Start Before Login with machine-certificate authentication for the client.

C.

Configure Trusted Network Detection using cached domain credentials for client authentication.

D.

Implement Start Before Login paired with user-certificate authentication in the profile.

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Questions 95

Which attack gives unauthorized access to files on the web server?

Options:

A.

Distributed DoS

B.

Broadcast storm

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

Path traversal

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Questions 96

Which Cisco Firewall solution requires zone definition?

Options:

A.

CBAC

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

ZBFW

D.

Cisco ASA

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Questions 97

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B.

Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C.

Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D.

Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E.

Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

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Questions 98

What must be configured on Cisco Secure Endpoint to create a custom detection tile list to detect and quarantine future files?

Options:

A.

Use the simple custom detection feature and add each detection to the list.

B.

Add a network IP block allowed list to the configuration and add the blocked files.

C.

Create an advanced custom detection and upload the hash of each file

D.

Configure an application control allowed applications list to block the files

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Questions 99

Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?

Options:

A.

Monthly

B.

Yearly

C.

Contractor

D.

Full-Time

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Questions 100

A security engineer is deploying an IPsec site-to-site VPN between headquarters and a remote plant, protected by Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense managed by Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center. The following configurations have already been completed:

    Matching IKEv2 proposals, preshared keys, and IPsec transform sets

    Access control rules permitting the traffic

    Crypto maps applied to the outside interfaces

    VPN traffic exempted from inspection

During a packet capture on the firewall, the engineer observes that the traffic is translated to the public IP address, preventing tunnel establishment. Which configuration action must be performed next?

Options:

A.

Configure NAT exemption for traffic between the interesting subnet pairs.

B.

Create a tunnel group with preshared-key authentication under connection profiles.

C.

Enable IKEv2 fragmentation on both peers to reduce packet size.

D.

Attach the new VPN policy to the global prefilter default action.

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Questions 101

Which two services are provided by the Cisco Talos Incident Response group? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Security policy authorization

B.

Bug identification

C.

Automatic vulnerability remediation

D.

Threat hunting

E.

Cyber range training

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Questions 102

Which type of dashboard does Cisco DNA Center provide for complete control of the network?

Options:

A.

service management

B.

centralized management

C.

application management

D.

distributed management

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Questions 103

What is a functional difference between a Cisco ASA and a Cisco IOS router with Zone-based policy firewall?

Options:

A.

The Cisco ASA denies all traffic by default whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall starts out by allowing all traffic, even on untrusted interfaces

B.

The Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall can be configured for high availability, whereas the Cisco ASA cannot

C.

The Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall denies all traffic by default, whereas the Cisco ASA starts out by allowing all traffic until rules are added

D.

The Cisco ASA can be configured for high availability whereas the Cisco IOS router with Zone-Based Policy Firewall cannot

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Questions 104

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 104

What is a result of the configuration?

Options:

A.

Traffic from the DMZ network is redirected

B.

Traffic from the inside network is redirected

C.

All TCP traffic is redirected

D.

Traffic from the inside and DMZ networks is redirected

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Questions 105

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

Options:

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

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Questions 106

An engineer is configuring their router to send NetfFow data to Stealthwatch which has an IP address of 1 1 11 using the flow record Stea!thwatch406397954 command Which additional command is required to complete the flow record?

Options:

A.

transport udp 2055

B.

match ipv4 ttl

C.

cache timeout active 60

D.

destination 1.1.1.1

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Questions 107

Which IPS engine detects ARP spoofing?

Options:

A.

Atomic ARP Engine

B.

Service Generic Engine

C.

ARP Inspection Engine

D.

AIC Engine

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Questions 108

What are two Trojan malware attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Frontdoor

B.

Rootkit

C.

Smurf

D.

Backdoor

E.

Sync

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Questions 109

Which Secure Email Gateway implementation method segregates inbound and outbound email?

Options:

A.

Pair of logical listeners on a single physical interface with two unique logical IPv4 addresses and one IPv6 address

B.

One listener on one logical IPv4 address on a single logical interface

C.

Pair of logical IPv4 listeners and a pair of IPv6 listeners on two physically separate interfaces

D.

One listener on a single physical interface

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Questions 110

On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed

devices?

Options:

A.

health policy

B.

system policy

C.

correlation policy

D.

access control policy

E.

health awareness policy

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Questions 111

Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Talos?

Options:

A.

consumption

B.

sharing

C.

analysis

D.

authoring

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Questions 112

What do tools like Jenkins, Octopus Deploy, and Azure DevOps provide in terms of application and

infrastructure automation?

Options:

A.

continuous integration and continuous deployment

B.

cloud application security broker

C.

compile-time instrumentation

D.

container orchestration

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Questions 113

Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

Options:

A.

Encrypted Traffic Analytics

B.

Threat Intelligence Director

C.

Cognitive Threat Analytics

D.

Cisco Talos Intelligence

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Questions 114

Which Cisco security solution gives the most complete view of the relationships and evolution of Internet domains IPs, and flies, and helps to pinpoint attackers ' infrastructures and predict future threat?

