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4A0-C01 Nokia NRS II Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following about transport tunnels used by services is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A transport tunnel can carry many service tunnels.

B.

The transport label is unchanged throughout the transport network.

C.

A single network port can carry more than one transport tunnel.

D.

Both MPLS and GRE transport tunnels use a service label.

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Questions 5

Which of the following about VPRNs is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Customers must use the same routing protocol as the service provider.

B.

Customers belonging to the same VPRN service must use the same subnet.

C.

Service providers only need to perform configurations on the PEs to add additional VPRNs.

D.

For each VPRN, only one customer can be connected at each PE.

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Questions 6

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 6

Which tool produced this output?

Options:

A.

mac-trace

B.

svc-ping

C.

Isp-trace

D.

traceroute

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Questions 7

Which of the following commands would be used to configure a new VPLS service that will use a default vc-id of 5 and a customer id of 4?

Options:

A.

configure service vpls 4 customer 4 vc-id 5 create

B.

configure service vpls 5 customer 4 create

C.

configure service vpls 100 customer 4 vc-id 4 create

D.

configure service vpls vc-id 5 customer4 create

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Questions 8

What happens by default on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR when a VPLS accepts a tagged frame at the ingress SAP 1/1/1:100?

Options:

A.

The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is kept and transported over the network.

B.

The FCS is verified and kept in the customer frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over the network.

C.

The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is kept for transport over the network.

D.

The FCS is verified and removed from the frame. The VLAN tag is removed for transport over the network.

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Questions 9

Which of the following fields is NOT present in a GRE encapsulated VPN service packet?

Options:

A.

DLC Header

B.

Control Word

C.

Transport Label

D.

Service Label

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Questions 10

Which of the following about the label stack of a VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The service label is swapped for a transport label during transport.

B.

The transport label is used to forward packets between PEs.

C.

The service label is used to identify which VPRN a packet belongs to.

D.

Labels are initially added at the ingress PE.

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Questions 11

A Cpipe supports both structured and unstructured frames.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 12

Which of the following about VPN labels is FALSE?

Options:

A.

They are signaled between PE devices using MP-BGP.

B.

They are swapped at each P router as a packet crosses the service provider network.

C.

They are also known as the inner label or service label.

D.

They indicate to the egress PE the VPRN to which a packet belongs.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is TRUE when a service uses a GRE transport tunnel?

Options:

A.

The service takes a route determined by the IGP.

B.

The tunnel does not use a service label.

C.

The service label is swapped at each hop in the transport network.

D.

The tunnel is bidirectional and only requires configuration at one end of the service.

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Questions 14

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following about a VPLS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

By default, the VC ID on the mesh SDPs of a VPLS are set to the service ID.

B.

A VPLS appears to the customer as a direct Ethernet connection.

C.

Mesh SDPs are used for VPLSes to avoid loops.

D.

By default, T-LDP is used for signaling service labels.

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Questions 15

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 15

This output is from a router that is part of a 6VPE deployment using a VPRN. Which type of router would this configuration be found on?

Options:

A.

A CE router.

B.

A P router.

C.

A PE router.

D.

Both P and PE routers.

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Questions 16

How many service labels must be signaled to bring up a fully-meshed VPLS among five PE routers?

Options:

A.

1

B.

5

C.

10

D.

20

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Questions 17

An E-pipe is configured with a service MTU of 5000. What value will be derived for the VC-MTU?

Options:

A.

4078

B.

4986

C.

5014

D.

5022

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Questions 18

Click the exhibit. This output is from router R4. Service 333 is a VPLS. Why might the peer 10.10.10.1 have the same value for IngLbl and EgrLbl?

Options:

A.

The labels are of local significance only, so other routers can use the same value.

B.

10.10.10.1 has yet to send its own unique label.

C.

Router R4 is using the same tunnel to send and receive to 10.10.10.1.

D.

The service on 10.10.10.1 is down, so it is rejecting packets.

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Questions 19

Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the VPN-IPv4 address family? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE it creates a VPN-IPv4 prefix.

B.

The route distinguisher (RD) is appended to the IPv4 prefix to form a 16 byte VPN-IPv4 prefix.

C.

VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish multiple routes with the same prefixes originated from distinct customers

D.

VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.

E.

In VPRN, data traffic is carried in VPN-IPv4 packets.

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Questions 20

Which of the following about ADSPEC is FALSE?

Options:

A.

ADSPEC sets an SDP ' s MTU to the smallest MTU value found along the LSP path.

B.

RSVP must be enabled on all MPLS routers of a path to use ADSPEC.

C.

ADSPEC can automatically adjust the service MTU.

D.

ADSPEC can be enabled on individual LSPs.

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Questions 21

Which of the following about IES is FALSE?

Options:

A.

An IES provides a Layer 3 interface to a customer.

B.

A virtual routing/forwarding table is created per IES service.

C.

An IES supports QoS.

D.

An IES interface ' s IP address, if bound to a port, will appear in the routing table.

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Questions 22

Which of the following about VPRN route targets is FALSE?

Options:

A.

They are used to identify the VRF table for a prefix at the receiving PE.

B.

They are used by VPRNs to control the distribution of VPN routing information.

C.

They are distributed to all PEs and CEs that are part of the VPRN.

D.

They are distributed to PEs to identify the VRF table that a VPN-IPv4 prefix is associated with.

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Questions 23

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 23

Based on the output from PE router R1 about VPRN 100, by which protocol was 192.168.10.0/24 learned?

Options:

A.

BGP

B.

MP-BGP

C.

LDP

D.

MPLS

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Questions 24

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following statements about MP-BGP used for a VPRN is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Routes from different customers with the same IPv4 address prefix are treated as equivalent by MP-BGP.

B.

MP-BGP will advertise routes to other BGP sessions on the same PE without the need of policies.

C.

The multi-protocol nature of MP-BGP allows VPRN routes to be converted into IPv4 routes in the provider core network.

D.

MP-BGP is an enhanced version of BGP that can carry customer route prefixes for multiple VPRNs.

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Questions 25

In a Layer 2 VPN service, the FCS is stripped when a customer packet arrives at the ingress PE and regenerated on egress.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 26

A network technician needs to set up a local mirror to replicate traffic for examination with a protocol analyzer. The analyzer is on port 1/1/4 of his service router. Which of the following configuration steps is required?

Options:

A.

A mirror source listing port 1/1/4.

B.

A mirror destination listing port 1/1/4.

C.

A remote source command indicating the IP address of the service router he is configuring a local mirror on.

D.

Verification that his IP/MPLS infrastructure is in place

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 27

What are some of the characteristics of Alcatel-Lucent ' s implementation of non-stop routing? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

No protocol extensions required

B.

Only supported by OSPF and IS-IS

C.

Transparent to routing neighbors

D.

Uses Graceful Restart to inter-operate with other vendors

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Questions 28

Which of the statements about the output in the exhibit is FALSE?

4A0-C01 Question 28

Options:

A.

The system interface is configured with IPv6 address 2001DB8 1:100:1/128

B.

All interfaces are configured for IPv4 and IPv6.

C.

Interface " toR2 " is configured with a globally routed IPv6 address.

D.

Interface " toR3 " is not configured for IPv6 with a global IPv6 address.

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Questions 29

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 29

Given the diagram in the exhibit, what would be the correct static route configuration on the router on the right, if it is an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

config > static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2

B.

config > router > static-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 next-hop 10.1.2.1

C.

config > router > static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.2

D.

config > router > static-route 0 0.0 0/0 next-hop 10.1.2.1

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Questions 30

Which of the following best describes the type of packets used by OSPF routers to exchange updates on a point-to-point link?

Options:

A.

IP packets sent to an IP multicast address.

B.

TCP packets sent to an IP multicast address.

C.

IP packets sent to an IP unicast address.

D.

UDP packets sent to an IP multicast address.

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Questions 31

Which of the following best describes how IS-IS routers exchange updates on an Ethernet interface?

Options:

A.

IS-IS routers exchange updates by sending UDP packets to a multicast address.

B.

IS-IS routers exchange updates using IP multicast packets.