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Network Analytics

B.

Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics

C.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

D.

Cisco pxGrid

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Questions 115

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

Options:

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

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Questions 116

Which Cisco DNA Center RESTful PNP API adds and claims a device into a workflow?

Options:

A.

api/v1/fie/config

B.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device/import

C.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device

D.

api/v1/onboarding/workflow

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Questions 117

What provides the ability to program and monitor networks from somewhere other than the DNAC GUI?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

desktop client

C.

ASDM

D.

API

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Questions 118

A network engineer has been tasked with adding a new medical device to the network. Cisco ISE is being used as the NAC server, and the new device does not have a supplicant available. What must be done in order to securely connect this device to the network?

Options:

A.

Use MAB with profiling

B.

Use MAB with posture assessment.

C.

Use 802.1X with posture assessment.

D.

Use 802.1X with profiling.

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Questions 119

An engineer recently completed the system setup on a Cisco WSA Which URL information does the system send to SensorBase Network servers?

Options:

A.

Summarized server-name information and MD5-hashed path information

B.

complete URL,without obfuscating the path segments

C.

URL information collected from clients that connect to the Cisco WSA using Cisco AnyConnect

D.

none because SensorBase Network Participation is disabled by default

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Questions 120

How does Cisco Workload Optimization Manager help mitigate application performance issues?

Options:

A.

It deploys an AWS Lambda system

B.

It automates resource resizing

C.

It optimizes a flow path

D.

It sets up a workload forensic score

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Questions 121

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 121

A site-to-site IKEv2 VPN between a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device with public IP address 203.0.113.10 and a third-party firewall with public IP address 198.51.100.20 is failing to establish at a logistics company. The engineer enables IKEv2 debugging on the FTD and captures the output. Which action must be performed to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Change the DH group in the IKEv2 policy from Group 20 to Group 14 to match the group negotiated during IKE_SA_INIT.

B.

Verify that the pre-shared key configured on the VPN peer object exactly matches the key on the remote peer, including case, special characters, and any leading or trailing spaces.

C.

Update the IKEv2 policy to remove SHA-384 and use only SHA-256, aligning Phase 1 integrity with the algorithm agreed upon during IKE_SA_INIT.

D.

Switch both peers to certificate-based authentication by enrolling an identity certificate from the corporate CA and sharing the CA certificate with the remote peer.

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Questions 122

What are two characteristics of the RESTful architecture used within Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

REST uses methods such as GET, PUT, POST, and DELETE.

B.

REST codes can be compiled with any programming language.

C.

REST is a Linux platform-based architecture.

D.

The POST action replaces existing data at the URL path.

E.

REST uses HTTP to send a request to a web service.

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Questions 123

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 123

A Cisco Secure Endpoint malware event shows that a file was convicted as malicious and that its remediation status is Quarantine Failed. Before escalating the incident, the analyst must determine what can be concluded from the available event data. What is occurring based on the logs?

Options:

A.

The event data does not establish whether the threat remains present or was remediated through another mechanism.

B.

The failed-quarantine status proves that the endpoint was unable to apply the configured remediation policy.

C.

The failed-quarantine status proves that the file remained accessible to the operating system after the remediation attempt.

D.

The failed-quarantine status proves that the threat continued executing after the remediation attempt.

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Questions 124

An engineer is configuring web filtering for a network using Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway.

The requirement is that all traffic needs to be filtered. Using the SSL decryption feature, which type of

certificate should be presented to the end-user to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

third-party

B.

self-signed

C.

organization owned root

D.

SubCA

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Questions 125

What are the components of endpoint protection against social engineering attacks?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

IDS

C.

Firewall

D.

Cisco Secure Email Gateway

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Questions 126

Which Cisco security solution secures public, private, hybrid, and community clouds?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco ASAv

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco pxGrid

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Questions 127

An organization has a requirement to collect full metadata information about the traffic going through their AWS cloud services They want to use this information for behavior analytics and statistics Which two actions must be taken to implement this requirement? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure Cisco ACI to ingest AWS information.

B.

Configure Cisco Thousand Eyes to ingest AWS information.

C.

Send syslog from AWS to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

D.

Send VPC Flow Logs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud.

E.

Configure Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud to ingest AWS information

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Questions 128

Which Talos reputation center allows for tracking the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

Options:

A.

IP and Domain Reputation Center

B.

File Reputation Center

C.

IP Slock List Center

D.

AMP Reputation Center

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Questions 129

Which Splunk SOAR component automates multi-step security actions into a repeatable workflow?

Options:

A.

Alert

B.

Action

C.

Data model

D.

Playbook

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Questions 130

A network administrator is configuring a rule in an access control policy to block certain URLs and selects the “Chat and Instant Messaging” category. Which reputation score should be selected to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

5

D.

10

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Questions 131

How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

Options:

A.

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and sends malware throughthat connection.

B.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.

C.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS servers in order topoison the resolutions.

D.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them to a maliciousdomain.

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Questions 132

What is the purpose of joining Cisco WSAs to an appliance group?

Options:

A.

All WSAs in the group can view file analysis results.

B.

The group supports improved redundancy

C.

It supports cluster operations to expedite the malware analysis process.

D.

It simplifies the task of patching multiple appliances.

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Questions 133

An engineer is deploying Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints and wants to create a policy that prevents users from executing file named abc424952615.exe without quarantining that file What type of Outbreak Control list must the SHA.-256 hash value for the file be added to in order to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Advanced Custom Detection

B.

Blocked Application

C.

Isolation

D.

Simple Custom Detection

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Questions 134

Which Cisco cloud security software centrally manages policies on multiple platforms such as Cisco ASA, Cisco Firepower, Cisco Meraki, and AWS?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Configuration Professional

C.

Cisco Secureworks

D.

Cisco DNAC

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Questions 135

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

intent-based APIs

B.

automation adapters

C.

domain integration

D.

application adapters

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Questions 136

Which two types of policies are used by ZTNA to provide access to an application? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Context

B.

Access

C.

Site-to-site

D.

Identity

E.

Remote access

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Questions 137

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

350-701 Question 137

Options:

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Questions 138

Which type of API is being used when a controller within a software-defined network architecture dynamically

makes configuration changes on switches within the network?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

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Questions 139

350-701 Question 139

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance.

B.

Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

C.

The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

D.

Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

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Questions 140

Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple security products from

Cisco and other vendors to share data and interoperate with each other?

Options:

A.

Advanced Malware Protection

B.

Platform Exchange Grid

C.

Multifactor Platform Integration

D.

Firepower Threat Defense

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Questions 141

What is the difference between a site-to-site VPN and a remote-access VPN?

Options:

A.

A site-to-site VPN connects a private network using software endpoints, and a remote-access VPN connects devices to user resources in the network.

B.

A site-to-site VPN uses a Cisco GET VPN configuration, and a remote-access VPN uses a virtual tunnel interface configuration.

C.

A site-to-site VPN uses a GRE over IPsec configuration, and a remote-access VPN uses a Cisco GET Transport VPN configuration.

D.

A site-to-site VPN connects two private networks behind VPN termination devices, and a remote-access VPN connects a user to a private network.

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Questions 142

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco DNA center? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

B.

Third party reporting

C.

Connect to ITSM platforms

D.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

E.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

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Questions 143

Which DevSecOps practice helps reduce vulnerabilities introduced through external open-source components?

Options:

A.

Performing static routing configuration checks

B.

Conducting software composition analysis during builds

C.

Using dynamic routing between Kubernetes clusters

D.

Setting up round-robin DNS resolution for service discovery

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Questions 144

An organization has two machines hosting web applications. Machine 1 is vulnerable to SQL injection while machine 2 is vulnerable to buffer overflows. What action would allow the attacker to gain access to machine 1 but not machine 2?

Options:

A.

sniffing the packets between the two hosts

B.

sending continuous pings

C.

overflowing the buffer’s memory

D.

inserting malicious commands into the database

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Questions 145

What provides total management for mobile and PC including managing inventory and device tracking, remote view, and live troubleshooting using the included native remote desktop support?

Options:

A.

mobile device management

B.

mobile content management

C.

mobile application management

D.

mobile access management

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Questions 146

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

Options:

A.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.

B.

It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.

C.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.

D.

It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.

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Questions 147

A networking team must harden an organization ' s network from VLAN hopping attacks. The team disables Dynamic Trunking Protocol and puts any unused ports in an unused VLAN. A trunk port is used as a trunk link. What must the team configure next to harden the network against VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

disable STP on the network devices

B.

dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports

C.

DHCP snooping on all the switches

D.

enable port-based network access control

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Questions 148

What is a difference between an XSS attack and an SQL injection attack?

Options:

A.

SQL injection is a hacking method used to attack SQL databases, whereas XSS attacks can exist in many different types of applications

B.

XSS is a hacking method used to attack SQL databases, whereas SQL injection attacks can exist in many different types of applications

C.

SQL injection attacks are used to steal information from databases whereas XSS attacks are used toredirect users to websites where attackers can steal data from them

D.

XSS attacks are used to steal information from databases whereas SQL injection attacks are used toredirect users to websites where attackers can steal data from them

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Questions 149

What is the function of SDN southbound API protocols?

Options:

A.

to allow for the dynamic configuration of control plane applications

B.

to enable the controller to make changes

C.

to enable the controller to use REST

D.

to allow for the static configuration of control plane applications

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Questions 150

Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

application settings

B.

content categories

C.

security settings

D.

destination lists

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Questions 151

An organization is using Cisco Firepower and Cisco Meraki MX for network security and needs to centrally

manage cloud policies across these platforms. Which software should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Secureworks

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco Configuration Professional

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Questions 152

Refer to the exhibit.