C.

IS-IS routers exchange updates using Ethernet multicast packets.

D.

IS-IS routers exchange updates by sending packets to the subnet broadcast address.

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Questions 32

At what point is the LSP SRM flag cleared when an LSP is sent on an IS-IS point-to-point link?

Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

As soon as the LSP is transmitted.

B.

When an acknowledgment is received in the form of PSNP.

C.

When an older LSP is received.

D.

When a newer or same aged LSP is received.

E.

Only when a newer LSP is received

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Questions 33

Which of the following statements regarding the election of the designated router (DR) by OSPF routers are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router with the lowest priority is the DR.

B.

The router with the highest priority is the DR.

C.

If priorities are the same, the DR is chosen based on the lowest RID.

D.

If priorities are the same, the DR is chosen based on the highest RID.

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Questions 34

What are the three databases maintained by a Link State Protocol?

Options:

A.

Neighbor, adjacency, route table

B.

Neighbor, topology, forwarding

C.

Topology, routing, forwarding

D.

There are only two databases: adjacency and topology

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Questions 35

What is the primary purpose of classless interdomain routing (CIDR)?

Options:

A.

To support classful routing protocols.

B.

To allow IP routes to be defined using any number of bits for the network portion of the address.

C.

To allow interdomain routing between an IGP and EGP such as OSPF and BGP.

D.

To simplify the allocation of IP address space by defining a fixed size for the network portion of the address for each of the address classes.

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Questions 36

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 36

In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. How many type 4 LSAs will be present in the network?

Options:

A.

One.

B.

One for each of the routers in area 0

C.

One for each of the external routes exported by router R1.

D.

Type 4 LSAs are not generated in this network topology.

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Questions 37

Which type of IS-IS router is summarization most likely to be configured on?

Options:

A.

L1 routers

B.

L2 routers

C.

L1/L2 routers

D.

L1 and L2 routers

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Questions 38

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 38

If router R2 redistributes the IS-IS route to 192.168.3.0/24 into OSPF, router R3 preference of these two routes? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

The OSPF internal preference

B.

The IS-IS Level 1 internal preference

C.

The IS-IS Level 2 internal preference

D.

The OSPF external preference

E.

The IS-IS Level 2 external preference

F.

The IS-IS Level 1 external preference

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Questions 39

Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

MTU mismatch

B.

Incorrect subnet mask

C.

System interface not included in OSPF

D.

Area ID not the same

E.

Different metric set on each end of the link

F.

Router ID not defined

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Questions 40

If a Router originates a type 1 router LSA with the E bit set what types of areas can it belong to? Select all that apply.

Options:

A.

Not So Stubby Area

B.

Stub Area

C.

Backbone Area

D.

Standard Area

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Questions 41

A router is configured with the command " configure router ecmp 4 " . There are two best paths to a given destination with an equal cost in the IGP. Which of the following best describes the handling of traffic to this destination?

Options:

A.

The router installs two routes for the destination with two different next hops. A hashing algorithm is used to distribute traffic over the two paths.

B.

The router installs two routes for the destination with two different next hops. Traffic is evenly distributed over the two paths.

C.

The router installs four routes for the destination with four different next hops. A hashing algorithm is used to distribute traffic over the four paths.

D.

The router installs four routes for the destination with four different next hops. Traffic is evenly distributed over the four paths.

E.

The router installs one route for the destination. Traffic is evenly distributed over the two paths.

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Questions 42

Exhibit

4A0-C01 Question 42

The following IS-IS packets have been exchanged between 2 adjacent IS-IS routers. What type of adjacency will be formed?

Options:

A.

An L1 adjacency will be formed.

B.

An L1/L2 adjacency will formed

C.

L2 adjacency will be formed

D.

No adjacency will be formed

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Questions 43

Which of the following are similarities between OSPF and IS-IS? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

Metric is based on hop count.

B.

Slow convergence after link failures.

C.

Support hierarchy through the use of areas.

D.

Support for CIDR.

E.

Link state updates sent using layer 3 multicast.

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Questions 44

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 44

Router R2 advertises the network 192.168.3.0/24 to router R1 via RIP.

How can router R1 ensure that it discards the route?

Options:

A.

Use an import policy and a prefix list on router R1 to reject this route.

B.

Use a prefix list on router R1 to discard all ingress IS-IS routes.

C.

Use an export policy and prefix list on router R1 to reject this route.

D.

This is not possible because RIP cannot use import policies.

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Questions 45

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 45

In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?

Options:

A.

Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.

B.

Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.

C.

Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.

D.

Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 2.

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Questions 46

What command is used on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to define the default action to be taken if a packet does not match any entry in an IP filter?

Options:

A.

config > filter# default-action XXX

B.

config > filter > ip-filter# default-action XXX

C.

config > filter# default-mode XXX

D.

config > filter > ip-filter# default-mode XXX

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Questions 47

What is the value of the protocol discriminator used to denote IS-IS protocol information?

Options:

A.

89

B.

87

C.

85

D.

83

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Questions 48

Which of the following are types of routers in an IS-IS topology? Choose three answers

Options:

A.

Level 0

B.

Level 1

C.

Level 2

D.

Level 0/1

E.

Level 1/2

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Questions 49

Exhibit

4A0-C01 Question 49

Given the two configurations shown, identify the two incorrect statements below: (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Both routers will generate OSPF Hello packets.

B.

The system interface is missing in one configuration so OSPF will not operate correctly.

C.

The interface type settings differ, but OSPF will still operate correctly.

D.

Metric values differ, but this does not prevent OSPF operation.

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Questions 50

A router sets the E bit in the flags of its Type 1 LSA. What does this indicate?

Options:

A.

The router is an ABR.

B.

The router is an ASBR.

C.

The router is at the end of a virtual link.

D.

The router ' s interface is in a stub area.

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Questions 51

When IS-IS elects a DIS, what is used as the tie breaker on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, if the priorities are the same?

Options:

A.

The system ID.

B.

The loopback address.

C.

The sequence number of the Hello packet.

D.

The device that first initiated communication becomes the DIS

E.

The highest interface MAC address.

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Questions 52

What are the ways the RID can be created on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

From the last 32 bits of the chassis MAC address

B.

From the first 32 bits of the chassis MAC address

C.

The loopback IP address

D.

By using the command " config router ospf rid X.X.X.X "

E.

From the system IP address

F.

From the highest interface IP address

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Questions 53

What command could be used to verify proper configuration of a static route in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router?

Options:

A.

Show route-table

B.

Show router routing-table

C.

Show router route-table

D.

Show static

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Questions 54

NSSA LSA packets are what type within an NSSA area, and are converted to what other type at the ABR?

Options:

A.

They are type 7 within the area and are not modified at the ABR

B.

They are type 5 within the area and converted to type 3 at the ABR

C.

They are type 5 within the area and are not modified at the ABR

D.

They are type 7 within the area and converted to type 5 at the ABR

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Questions 55

There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the " configure router static-route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1 " command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

traceroute 10.2.3.1

B.

traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1

C.

traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1

D.

traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

E.

traceroute 10.1.2.1

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Questions 56

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 56

For the IS-IS network shown, and assuming point-to-point links, what adjacencies will router R1 establish?

Options:

A.

L1/L2 adjacency with router R2.

L1 adjacency with router R3

B.

L2 adjacency with router R2

L1 adjacency with router R3

C.

L1/L2 adjacency with router R2

L1/L2 adjacency with router R3

D.

L1/L2 adjacency with router R2.

L1 adjacency with router R4

L1 adjacency with router R3

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Questions 57

What value should the AFI be set to for locally administered addressing?

Options:

A.

1

B.

49

C.

47

D.

45

E.

39

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Questions 58

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 58

In the IS-IS network shown, router R1 has been configured to summarize network 20.20.1.0/24 and 20.20.2.0/24 as 20.20.0.0/16. Which router ' s routing table will be reduced compared to the routing table before the summarization?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Routers R1 and R2

D.

Router R4

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Questions 59

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 59

A static route has been configured on router R1 to reach the PC at 139.120.121.2. However, as shown in the exhibit, the ping fails. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Options:

A.