=== Cisco Secure Endpoint - Detection Event ===

Endpoint : LAB-WKSTN-047 User: user1

Policy Group : Lab-Workstations Mode: Audit

Engine : ETHOS (fuzzy fingerprint)

Disposition : Malicious

File : C:\Users\user1\AppData\Local\Temp\svchost32.exe

SHA256 : 3a9f2c1d...e881b4a7

Parent Process: winword.exe

Threat Name : W32.Trojan.GenericKD.Agent

Retrospective : Previously UNKNOWN

Disposition changed to MALICIOUS at 09:31:55 UTC

File Activity : Created, Executed

Network : TCP outbound - > 91.205.188.47:4444

DNS query: c2-update.pharmadomain.ru

Quarantine : NOT quarantined (Audit mode active)

A security analyst at a pharmaceutical company is reviewing a Cisco Secure Endpoint malware-detection alert triggered on a laboratory workstation. The analyst observes the event data above. Which two things are occurring? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The antivirus engine update interval on workstation LAB-WKSTN-047 is too infrequent.

B.

The endpoint is running in Audit mode; the file was detected but not quarantined.

C.

The endpoint is running in Audit mode; the file was detected and quarantined.

D.

The file executed, was spawned by winword.exe, and opened an outbound connection to external command-and-control infrastructure.

E.

The parent file winword.exe is on a custom application allow list, permitting the malicious file to execute.

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Questions 153

What is a function of 3DES in reference to cryptography?

Options:

A.

It hashes files.

B.

It creates one-time use passwords.

C.

It encrypts traffic.

D.

It generates private keys.

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Questions 154

With regard to RFC 5176 compliance, how many IETF attributes are supported by the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

10

D.

12

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Questions 155

A Cisco AMP for Endpoints administrator configures a custom detection policy to add specific MD5 signatures The configuration is created in the simple detection policy section, but it does not work What is the reason for this failure?

Options:

A.

The administrator must upload the file instead of the hash for Cisco AMP to use.

B.

The MD5 hash uploaded to the simple detection policy is in the incorrect format

C.

The APK must be uploaded for the application that the detection is intended

D.

Detections for MD5 signatures must be configured in the advanced custom detection policies

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Questions 156

Which type of dashboard does Cisco Catalyst Center provide for complete control of the network?

Options:

A.

Distributed management

B.

Centralized management

C.

Application management

D.

Service management

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Questions 157

350-701 Question 157

Refer to the exhibit. All servers are in the same VLAN/Subnet. DNS Server-1 and DNS Server-2 must communicate with each other, and all servers must communicate with default gateway multilayer switch. Which type of private VLAN ports should be configured to prevent communication between DNS servers and the file server?

Options:

A.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as promiscuous ports.

B.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as community port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as promiscuous port, Gigabit Ethernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports C. Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as isolated port and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as community ports

C.

Configure GigabitEthernet0/1 as promiscuous port, GigabitEthernet0/2 as community port, and GigabitEthernet0/3 and GrgabitEthernet0/4 as isolated ports.

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Questions 158

Which two risks is a company vulnerable to if it does not have a well-established patching solution for

endpoints? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

exploits

B.

ARP spoofing

C.

denial-of-service attacks

D.

malware

E.

eavesdropping

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Questions 159

What is a benefit of conducting device compliance checks?

Options:

A.

It indicates what type of operating system is connecting to the network.

B.

It validates if anti-virus software is installed.

C.

It scans endpoints to determine if malicious activity is taking place.

D.

It detects email phishing attacks.

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Questions 160

What is an attribute of the DevSecOps process?

Options:

A.

mandated security controls and check lists

B.

security scanning and theoretical vulnerabilities

C.

development security

D.

isolated security team

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Questions 161

Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS

B.

Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured

C.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises

D.

Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured

E.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured

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Questions 162

Which two request methods of REST API are valid on the Cisco ASA Platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

GET

B.

CONNECT

C.

PUSH

D.

OPTIONS

E.

PUT

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Questions 163

Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsletter to help cybersecurity professionals remain

aware of the ongoing and most prevalent threats?

Options:

A.

PSIRT

B.

Talos

C.

CSIRT

D.

DEVNET

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Questions 164

Which open source tool does Cisco use to create graphical visualizations of network telemetry on Cisco IOS XE devices?

Options:

A.

InfluxDB

B.

Splunk

C.

SNMP

D.

Grafana

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Questions 165

What are two ways a network administrator transparently identifies users using Active Directory on the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Create an LDAP authentication realm and disable transparent user identification.

B.

Create NTLM or Kerberos authentication realm and enable transparent user identification.

C.

Deploy a separate Active Directory agent such as Cisco Context Directory Agent.

D.

The eDirectory client must be installed on each client workstation.

E.

Deploy a separate eDirectory server; the dent IP address is recorded in this server.

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Questions 166

Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?

Options:

A.

RBAC

B.

ETHOS detection engine

C.

SPERO detection engine

D.