Router R2 does not have a route to the system address of router R1 and therefore cannot respond to the ping.

B.

There is no default route configured on the PC.

C.

Router R2 does not have a route configured to the PC.

D.

Router R1 needs to be configured with a default route.

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Questions 60

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports which two of the OSPF area types below?

Options:

A.

Not So Stubby Areas

B.

Level 1 Areas

C.

Stub Areas

D.

Partially Stubby Areas

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Questions 61

What type of OSPF router generates a type 2 LSA?

Options:

A.

Area Border Router

B.

Autonomous System Boundary Router

C.

Designated Router

D.

All routers within an OSPF area.

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Questions 62

Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true?

(Choose two answers).

Options:

A.

RIPv1, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.

B.

OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.

C.

Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the immediate neighbor.

D.

Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.

E.

Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect

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Questions 63

What are the similarities between OSPF and IS-IS? Choose two.

Options:

A.

Metric is cost based

B.

Slow convergence

C.

Automatic summarization

D.

Support CIDR

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Questions 64

Which of the following statements regarding IS-IS DIS is false?

Options:

A.

L1 and L2 routers elect separate DIS ' s.

B.

DIS uses multicast address 0180x200:0015 to communicate with other routers on the broadcast network.

C.

If a new router starts up in a LAN and has a higher interface priority, the new router preempts the original DIS and becomes the DIS.

D.

In broadcast multi-access networks, such as Ethernet, a single router is elected as the DIS. There is no backup DIS

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Questions 65

Which of the statements below best describes the pseudonode in an IS-IS network?

Options:

A.

The DIS creates a logical node to represent a group of routers on the same non-broadcast network; this node is the pseudonode

B.

The DIS creates a logical node to represent the topological database of the backbone network in an IS-IS network; this node is the pseudonode

C.

The DIS creates a logical node to represent a broadcast sub-network; this node is the pseudonode

D.

The DIS creates a logical node to represent the complete topology of an IS-IS area; this node is the pseudode

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Questions 66

What is the source IP address in an OSPF update?

Options:

A.

224.0.0.5

B.

224.0.0.6

C.

The unicast IP address of the interface the update is being sent on.

D.

The system address of the router

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Questions 67

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 67

A static route is created on router R1 " using the " static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2 " command. What command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

ping static 10.5.5.5

B.

ping static 0.0.0.0/0

C.

ping 10.5.5.5

D.

ping 0.0.0.0

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Questions 68

Refer to the exhibit below. IS-IS IPv6 routing is configured in the network with globally routed addresses as shown. How many routes will R4 have in its IPv6 route table?

4A0-C01 Question 68

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

6

F.

7

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Questions 69

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 69

In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding Type 4 LSA generation is true?

Options:

A.

Router R1 generates a Type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.

B.

Router R3 generates a Type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.

C.

Router R3 generates a Type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.

D.

Router R3 generates a Type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a Type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 2.

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Questions 70

Which of the following regarding the IS-IS PSNP is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PSNPs are used on point-to-point links to acknowledge the receipt of an LSP.

B.

There are three types of PSNPs: Level 1, Level 2, and Level 1/2.

C.

A PSNP lists some of the LSPs in the router ' s database.

D.

PSNPs are used by an IS-IS router to request LSP information from a neighboring router.

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Questions 71

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of RSVP-TE compared to LDP?

Options:

A.

RSVP-TE supports Connection Admission Control (CAC).

B.

RSVP-TE enables simplified configuration of LSPs.

C.

RSVP-TE supports path calculations that do not use IGP cost.

D.

RSVP-TE provides support for traffic protection features.

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Questions 72

Which of the following steps is mandatory when enabling an MP-BGP session between PE routers in a VPRN?

Options:

A.

Configure an autonomous system number in the global context.

B.

Configure a BGP group and peer parameters.

C.

Configure a VPN-IPv4 address family.

D.

All of the above steps are mandatory.

E.

None of the above steps are mandatory.

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Questions 73

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 73

An LSP path is established on router R1 toward router R6. If the link between routers R4 and R6 goes down, which of the following is the quickest way for service recovery?

Options:

A.

Router R1 updates its FIB after a new SPF calculation.

B.

Router R1 switches to a secondary path.

C.

Router R4 switches to a FRR path.

D.

Router R4 switches to a standby secondary path.

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Questions 74

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 74

A fully loose LSP " toR6 " is enabled with FRR protection. All links have the same cost. After the link between R2 and R4 goes down, FRR protection repairs the LSP and traffic traverses on R1-R2-R7-R8-R4-R6. Which of the following about this CSPF-enabled LSP on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The LSP will stay on the current path indefinitely unless another failure occurs.

B.

The LSP will stay on the current path until the resignal timer expires.

C.

The LSP will switchover to R1-R2-R3-R5-R6 after the resignal timer expires.

D.

The LSP will switchover to R1-R3-R5-R6 after the retry timer expires.

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Questions 75

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the OAM command ' svc-ping ' can be used with options bcal-sdp ' and ' remote-sdp ' . Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

iocal-sdp ' and ' remote-sdp ' indicate that all services using these SDPs are pinged.

B.

' Iocal-sdp ' and remote-sdp ' indicate that pings are initiated from both local and remote routers.

C.

Both ' Iocal-sdp ' and ' remote-sdp ' take parameters to specify which SDPs are used for the test.

D.

' Iocal-sdp ' indicates that the ping is sent in-band, and remote-sdp ' indicates the return ping is in-band.

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Questions 76

Which of the following about transport and service tunnels is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Service tunnels are unidirectional.

B.

Transport tunnels are unidirectional.

C.

A service will use the same service label for every hop.

D.

A local service requires a transport tunnel.

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Questions 77

Which of the following about the BGP VPN-IPv4 address family is FALSE?

Options:

A.

When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE, it creates a VPN-IFV4 prefix.

B.

VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish between duplicate prefixes originating from different customers.

C.

In a VPRN, data traffic is carried in packets that have VPN-IPv4 addresses.

D.

VPN-IFV4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.

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Questions 78

Which of the following about route distinguishes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes are appended to IPv4 prefixes to form IPv6 prefixes.

B.

CE routers use a route distinguisher to indicate which VPRN they are associated to.

C.

A route distinguisher combined with an IPv4 prefix produces a VPN-IPv4 prefix.

D.

Route distinguishes are used to determine which routes a VPRN should import.

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Questions 79

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which one of the following steps is NOT required when enabling an MP-BGP session between PE routers in a VPRN?

Options:

A.

Configuring an autonomous system number in the global context.

B.

Configuring a BGP group and peer parameters.

C.

Configuring a VPN-IPv4 address family.

D.

Configuring an export policy to advertise routes between PEs.

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Questions 80

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 80

Which tool produced this output?

Options:

A.

ping

B.

Isp-ping

C.

traceroute

D.

Isp-trace

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Questions 81

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 81

E-pipe 100 is using an SDP (4) with an LSP that uses the path shown (PE1-PE2-PE3-PE4). Which of the following is the expected output from the OAM command?

4A0-C01 Question 81

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 82

Which service type is needed to bridge an ATM-attached user and an Ethernet-attached user?

Options:

A.

A-pipe

B.

F-pipe

C.

C-pipe

D.

E-pipe

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Questions 83

What is another term to describe the default route for a client?

Options:

A.

Black hole

B.

Default gateway

C.

Gateway path

D.

Proxy ARP

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Questions 84

What acts as the tie breaker on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR if the priorities are the same when IS-IS is electing a DIS?

Options:

A.

The system ID

B.

The loopback address

C.

The sequence number of the hello packet

D.

The device that first initiated communication becomes the DIS

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Questions 85

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 85

What is the command to configure a static route on the 7750 service router R1 to reach the network behind router R2?

Options:

A.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2

B.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

C.

configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

D.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2

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Questions 86

What is wrong with the following filter configuration from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

RTR-B# configure filter

RTR-B > config > filter# ip-filter 1 create

RTR-B > config > filter > ip-filter$ entry 1 create

RTR-B > config > filter > ip-filter > entry$ match src-ip 172.2.0.0/16

RTR-B > config > filter > ip-filter > entry# action drop

RTR-B# configure router interface toRTR-A

RTR-B > config > router > if# egress

RTR-B > config > router > if > egress# filter ip 1

Options:

A.

There is nothing wrong with this filter

B.

The filter should be applied to the ingress and not the egress.

C.

The mask cannot be a " / " value, it must be in dotted decimal.

D.

All traffic is being blocked

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Questions 87

What is the CIDR summary for the block of networks from 193.4532.0/24 to 193.45.47.0/24?

Options:

A.

193.45 32 0/20

B.

193.45.0.0/21

C.

192.45.32.0/21

D.

192.45.0.0/20

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Questions 88

Choose the following components that are necessary for the configuration of a mirror service. (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

A mirror destination to indicate which ports to monitor.

B.

A mirror source to indicate which ports to monitor.

C.

A mirror destination to indicate on which sap or sdp traffic should be replicated.

D.

A mirror source to indicate on which sap or sdp traffic should be replicated

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Questions 89

Which of the following about route distinguishes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes are used to ensure that VPRN IP prefixes are globally unique.

B.

Route distinguishes are appended to IPv4 prefixes to form IPv6 prefixes.

C.

Route distinguishes are used to determine which routes a VPRN should import.

D.

CE routes use a route distinguisher to indicate which VPRN they are associated to.

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Questions 90

Which of the following about IES is TRUE?

Options:

A.

An IES requires a spoke SDP.

B.

A virtual route table must be configured for an IES service.

C.

An IES service must use static routes to communicate with customer networks.

D.

An IES must have at least one SAP defined.

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Questions 91

If the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is rebooted after an " admin save ' ' has been performed, which of the following about mirror services is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Only the mirror source must be re-configured.

B.

Only the mirror destination must be re-configured.

C.

Both the mirror destination and mirror source must be re-configured.

D.

Neither the mirror destination nor the mirror source must be re-configured.

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Questions 92

Which of the following about the components of a distributed service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

4A0-C01 Question 92

Options:

A.

A SAP can only be used by one service on a router.

B.

A dedicated SDP needs to be created for each service.

C.

A service is created on each site before the customer is created.

D.

SAPs must be created before a service is created.

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Questions 93

Which of the following best describes an SDP?

Options:

A.

Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one SAP to another on a single node.

B.

Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one service to another on a single node.

C.

Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one access port to another.

D.

Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from services on one router to services on another.

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Questions 94

An E-pipe is configured with a service MTU of 5000. What is the minimum MTU value that should be set on an access port for a dot1q encapsulated SAP on this service?

Options:

A.

5000

B.

5004

C.

5008

D.

5014

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Questions 95

A CE is connected to an IES interface. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The CE must be an IGP peer of the IES.

B.

The CE must be on the same subnet as the IES.

C.

The CE must use an E-pipe to connect to the IES.

D.

The CE must fragment any frames that are too large for the IES.

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Questions 96

Which of the following about the VPRN data plane is TRUE?

Options:

A.

A packet receives a service label and a transport label at the ingress PE.

B.

A packet has its service label swapped at each P router.

C.

The egress PE pops the service label, and the transport label is forwarded.

D.

The service label is popped by the remote CE.

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Questions 97

Which of the following comparisons between E-pipes and VPLSes is FALSE?

Options:

A.

They both function as a Layer 2 switch from the service provider ' s perspective.

B.

They both support SAP encapsulations of null, dot1Q and Q-in-Q.

C.

They both use SAPs as the demarcation point between the customer and the provider.

D.

MAC addresses are learned by VPLSes, but not by E-pipes.

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Questions 98

Why must the MTU be changed when configuring an IES spoke termination to a VPLS?

Options:

A.

The default service MTU on a VPLS service is 1514 bytes.

B.

The default IP MTU of an IES is set based on the network port MTU.

C.

During VC label signaling, the VC MTU is verified and must match.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 99

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 99

R1 and R4 are providing a VPRN for the CEs. Which of the following about the traceroute run on router R5 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The traceroute will only show one hop: R5-R6.

B.

The traceroute will only show 2 hops; R5-R1 and R4-R6.

C.

The traceroute will only show 3 hops: R5-R1, R1-R4 and R4-R6.

D.

The traceroute will show one hop for each router in the provider core and one for each CE-PE hop.

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Questions 100

When configuring an IES spoke termination to a VPLS, what must be explicitly configured in order for the service to come up? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

MTU must match on both services,

B.

Mesh-SDP with matching vc-id configured,

C.

Spoke-SDP with matching vc-id configured.

D.

Spoke-SDP.

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Questions 101

Which of the following about T-LDP on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

T-LDP is used to provide an end-to-end session between two PE routers.

B.

T-LDP is used to signal service labels for Layer 2 services.

C.

T-LDP is used to establish transport tunnels for Layer 2 services.

D.

T-LDP is used in LDP over RSVP solution.

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Questions 102

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 102

An LSP traverses the path R1-R2-R3. With one-to-one fast reroute enabled, which router becomes a DMP for the detour tunnels?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

E.

Router R5

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Questions 103

Which of the following LDP message categories is UDP-based?

Options:

A.

Notification

B.

Session

C.

Discovery

D.

Advertisement

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Questions 104

Which of the following encapsulation types on an Ethernet port support the provisioning of multiple SAPs? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Dot1Q

B.

Q-in-Q

C.

ATM

D.

NULL

E.

Nil

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Questions 105

Consider a device that uses per-platform label space; which of the following fields is NOT contained in the LFIB?

Options:

A.

Incoming label

B.

Outgoing label

C.

Incoming interface

D.

Outgoing interface

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Questions 106

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 106

Which of the following about the bypass tunnel is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The router 10.10.10.1 is a PLR providing node protection for the router 10.10.10.3.

B.

One-to-one fast reroute protection is requested by an LSP.

C.

The bypass-link tunnel is used to avoid the link with the egress interface address 10.3.4.4.

D.

The bypass-node tunnel is used to avoid the next-hop downstream router 10.10.10.3.

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Questions 107

A network consists of 4 PE routers. A customer requires a VPLS service and has sites connected to each PE. Each site must have direct connectivity with all other sites. How many SDPs must be configured on each PE?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 108

Which of the following best describes a VPWS?

Options:

A.

Layer 3 direct Internet access service.

B.

Layer 2 point-to-point service.

C.

Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.

D.

Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.

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Questions 109

Which of the following about Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR command " oam Isp-trace prefix " is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The router performs a unidirectional LSP test.

B.

The router collects hop information along the tunnel ' s path.

C.

The router uses MPLS Echo Request packets that are IP-routed,

D.

The MPLS TTL values are incremented at each request.

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Questions 110

Which of the following are characteristics of a SDP? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

SDPs are a logical way to direct traffic from one router to another.

B.

SDPs are a logical way to direct traffic between services.

C.

SDP IDs are locally unique.

D.

SDP IDs must be unique across the network.

E.

SDPs are specific to one service type

F.

SDPs must use MPLS for their encapsulation

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Questions 111

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 111

Assume that OSPFv3 is properly configured on all routers and that router R4 advertises its system prefix into Area 0.

Which of the following best describes how router R5 learns router R4 ' s IPv6 system prefix?

Options:

A.

With a Router LSA originated by router R1.

B.

With a Router LSA originated by router R5.

C.

With a Router LSA originated by router R4.

D.

With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by router R1.

E.

With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by router R5.

F.

With an Inter-Area Prefix LSA originated by router R4.

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Questions 112

Which of the following is a feature of a black-hole static route?

Options:

A.

It discards packets based on the source address.

B.

It discards packets that match the destination prefix.

C.

It returns ICMP unreachable messages.

D.

It discards packets based on the egress port.

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Questions 113

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 113

What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?

Options:

A.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.

B.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment; however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.

C.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the other routers.

D.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.

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Questions 114

An OSPF router receives an update in which the sequence number, age, and checksum are the same as the entry already in the topological database. What action is taken by the router?