TETRA detection engine

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Questions 167

What is a prerequisite when integrating a Cisco ISE server and an AD domain?

Options:

A.

Place the Cisco ISE server and the AD server in the same subnet

B.

Configure a common administrator account

C.

Configure a common DNS server

D.

Synchronize the clocks of the Cisco ISE server and the AD server

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Questions 168

What are two facts about WSA HTTP proxy configuration with a PAC file? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is defined as a Transparent proxy deployment.

B.

In a dual-NIC configuration, the PAC file directs traffic through the two NICs to the proxy.

C.

The PAC file, which references the proxy, is deployed to the client web browser.

D.

It is defined as an Explicit proxy deployment.

E.

It is defined as a Bridge proxy deployment.

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Questions 169

A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto isakmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0 command on hostA. The tunnel is not being established to hostB. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?

Options:

A.

Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on hostA.

B.

Enter the command with a different password on hostB.

C.

Enter the same command on hostB.

D.

Change the password on hostA to the default password.

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Questions 170

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 170

An engineer configures an IPsec VPN between two Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense devices named FTD1 and FTD2. However, the hosts behind FTD1 and FTD2 cannot communicate with each other. The engineer runs a debug command to troubleshoot the issue. What must be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Transform set

B.

Crypto access control list

C.

NAT traversal

D.

Preshared secret

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Questions 171

What are the two types of managed Intercloud Fabric deployment models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Public managed

B.

Service Provider managed

C.

Enterprise managed

D.

User managed

E.

Hybrid managed

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Questions 172

An engineer is configuring Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance security by preventing the execution of certain files by users. The engineer needs to ensure that the specific executable file name Cisco_Software_0505446151.exe is blocked from running while never being quarantined. What must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Create advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure application control blocked applications list.

C.

Implement simple custom detection list.

D.

Enable scheduled scans to detect and block the executable files.

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Questions 173

An administrator is trying to determine which applications are being used in the network but does not want the

network devices to send metadata to Cisco Firepower. Which feature should be used to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

Packet Tracer

C.

Network Discovery

D.

Access Control

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Questions 174

What is the purpose of a NetFlow version 9 template record?

Options:

A.

It specifies the data format of NetFlow processes.

B.

It provides a standardized set of information about an IP flow.

C.

lt defines the format of data records.

D.

It serves as a unique identification number to distinguish individual data records

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Questions 175

What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection and

Response?

Options:

A.

EPP focuses on prevention, and EDR focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.

B.

EDR focuses on prevention, and EPP focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.

C.

EPP focuses on network security, and EDR focuses on device security.

D.

EDR focuses on network security, and EPP focuses on device security.

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Questions 176

An administrator configures new authorization policies within Cisco ISE and has difficulty profiling the devices. Attributes for the new Cisco IP phones that are profiled based on the RADIUS authentication are seen however the attributes for CDP or DHCP are not. What should the administrator do to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the DHCP interfaces to get the information to Cisco ISE

B.

Configure the authentication port-control auto feature within Cisco ISE to identify the devices that are trying to connect

C.

Configure a service template within the switch to standardize the port configurations so that the correct information is sent to Cisco ISE

D.

Configure the device sensor feature within the switch to send the appropriate protocol information

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Questions 177

Which two authentication protocols are supported by the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WCCP

B.

NTLM

C.

TLS

D.

SSL

E.

LDAP

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Questions 178

After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations.

Which task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?

Options:

A.

Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.

B.

Generate a system report.

C.

Review the log files.

D.

Perform a trace.

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Questions 179

Which Cisco security solution integrates with cloud applications like Dropbox and Office 365 while protecting data from being exfiltrated?

Options:

A.

Cisco Tajos

B.

Cisco Steaithwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

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Questions 180

An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and needs an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK

and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?

Options:

A.

AES-192

B.

IKEv1

C.

AES-256

D.

ESP

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Questions 181

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 181

A newly installed stack of Cisco Catalyst switches has been integrated with Cisco ISE for 802.1X port control and downloadable access control list (dACL) enforcement. Test workstations authenticate successfully, but the expected dACL never appears in the port configuration, leaving all traffic unrestricted. Packet captures confirm that Cisco ISE transmits the correct attributes, yet the switches classify them as “unknown” and ignore the instructions. A review of the running configuration shows complete AAA and 802.1X configuration. Which configuration command must be added to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

radius-server vsa send accounting

B.

aaa authorization network default group radius

C.

radius-server vsa send authentication

D.

aaa authorization exec default group radius

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Questions 182

Which Cisco ASA Platform mode disables the threat detection features except for Advanced Threat Statistics?

Options:

A.

cluster

B.

transparent

C.

routed

D.

multiple context

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Questions 183

A company discovered an attack propagating through their network via a file. A custom file policy was created in order to track this in the future and ensure no other endpoints execute the infected file. In addition, it was discovered during testing that the scans are not detecting the file as an indicator of compromise. What must be done in order to ensure that the created is functioning as it should?