Options:

A.

The link state information is not populated in the database but is forwarded to all neighbors

B.

The link state information already in the database is overwritten and the age is reset

C.

The link state information is not populated in the database and an acknowledgement is sent

D.

The link state information is regarded as old and nothing is done.

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Questions 115

When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP address, what actions are performed by the router?

Options:

A.

The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.

B.

The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.

C.

The packet is silently discarded.

D.

The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.

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Questions 116

Which of the following statements regarding IS-IS LSPs is true?

Options:

A.

There are three types of LSPs: L1, L2 and L1/L2.

B.

An LSP packet contains the ATT bits and the IS-type bits.

C.

The lower the LSP sequence number, the more current the update.

D.

Separate databases are maintained for L1 „ L2, and L1/L2 LSPs.

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Questions 117

Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.

B.

Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.

C.

An adjacency database is maintained by each router.

D.

The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.

E.

The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.

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Questions 118

In which of the following types of areas does an OSPF router not set the E bit in its Type 1 LSA?

Options:

A.

Not so stubby area

B.

Stub area

C.

Backbone area

D.

Normal area

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Questions 119

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 119

Given the topology and the show commands, and assuming that router R2 advertises all of its loopbacks into OSPF, what is the correct router R1 configuration?

4A0-C01 Question 119

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 120

Click the exhibit button.

4A0-C01 Question 120

What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the network behind router R2?

Options:

A.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2

B.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

C.

configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

D.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2

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Questions 121

What must be configured on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for RIP to advertise locally attached links?

Options:

A.

A policy statement within the router identifying what is to be advertised

B.

Access-lists denoting what is to be advertised

C.

Default metrics for each link

D.

A group and neighbor statement for each peer

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Questions 122

A static route is created using the command " static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 3.3.3.1 " . What command could be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Ping static 3.3.3.1

B.

Ping static 0.0.0.0/0

C.

Ping 3.3.3.1

D.

Ping 0.0.0.0

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Questions 123

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of RIPv1?:

Options:

A.

30 second network updates

B.

Classless routing

C.

Broadcast advertisement

D.

Poison Reverse

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Questions 124

Which of the following statements regarding area border routers in an OSPF network is true?

Options:

A.

The term backbone router has the same definition as the term area border router.

B.

An OSPF network needs at least one area border router to function.

C.

Area border routers connect the backbone area to other areas in an OSPF network.

D.

By definition, an area border router must perform route summarization between areas.

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Questions 125

Which one of the following is a valid IPv6 multicast address?

Options:

A.

ff00::1:2

B.

fe80::216:4dff:fe13:5cae

C.

::ffff:0:0.240.0.0.1

D.

2001:db8::30a:216:4dff:fe13:5cae

E.

fd01:2234:5678::1

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Questions 126

Which of the following features are supported by IS-IS? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

PDU authentication.

B.

The ability to customize the link cost metric.

C.

Use of Bellman-Ford routing algorithm.

D.

Classless routing.

E.

Updates sent as layer 3 multicast.

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Questions 127

In an OSPF Hello packet, which of the following fields must match for all neighbor routers on the segment? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

Area ID W B.

B.

Hello and Dead intervals PC.

C.

Stub flag

D.

Checksum values

E.

The list of neighbors

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Questions 128

An operator needs to provision 6VPE on a 7750 SR that is also used to provide existing IPv4 VPRN services. IPv6 VPRN customers use BGP as a PE-CE protocol. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the configuration steps required?

Options:

A.

MP-BGP sessions need to be configured in the service provider network to support a VPN-IPv6 address family.

B.

PE routers must be configured to run MP-BGP and IPv6

C.

PE-to-CE BGP sessions need to be configured to support IPv6.

D.

The provider core must be configured to support IPv6

E.

None of the above statements are false.

F.

All of the above statements are false

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Questions 129

How many SAPs can be configured on a port configured with NULL encapsulation?

Options:

A.

1

B.

4096

C.

None. This encapsulation is not supported.

D.

The number is limited only by the capacity of the router

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Questions 130

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

An OSPF adjacency can be established on an IES interface.

B.

IES allows provider MP-BGP sessions to be extended to customers.

C.

An IES service must use static routes in order to communicate with customer networks.

D.

An IES interface supports OSPF and IS-IS in passive mode only.

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Questions 131

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 131

LSP 1 ' s link between routers R3 and R6 has failed, and the RESV state at router R3 has timed out. Which of the following actions will router R3 initiate?

Options:

A.

Send a PathTear message towards router R6.

B.

Send a PathTear message towards router R1.

C.

Send a ResvTear message toward router R6.

D.

Send a ResvTear message toward router R1.

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Questions 132

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding a fully meshed VPLS service with a default setting? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

The vc-id on the mesh-sdp must be explicitly configured.

B.

The vc-id on the mesh-sdp is automatically assigned by a PE using the service id.

C.

The VPLS service id, on all PE routers, does not have to match.

D.

The VPLS service id, on all PE routers, must match.

E.

If dynamic signaling is required, the signaling on all PE routers must be set to TLDP in the configuration of the SDPs.

F.

The signaling on all PE routers will default to TLDP in the configuration of the SDPs; therefore, no configuration change is required for dynamic signaling.

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Questions 133

Which tree in the CLI would you need to be in to add a QoS policy to a SAP?

Options:

A.

config > router#

B.

config > qos#

C.

config > port#

D.

config > service#

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Questions 134

VPWS allows carriers to offer services such as point-to-point frame-relay, ATM, and Ethernet on a single platform without the need for multiple overlay networks.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 135

Which of the following about LSP path configuration on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The path must include at least one hop.

B.

The path may be used for multiple LSPs.

C.

The path may be used multiple times in a single LSP.

D.

The path must define a tunnel destination IP address.

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Questions 136

When a physical port is configured for null encapsulation, many SAPs can be configured using that port.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 137

Which of the following about an LSP protected with one-to-one FRR is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The LSP can use facility and one-to-one FRR simultaneously.

B.

The LSP is limited to node protection.

C.

A single protection tunnel is used for all LSPs with the same path.

D.

A detour protection tunnel is created for the LSP.

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Questions 138

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a VPRN data plane flow?

Options:

A.

A data packet will receive a service label at the CE and a transport label at the ingress PE.

B.

A data packet intended for a remote CE will have its service label swapped at each P router along the path towards the egress PE.

C.

At the egress PE, the transport label will be popped and the data packet forwarded with the service label.

D.

The service label is popped by the remote CE. The unlabeled packet is forwarded based on the longest match lookup algorithm in the VRF.

E.

All of the above statements are false.

F.

All of the above statements are true.

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Questions 139

An LSP is configured with a fully loose path and CSPF is not enabled. An LSR receives the first PATH message for this LSP. Which of the following is NOT performed by the LSR?

Options:

A.

The LSR regenerates and forwards a new PATH message.

B.

The LSR stores the PATH message in the PSB.

C.

The LSR forwards the PATH message based on the HOP object in the RSB.

D.

The LSR looks up the PATH message ' s destination IP address in the FIB.

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Questions 140

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of an MP-BGP in a VPRN?

Options:

A.

Routes from different customers with the same IPv4 address prefix are treated as equivalents by MP-BGP.

B.

Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR routers support MP-BGP for VPN label signaling in a VPRN service only if LDP is used for LSP signaling.

C.

The multi-protocol nature of MP-BGP allows VPRN routes to be distributed within the provider core network as IPv4 routes.

D.

MP-BGP is an enhanced version of BGP that can carry a service label, a tranpot label, and customer route prefixes.

E.

None of the above statements describe the use of an MP-BGP in a VPRN.

F.

All of the above statements describe the use of an MP-BGP in a VPRN.

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Questions 141

Which of the following statements best describes a route target?

Options:

A.

A route target is a BGP extended community used to identify the VRF table for a prefix at the receiving PE

B.

A route target is a mechanism from which VPRN controls the distribution of VPN routing information.

C.

Route target attributes are earned in a MP-BGP as attributes of the route.

D.