Options:

A.

Create an IP block list for the website from which the file was downloaded

B.

Block the application that the file was using to open

C.

Upload the hash for the file into the policy

D.

Send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

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Questions 184

What is an advantage of the Cisco Umbrella roaming client?

Options:

A.

the ability to see all traffic without requiring TLS decryption

B.

visibility into IP-based threats by tunneling suspicious IP connections

C.

the ability to dynamically categorize traffic to previously uncategorized sites

D.

visibility into traffic that is destined to sites within the office environment

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Questions 185

Which Cisco security solution stops exfiltration using HTTPS?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco CTA

D.

Cisco ASA

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Questions 186

Which solution should be leveraged for secure access of a CI/CD pipeline?

Options:

A.

Duo Network Gateway

B.

remote access client

C.

SSL WebVPN

D.

Cisco FTD network gateway

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Questions 187

Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data

within a network perimeter?

Options:

A.

cloud web services

B.

network AMP

C.

private cloud

D.

public cloud

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Questions 188

How does a WCCP-configured router identify if the Cisco WSA is functional?

Options:

A.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longer transmitted to the router.

B.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longertransmitted to the WSA.

C.

The WSA sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the router acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

D.

The router sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the WSA acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

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Questions 189

An engineer integrates Cisco FMC and Cisco ISE using pxGrid Which role is assigned for Cisco FMC?

Options:

A.

client

B.

server

C.

controller

D.

publisher

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Questions 190

Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?

Options:

A.

Nexus

B.

Stealthwatch

C.

Firepower

D.

Tetration

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Questions 191

A company is experiencing exfiltration of credit card numbers that are not being stored on-premise. The

company needs to be able to protect sensitive data throughout the full environment. Which tool should be used

to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Security Manager

B.

Cloudlock

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Cisco ISE

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Questions 192

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to deploy it in transparent mode. Which configuration component must be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

MDA on the router

B.

PBR on Cisco WSA

C.

WCCP on switch

D.

DNS resolution on Cisco WSA

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Questions 193

A security engineer requires social-media websites to be blocked through Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense. Which configuration action must the engineer apply to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Enable global settings with default URL filtering.

B.

Configure a file policy in an access control policy.

C.

Apply web filtering in an access control policy.

D.

Block the social-media URL category in the destination-network condition of an access control rule.

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Questions 194

What are two security benefits of an MDM deployment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

robust security policy enforcement

B.

privacy control checks

C.

on-device content management

D.

distributed software upgrade

E.

distributed dashboard

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Questions 195

In which cloud services model is the customer responsible for scanning for and mitigation of application vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

PaaS

B.

VMaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

SaaS

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Questions 196

Refer to the exhibit.

350-701 Question 196

What does the API key do while working with https://api.amp.cisco.com/v1/computers?

Options:

A.

displays client ID

B.

HTTP authorization

C.

Imports requests

D.

HTTP authentication

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Questions 197

What are two functions of IKEv1 but not IKEv2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NAT-T is supported in IKEv1 but rot in IKEv2.

B.

With IKEv1, when using aggressive mode, the initiator and responder identities are passed cleartext

C.

With IKEv1, mode negotiates faster than main mode

D.

IKEv1 uses EAP authentication

E.

IKEv1 conversations are initiated by the IKE_SA_INIT message

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Questions 198

What is the most common type of data exfiltration that organizations currently experience?

Options:

A.

HTTPS file upload site

B.

Microsoft Windows network shares

C.

SQL database injections

D.

encrypted SMTP

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Questions 199

Which characteristic is unique to a Cisco WSAv as compared to a physical appliance?

Options:

A.

supports VMware vMotion on VMware ESXi

B.

requires an additional license

C.

performs transparent redirection

D.

supports SSL decryption

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Questions 200

An engineer must implement a file transfer solution between a company ' s data center and branches. The company has numerous servers hosted in a hybrid cloud implementation. The file transfer protocol must support authentication, protect the data against unauthorized access, and ensure that users cannot list directories or remove files remotely. Which protocol must be used?

Options:

A.

SCP

B.

SSH

C.

FTPS

D.

SFTP

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Questions 201

An engineer has been tasked with implementing a solution that can be leveraged for securing the cloud users,

data, and applications. There is a requirement to use the Cisco cloud native CASB and cloud cybersecurity

platform. What should be used to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco NGFW

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

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Questions 202

Which technology provides a combination of endpoint protection endpoint detection, and response?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP

B.

Cisco Talos

C.

Cisco Threat Grid

D.

Cisco Umbrella

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Questions 203

What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Duo Security provide to an

organization? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

flexibility of different methods of 2FA such as phone callbacks, SMS passcodes, and push notifications

B.

single sign-on access to on-premises and cloud applications

C.

integration with 802.1x security using native Microsoft Windows supplicant

D.

secure access to on-premises and cloud applications

E.

identification and correction of application vulnerabilities before allowing access to resources

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Questions 204

Which solution offers automated blocking of known threats and visibility into zero-day attack behavior, with the ability to respond directly from the console?