A route target is used by the PE router to identify the VRF that a VPN-lPv4 prefix is associated with.

E.

All of the above statements describe a route target

F.

None of the above statements describe a route target

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Questions 142

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 142

LSP " to R8-5 " requests fast reroute protection. What could be done to remove the Failure Code shown?

Options:

A.

The LSP must be enabled with CSPF on the head-end router.

B.

Fast reroute must be enabled on the downstream routers.

C.

A mixture of strict and loose hops must be defined in the primary path.

D.

CSPF and fast reroute must be enabled on all downstream routers.

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Questions 143

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR has its TE update threshold enabled with the up threshold set to 40%. The maximum reservable bandwidth on the link is 200M and 30M have already been reserved. When will a TE update be sent on this link?

Options:

A.

When the reserved bandwidth goes above 80M.

B.

When the reserved bandwidth goes above 40M.

C.

When an additional 80M bandwidth is reserved.

D.

When an additional 40M bandwidth is reserved.

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Questions 144

Which VPWS service would be used to create a point-to-point Frame Relay service?

Options:

A.

Epipe

B.

Apipe

C.

Fpipe

D.

Ipipe

E.

Cpipe

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Questions 145

Which of the following is a characteristic of LDP Hello messages?

Options:

A.

They are multicast to the All Hosts address.

B.

They are broadcast to the subnet broadcast address.

C.

They are multicast to the All Routers address.

D.

They are broadcast or multicast, depending on the physical media.

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Questions 146

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the VPN label?

Options:

A.

The VPN label is signaled between PE devices using MP-BGP.

B.

The VPN label is swapped at each P router as a packet crosses the service provider network.

C.

The VPN label is also known as the inner label or service label.

D.

The VPN label indicates which VPRN a packet should be sent to once it reaches the egress PE.

E.

All of the above

F.

Only C and D.

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Questions 147

A service can be either local or distributed.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 148

Which of the following is NOT a service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

IES

B.

VPWS

C.

VPLS

D.

VPRN

E.

L2TP

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Questions 149

Which of the following describes 6PE?

Options:

A.

P routers run IPv4 only. PE routers run IPv4 only and exchange IPv6 routes using MP-BGP.

B.

P routers run IPv4 only. PE routers run both IPv4 and IPv6 and exchange IPv6 routes using MP-BGP.

C.

P routers run IPv6 only. PE routers run both IPv4 and IPv6 and exchange IPv4 routes using MP-BGP.

D.

P routers run IPv6 only. PE routers run IPv6 only and exchange IPv4 routes using MP-BGP.

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Questions 150

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 150

An LSP path is established on router R1 toward router R6. After router R4 detects that the link between routers R4 and R6 goes down, which of the following will affect the failure propagation time?

Options:

A.

The time router R4 takes to send a PATH Error message toward the head-end router.

B.

The time router R4 takes to detect RSVP Hello message timeout from router R6.

C.

The time router R4 takes to send a RESV Error message to the head-end router.

D.

The time router R1 takes to signal an alternate path through router R3.

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Questions 151

An LSP is enabled with one-to-one fast reroute and node protection. What action does the PLR take if node protection cannot be provided?

Options:

A.

The PLR attempts to provide link protection.

B.

The PLR disregards the request after three failed attempts.

C.

The PLR changes the PATH message to request link protection.

D.

The PLR brings down the primary LSP-path.

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Questions 152

Which of the following about Fast Reroute node protection tunnels is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Node protection tunnels detour around a failed next downstream router.

B.

Node protection tunnels can only be requested for a primary LSP path.

C.

Node protection tunnels are only used by one-to-one Fast Reroute.

D.

Link protection tunnels are established if a router is unable to establish node protection tunnels.

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Questions 153

In a Layer 2 encapsulation, using Martini, what does the second (bottom) label represent?

Options:

A.

Tunnel Label

B.

VC Label

C.

Operational Control Word

D.

VPI

E.

VCI

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Questions 154

Which of the following is a function of the control plane in an MPLS router?

Options:

A.

Label swapping

B.

Pushing a label on an unlabeled packet

C.

Label allocation

D.

Routing lookups

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Questions 155

3 Epipe services and 2 VPLS services have been configured between two PE routers. How many service labels will be signaled in total?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

E.

6

F.

10

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Questions 156

Which of the following messages is NOT used in T-LDP operation?

Options:

A.

Hello message

B.

Init message

C.

Keepalive message

D.

Label Mapping message

E.

ACK message

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Questions 157

Which of the following statements is true when the implicit null is implemented?

Options:

A.

The penultimate router will POP the top label from the packets.

B.

The eLER will receive packets with a top label value of 3.

C.

The eLER will receive packets with a top label value of 0.

D.

The penultimate router will always receive unlabeled packets.

E.

The penultimate router performs a double lookup on the packet.

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Questions 158

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 158

An OSPFv3 router is attached to a non-OSPF domain that includes networks 2001:DB8:8::/64.2001 .DB8:9::/64 and 2001 :DB8:A::/64. Other routers in the OSPF domain see the prefix 2001, DB8:8::/64, but not the other two prefixes.

What could cause this?

Options:

A.

The router is not configured as an asbr.

B.

The router is not configured as an NSSA.

C.

The export policy is not applied to OSPFv3.

D.

The prefix list should be 2001:DB8:8::/46

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Questions 159

On a point-to-point link, two directly connected routers set different interface hello timeout values. Router R1 uses 15 seconds, while router R2 uses 30 seconds. What happens to the LDP adjacency?

Options:

A.

The adjacency forms with the lower timeout value

B.

The " show router Idp session " command output displays the adjacency in state " init "

C.

The adjacency forms with the higher timeout value

D.

The adjacency times out after 30 seconds

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Questions 160

Which of the following regarding IS-IS DIS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

L1 and L2 routers elect separate DIS ' s.

B.

DIS uses a specific Ethernet multicast address to communicate with other routers on the broadcast network.

C.

If a new router starts up in a LAN and has a higher interface priority, the new router preempts the original DIS and becomes the DIS.

D.

In broadcast multi-access networks, such as Ethernet, one router is elected as the DIS and a second router as the backup DIS.

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Questions 161

Which LSA type is not found in point-to-point only OSPF networks?

Options:

A.

Type 1 Router LSA

B.

Type 2 Network LS A

C.

Type 3 Summary LSA

D.

Type 5 External LSA

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Questions 162

Which of the following describes what happens when facility backup fast reroute is enabled for a LSP? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

Each PLR will signal a bypass tunnel that avoids the next-hop node or link.

B.

When a failure occurs, the PLR will push an additional label onto the label stack and start forwarding traffic onto its bypass tunnel.

C.

The ingress router will include a RRO object in the path message to indicate the routers that should be PLRs and MPs along the protected path.

D.

The ingress router will set the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object of the path message to inform all routers along the protected LSP path to establish bypass tunnels.

E.

When the bypass tunnel is in use, the MP will include the RRO object in its PathErr message, with the local protection in use flag set to notify the ingress router that it is using the bypass tunnel.

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Questions 163

Which type of OSPF LSA lists the routers attached to a broadcast network?

Options:

A.

Type 1

B.

Type 2

C.

Type 3

D.

Type 4

E.

Type 5

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Questions 164

Which of the following statements regarding DiffServ-TE LSPs is true?

Options:

A.

The Maximum Allocation Model (MAM) provides the most efficient bandwidth utilization model

B.

In the Maximum Allocation Model (MAM), each CT receives dedicated bandwidth constraints.

C.

In the Russian Doll Model (RDM), a CT2 LSP automatically preempts a CT1 LSP.

D.

Using the Russian Doll Mode! (RDM), a CT1 LSP may use unreserved CTO bandwidth.

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Questions 165

LDP is enabled on both ends of a point-to-point link, but the " show router Idp status " command indicates that LDP is operationally down. The Oper Down Reason field shows the message " systemIpDown. " What might cause this condition?

Options:

A.

The LSP is in the administrative down state.

B.

The router ' s router ID overlaps another.

C.

The router ' s interfaces do not have LDP running.

D.

The router ' s system interface requires an IP address

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Questions 166

Which of the following regarding the IS-IS CSNP is FALSE?

Options:

A.

CSNPs are used to maintain consistency in the Link-State database.

B.

CSNPs are advertised before an adjacency is formed with another router.

C.

There are two types of CSNPs: Level 1 and Level 2.

D.

The CSNP lists the LSPs in the router ' s database

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Questions 167

Which of the following about 6over4 is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The CE routers run only IPv6.

B.

The PE routers must run IPv4 and IPv6.

C.

The P routers must run IPv4 and IPv6.

D.

IPv6 routes on the PE routers may have an IPv4 address as the next hop.

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Questions 168

What is the replacement for ARP in IPv6?

Options:

A.

The use of Broadcast messages in combination with Neighbor Advertisement messages.

B.

The use of Anycast addresses in combination with Neighbor Advertisement messages.

C.

The use of Solicited-node multicast addresses in combination with Neighbor Advertisement messages.

D.

The use of Anycast addresses in combination with Link-Local Advertisement messages.

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Questions 169

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 169

192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3.

Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?

Options:

A.

Add the " originate-default-route " option in the NSSA area configuration on router R3.

B.

Add the " summaries " option to the NSSA area configuration on router R1.

C.

Configure a static route on router R1 to 192.168.3.1.

D.

Configure a default route on router R2.

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Questions 170

Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address equivalent to 2001:0da8:0000:0000:0024:0000:4ab9:0300?

Options:

A.

2001:0da8:::0024:0000:4ab9:03

B.

2001:0da8::0024::4ab9:0300

C.

2001:da8::24::4ab9:300

D.

2001:da8::24:0:4ab9:300

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Questions 171

Which of the following configurations allow a router to periodically attempt to move LSP traffic to a better path, if the head end can find one?

Options:

A.

configure router mpls retry-timer 30

B.

configure router mpls resignal-timer 30

C.

configure router mpls retry-attempts 30

D.

configure router mpls global-revertive 30

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Questions 172

Which of the following best describes an OSPF Type 3 LSA?

Options:

A.

A Type 3 LSA is generated by an ASBR only when route summarization is configured.

B.

A Type 3 LSA is generated by an ABR only when route summarization is configured.

C.

A Type 3 LSA is generated by an ASBR to describe routes to routers outside the area.

D.

A Type 3 LSA is generated by an ABR to describe routes to routers outside the area.

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Questions 173

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 173

Examine the physical topology of the IS-IS network, the metrics of the links and the levels of the routers. All routers have a system address included in IS-IS.

Which of the following describes the route that router R4 will use to reach the system address of router R6?

Options:

A.

Router R4 will have a route to router R6 ' s system address with router R2 as the next-hop.

B.

Router R4 will have a default route with router R2 as the next-hop.

C.

Router R4 will have a default route with router R3 as the next-hop.

D.

Router R4 will not have a route that can be used to reach the system address of router R6.

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Questions 174

To configure 6over4 tunneling, where must indirect static routes be configured?

Options:

A.

On the CEs only.

B.

On the PEs only.

C.

On only the branch office CE.

D.

On both the CEs and PEs.

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Questions 175

A router running a link-state protocol sends an update to a neighbor. The neighbor sends an update back.

Why would the neighbor do this?

Options:

A.

The neighbor ' s link-state database has newer information than what it received in the update.

B.

The neighbor sends the update as an acknowledgement.

C.

The neighbor ' s update indicates that it has run out of space in its LSDB.

D.

The neighbor ' s update indicates that the sequence number received is the same as the one already in its link-state database.

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Questions 176

A VPLS receives a frame with the single VLAN tag 35 on the Q-in-Q SAP 1/1/1:35.*. Which of the following describes default Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR behavior?

Options:

A.

The frame is dropped.

B.

The VLAN tag is removed, and the frame is transported over the network.

C.

The VLAN tag is kept, and the frame is transported over the network.

D.

The VLAN tag is kept, a VLAN of 0 is added, and the frame is transported over the network.

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Questions 177

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which vc-type will strip service delimiting tags at the ingress PE?

Options:

A.

vc-type ether

B.

vc-type vlan

C.

vc-type dotlq

D.

vc-type null

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Questions 178

Which of the following about the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR sdp-ping is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It tests the IGP reachability of the far-end IP address of an SDP.

B.

It tests that the MTU settings of a service are correct.

C.

It tests in-band, uni-directional or round-trip connectivity of SDPs.

D.

It tests the reachability of hosts connected to an SDP.

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Questions 179

An interface has a MAC address of 24-16-4d-16-b5-3d. What link-local address will be assigned to this interface?

Options:

A.

fe80::2416:4dff:fe16:b53d

B.

fe80::2616:4dff:fe16:b53d

C.

ff80::2416:4dff:fe 16:b53d

D.

ff80::2616:4dff:fe 16:b53d

E.

fd80::2416:4dff:fe16:b53d

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Questions 180

Click on the exhibit button below:

4A0-C01 Question 180

Consider the following:

- Router R2 is an ABR in OSPF Areas 0 and 1.

- Router R2 advertises the aggregate prefix 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1.

- Router R1 in Area 0 generates LDP labels for FECs 10.10.102/31 and 10.10.10.4/31

Router R3 in Area 1 places these FECs in its LIB, but it does not place them in its LFIB. What can you do on router R3 to make it populate these labels in its LFIB?

Options:

A.

Disable route summarization on router R3

B.

Enable LDP aggregate prefix match

C.

Create an import policy to accept these FECs

D.

Disable LDP exact match on the specified FECs

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Questions 181

Click on the exhibit button below. Assume the following:

4A0-C01 Question 181

- The protected path is R1-R2-R3-R6.

- Fast reroute one-to-one protection is enabled.

If the original LSP already has two labels, and router R2 has failed, how many labels will there be in packets on the detour path?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 182

What is the significance of receiving a packet with the bottom MPLS label S bit set to 1?

Options:

A.

It results in forwarding based on the next packet header.

B.

It indicates that the label is the bottom of the MPLS label stack.

C.

It indicates that the label is the top of the MPLS label stack.

D.

Any LSR that receives an S bit set to 1 must discard the packet.

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Questions 183

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 183

The operator of an IS-IS network wishes to have link metrics dynamically calculated in the same manner as OSPF. The router with system address 10.10.10.1 is one hop away on a 1Gbps link

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

The router is correctly configured.

B.

Neither a reference-bandwidth nor wide-metrics is configured on the router.

C.

A reference-bandwidth is configured on the router but wide-metrics is not.

D.

Wide-metrics is configured on the router but a reference-bandwidth is not.

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Questions 184

Which part of the NSAP address is used to indicate to the end system that a packet is to be processed by the router itself?

Options:

A.

AFI

B.

IDI

C.

HO-DSP

D.

NSEL

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Questions 185

Which of the following best describes a unicast IPv6 address?

Options:

A.

Fixed total of 128 bits, where 64 bits are used for routing and 64 bits are used as an interface identifier.

B.

Fixed total of 128 bits, where 32 bits are used for the global prefix, 32 bits are used for the subnet and 64 bits are used as an interface identifier.

C.

Variable total length, where at least 48 bits are used for the global prefix, 48 bits are used for the subnet and 64 bits are used as an interface identifier.

D.

Variable total length, where at least 64 bits are used for routing and 64 bits are used as an interface identifier

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Questions 186

Two IS-IS routers are exchanging Hello packets with different authentication types. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Different authentication types are not possible because IS-IS only supports password authentication.

B.

An adjacency will not be formed.

C.

The two routers negotiate the authentication type and then reach the up state.

D.

Only an L2 adjacency will form, as long as both routers are L2 capable.

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Questions 187

Router R3 signals an LSP, reserving 1Gbps bandwidth on a 10Gbps link. RSVP configuration limits reservable bandwidth to 20 percent on the egress interface. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The egress RSVP interface has 80 percent bandwidth unreserved.

B.

LSPs can reserve an additional 9.9 Gbps bandwidth on this RSVP interface.

C.

The head end reserves 100Mbps for the LSP.