Options:

A.

EPP solution with an HIDS integration

B.

Cloud-native antivirus with offline update support

C.

EDR with behavioral analytics and remote containment

D.

Secure Email Gateway with phishing sandboxing

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Questions 205

Why is it important to implement MFA inside of an organization?

Options:

A.

To prevent man-the-middle attacks from being successful.

B.

To prevent DoS attacks from being successful.

C.

To prevent brute force attacks from being successful.

D.

To prevent phishing attacks from being successful.

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Questions 206

Which Cisco Umbrella package supports selective proxy for Inspection of traffic from risky domains?

Options:

A.

SIG Advantage

B.

DNS Security Essentials

C.

SIG Essentials

D.

DNS Security Advantage

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Questions 207

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

Options:

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attack aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

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Questions 208

An organization is selecting a cloud architecture and does not want to be responsible for patch management of the operating systems. Why should the organization select either Platform as a Service or Infrastructure as a Service for this environment?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service because the customer manages the operating system

B.

Infrastructure as a Service because the customer manages the operating system

C.

Platform as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system

D.

Infrastructure as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system

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Questions 209

A Cisco ESA network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Cisco ESA is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold

C.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold

D.

The policy was created to disable file analysis

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Questions 210

350-701 Question 210

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of the Python script?

Options:

A.

It uses the POST HTTP method to obtain a username and password to be used for authentication.

B.

It uses the POST HTTP method to obtain a token to be used for authentication.

C.

It uses the GET HTTP method to obtain a token to be used for authentication.

D.

It uses the GET HTTP method to obtain a username and password to be used for authentication

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Questions 211

An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Cisco Umbrella to prevent this activity for suspicious domains while allowing normal web traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Set content settings to High

B.

Configure the intelligent proxy.

C.

Use destination block lists.

D.

Configure application block lists.

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Questions 212

Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

64-bit block size, 112-bit key length

B.

64-bit block size, 168-bit key length

C.

128-bit block size, 192-bit key length

D.

128-bit block size, 256-bit key length

E.

192-bit block size, 256-bit key length

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Questions 213

Which two services must remain as on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

antispam

C.

antivirus

D.

encryption

E.

DLP

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Questions 214

Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?

Options:

A.

smurf

B.

MITM

C.

teardrop

D.

LAND

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Questions 215

Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?

Options:

A.

Anycast IP

B.

AMP Threat grid

C.

Cisco Talos

D.

BGP route reflector

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Questions 216

Which solution stops unauthorized access to the system if a user ' s password is compromised?

Options:

A.

VPN

B.

MFA

C.

AMP

D.

SSL

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Questions 217

In which two customer environments is the Cisco Secure Web Appliance Virtual connector traffic direction method selected? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer needs to support roaming users.

B.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Transparent Redirection (WCCP).

C.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and Virtual Form Factor is required.

D.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Explicit Proxy.

E.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and SSL Tunneling is required.

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Questions 218

A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Third-party systems need to be able to feed host data into Cisco Firepower. What must be configured to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

a Network Discovery policy to receive data from the host

B.

a Threat Intelligence policy to download the data from the host

C.

a File Analysis policy to send file data into Cisco Firepower

D.

a Network Analysis policy to receive NetFlow data from the host

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Questions 219

Which type of encryption uses a public key and private key?

Options:

A.

Asymmetric

B.

Symmetric

C.

Linear

D.

Nonlinear

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Questions 220

Drag and drop the exploits from the left onto the type of security vulnerability on the right.

350-701 Question 220

Options:

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Questions 221

A network engineer is configuring a Cisco Catalyst switch. The network engineer must prevent traffic on the network from being interrupted by broadcast packets flooding the network using a predefined threshold. What must be configured on the switch?

Options:

A.

DHCP Snooping

B.

Embedded Event Monitoring

C.

Storm Control

D.

Loop Guard

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Questions 222

Which attack is preventable by Cisco ESA but not by the Cisco WSA?

Options:

A.

buffer overflow

B.

DoS

C.

SQL injection

D.

phishing

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Questions 223

An engineer is implementing NAC for LAN users on a segmented network. The engineer confirms that the device of each user is supported and the Cisco switch configuration is correct.

Which configuration should be made next to ensure there are no authentication issues?

Options:

A.

Disable the host firewall.

B.

Enable TACACS+ on the switch.

C.

Open TCP port 49.

D.

Permit UDP port 1812.

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Questions 224

A manufacturing company contracted an external software vendor to develop an application that dynamically creates marketing messages personalized to the business and audience. To ensure that communication between the sender and recipient email addresses does not create false positives, an exception rule must be configured in Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense. Which configuration must be performed?

Options:

A.

Implement an Exception Rule with a wildcard email address.

B.

Add a Policy Exception Rule with a Sender/Recipient pair set.

C.

Apply a sender-based Policy Exception Rule.

D.

Configure a recipient-based Policy Exception Rule.

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Questions 225

Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?

Options:

A.

RSA SecureID

B.

Internal Database

C.

Active Directory

D.

LDAP

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Questions 226

How does Cisco Secure Endpoint provide next-generation protection?

Options:

A.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

B.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

C.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

D.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Secure Endpoint to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

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Questions 227

Which two types of connectors are used to generate telemetry data from IPFIX records in a Cisco Secure Workload implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ADC

B.

ERSPAN

C.

Cisco ASA

D.

NetFlow

E.

Cisco Secure Workload

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Questions 228

What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and data breaches in an environment that is not on-premise?

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco AMP

D.

Cisco App Dynamics

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Questions 229

After a recent breach, an organization determined that phishing was used to gain initial access to the network before regaining persistence. The information gained from the phishing attack was a result of users visiting known malicious websites. What must be done in order to prevent this from happening in the future?

Options:

A.

Modify an access policy

B.

Modify identification profiles

C.

Modify outbound malware scanning policies

D.

Modify web proxy settings

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Questions 230

Which two capabilities does an MDM provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

delivery of network malware reports to an inbox in a schedule

B.

unified management of mobile devices, Macs, and PCs from a centralized dashboard

C.

enforcement of device security policies from a centralized dashboard

D.

manual identification and classification of client devices

E.

unified management of Android and Apple devices from a centralized dashboard

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Questions 231

An organization must add new firewalls to its infrastructure and wants to use Cisco ASA or Cisco FTD.

The chosen firewalls must provide methods of blocking traffic that include offering the user the option to bypass the block for certain sites after displaying a warning page and to reset the connection. Which solution should the organization choose?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD because it supports system rate level traffic blocking, whereas Cisco ASA does not

B.

Cisco ASA because it allows for interactive blocking and blocking with reset to be configured via the GUI, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

C.

Cisco FTD because it enables interactive blocking and blocking with reset natively, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco ASA because it has an additional module that can be installed to provide multiple blocking capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

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Questions 232

Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?

Options:

A.

An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces

B.

Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.

C.

An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.

D.

An interface can be assigned only to one zone.

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Questions 233

What are two functions of secret key cryptography? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

key selection without integer factorization

B.

utilization of different keys for encryption and decryption

C.

utilization of large prime number iterations

D.

provides the capability to only know the key on one side

E.

utilization of less memory

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Questions 234

An engineer must implement an external application that authenticates against the Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense API to perform automated message searches. The application already presents a user bearer token, but the API requires an additional authentication header with each request. The engineer must configure the external application to include the required header alongside the bearer token so that the API calls are accepted. Which header must be configured?

Options:

A.

x-api-key

B.

token-id

C.

client_secret

D.

x-auth-token

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Questions 235

A recent change left network engineers unable to SSH into a branch Cisco Catalyst switch. The engineer confirms that the TACACS server group TACACS-GROUP is defined but unreachable. There is no fallback to the local database when TACACS+ is unavailable. Security policy requires TACACS+ as the primary authentication method with automatic fallback to local accounts. Which configuration command must be added to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login ssh LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

B.

aaa authentication login group TACACS-GROUP local

C.

aaa authentication login default group TACACS-GROUP local

D.

aaa authentication serial console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

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Questions 236

Which two features of Cisco Email Security can protect your organization against email threats? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Time-based one-time passwords

B.

Data loss prevention

C.

Heuristic-based filtering

D.

Geolocation-based filtering

E.

NetFlow

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Questions 237

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to enable a separated email transfer flow from the Internet and from the LAN. Which deployment mode must be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

single interface

B.

multi-context

C.

transparent

D.

two-interface

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Questions 238

Which feature enforces continuous connectivity by preventing users from disconnecting the Cisco Secure Client tunnel?

Options:

A.

Always-On

B.

Smart Tunnel

C.

Path MTU Discovery

D.

Allow Local LAN Access

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Questions 239

Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

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Questions 240

A healthcare organization is deploying Cisco Secure Access to prevent protected health information from being shared with generative AI services. The security team requires real-time DLP inspection only for traffic destined for AI applications, with minimal false positives during general web browsing. The policy must permit tuning based on the proximity and match counts of PHI identifiers. Which configuration action must the engineer perform?

Options:

A.

Configure a real-time DLP rule referencing a built-in PHI data classification with default thresholds, scoped to a web profile that includes all Internet traffic.

B.

Implement an API-based DLP rule referencing a custom PHI data classification with tuned proximity and match-count thresholds, scoped to the generative AI application category.

C.

Deploy a real-time DLP rule referencing a built-in PHI data classification with tuned match-count thresholds, scoped to a web profile filtered by destination lists for known AI vendors.

D.

Apply a real-time DLP rule referencing a custom PHI data classification with tuned proximity and match-count thresholds, scoped to a web profile filtered by the generative AI application category.

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Exam Code: 350-701
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701 v2.0)
Last Update: Oct 26, 2026
Questions: 801

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