D.

The egress RSVP interface has 1Gbps bandwidth unreserved.

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Questions 188

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 188

The output is from PE router R4 about VPRN service 100. How many prefixes have been learned from the MP-BGP protocol?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

3

D.

6

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Questions 189

A VPRN service is configured with BGP used as the CE-PE routing protocol. What address families are required on the PE-CE BGP session?

Options:

A.

VPN-IPv4 address families are required in order for routes to be exchanged with the PE.

B.

Only default IPv4 address families are required since the CE is not aware of the VPRN service

C.

Either IPv4 or VPN-IPv4 address families can be configured on the PE-CE BGP session

D.

An IPv4 address family configuration is required for the PE-PE configuration.

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Questions 190

Which of the following commands is used to enable an E-pipe service?

Options:

A.

config > service= epipe < service-id > enable

B.

config > service~ vpws < service-id > enable

C.

config > service= < service-id > no shutdown

D.

config > port= < port-id > no shutdown

E.

config > service= epipe < service-id > no shutdown

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Questions 191

Which of the following about VPLS MAC learning is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Mesh SDPs assist MAC learning by flooding traffic to other mesh SDPs.

B.

A PE keeps a single FDB for all VPLSes it has.

C.

Frames received on a SAP that are broadcast, multicast or unknown are flooded.

D.

The FDB only stores the MAC addresses of remote sites.

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Questions 192

Which protocol is used to signal the inner label for a L2-VPN service?

Options:

A.

RSVP

B.

IPCP

C.

TLDP

D.

PPP

E.

Either RSVP or LDP

F.

M-BGP

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Questions 193

On a dot1Q encapsulated port, frames with a VLAN tag of 0 and untagged frames are forwarded to the null SAP

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 194

Which of the following SAPs will forward all tagged and untagged frames on the port?

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1

B.

sap 1/1/1:*.0

C.

sap 1/1/1:0.*

D.

1/1/1:0

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Questions 195

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which vc-type will forward service delimiting tags at the ingress PE?

Options:

A.

vc-type ether

B.

vc-type vlan

C.

vc-type dot1q

D.

vc-type null

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Questions 196

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, why must the MTU be explicitly set when configuring an IES spoke termination to a VPLS?

Options:

A.

By default, a VPLS signals an MTU based on the network port.

B.

By default, an IES sets its ip-mtu to the VC MTU of the VPLS.

C.

By default, an IES uses an MTU value based on its SAP.

D.

By default, an IES uses an MTU based on the network port.

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Questions 197

A service provider wishes to configure a Layer 2 service that will forward customer VLAN tags. When configuring an SDP for the service, which vc-type will forward service delimiting tags on the ingress PE?

Options:

A.

vc-type ether

B.

vc-type vlan

C.

vc-type dot1q

D.

vc-type null

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Questions 198

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 198

Based on the output shown, what is the value of the service ' s VC ID?

Options:

A.

2

B.

12

C.

30

D.

44

E.

100

F.

The VC ID Cannot be determined from the output

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Questions 199

Which of the following is a benefit of VPRN as compared to VPLS?

Options:

A.

Service providers can apply QoS, ingress/egress traffic shaping and policing on a per service basis.

B.

Different customers with overlapping address space can be accommodated.

C.

There is a clear demarcation of customer and service provider networks.

D.

Customers can connect to the same service using different subnets.

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Questions 200

Consider a network that has four PE routers. If a customer wants a VPLS that has sites on only three of the PEs, how many mesh SDPs need to be configured for this service?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

12

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Questions 201

Which of the following about the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR svc-ping, when used in-band, is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It will show the hops taken between service endpoints.

B.

It will test the delay across the service.

C.

It will test the SDPs of a service in both directions.

D.

It will test the round-trip connectivity of the service.

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Questions 202

Which of the following regarding 6VPE is FALSE?

Options:

A.

6VPE is a tunneling technology that makes use of MPLS tunnels to transport IPv6 prefixes over an IPv4 infrastructure.

B.

Customers connected to 6VPE can run IPv6 or IPv4.

C.

On a PE router, if the MP-BGP next hop is an IPv4 address, a mapped IPv6-compliant address will be used.

D.

6VPE implements its own VPN-IPv6 address family and is a replacement for MP-BGP.

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Questions 203

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 203

Router R1 distributes its globally routed address and its loopbacks into IS-IS. Routers R2 and R4 have their globally routed addresses in IS-IS.

How many routes will router R4 have in its IPv6 route table?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

E.

6

F.

7

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Questions 204

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 204

The OSPF adjacency between routers R1 and R3 does not come up.

Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?

Options:

A.

Stub must be configured on Area 1 of router R1, and removed from Area 1 on router R3.

B.

Stub must be configured on Area 1 of router R1 and Area 1 of router R3.

C.

Stub must be configured on Area 0 of router R1 and Area 1 of router R3.

D.

Area 1 of router R3 should be Area 0, in order to connect via stub to router R1.

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Questions 205

Which of the following statements regarding admin groups is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Admin groups can be configured using the command " configure > router > mpls > admin-group " .

B.

CSPF uses the information defined by admin groups when paths are computed for constraint-based LSPs.

C.

By default, interfaces for which MPLS has been enabled are in the default admin group.

D.

A LSP can make use of admin groups for constraint-based path calculations by including or excluding the admin group

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Questions 206

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 206

Given the output, which of the following is the most accurate statement about the network?

Options:

A.

There are five broadcast links and there are no point-to-point links.

B.

There are five broadcast links and there are five point-to-point links.

C.

There are five broadcast links. It ' s not possible to say how many point-to-point links there are.

D.

It ' s not possible to say how many broadcast or point-to-point links there are.

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Questions 207

In OSPFv3, which of the following LSA types carries prefixes and is only flooded in the area where it is generated?

Options:

A.

Link

B.

AS External

C.

Router

D.

Intra-Area Prefix

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Questions 208

Which of the following timers can be adjusted to reduce the time a router waits between attempts to re-establish an LSP after it has failed?

Options:

A.

Isp retry-timer

B.

Isp retry-limit

C.

mpls resignal-timer

D.

rsvp refresh-time

E.

router rsvp keep-multiplier

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Questions 209

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 209

Which of the following best describes the format of data traffic sent to the server as it exits from the PC?

Options:

A.

The destination IP address will be the system IP address of router R1 and the destination MAC address will be the MAC address of the router R1 port connected to the PC.

B.

The destination IP address will be the IP address of the router R1 port connected to the PC and the destination MAC address will be the MAC address of the router R1 port connected to the PC.

C.

The destination IP address will be the IP address of the server and the destination MAC address will be the MAC address of the server.

D.

The destination IP address will be the IP address of the server and the destination MAC address will be the MAC address of the router R1 port connected to the PC.

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Questions 210

Click on the exhibit button below.

4A0-C01 Question 210

Given the configuration below, what is the system ID of the destination node?

Options:

A.

10.32.1.2

B.

10.1.478

C.

1048.1.1

D.

Cannot tell from this configuration

E.

10.1.2.2

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Questions 211

If routers R1 and R2 have a Level 1 and Level 2 IS-IS adjacency, which of the following statements are true? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

Routers R1 and R2 are in different areas,

B.

Routers R1 and R2 are in the same area.

C.

Routers R1 and R2 will send a Level 1 Hello PDU and Level 2 Hello PDU, if the interface type between them is point-to-point.

D.

Routers R1 and R2 will send a Level 1 Hello PDU and Level 2 Hello PDU, if the interface type between them is broadcast.

E.

Routers R1 and R2 will send a Level 1/2 Hello PDU, if the interface type between them is broadcast.

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Questions 212

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 212

Router R1 distributes its loopbacks into IS-IS and globally routed addresses are configured as shown.

How many routes will router R4 have in its IPv6 route table?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

6

F.

7

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Questions 213

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 213

A static route has been configured on router R1 to reach the PC at 139.120.121.2. What else is required to make the ping succeed?

Options:

A.

A default route on router R2 to router R1.

B.

A default route on the PC to router R2.

C.

A static route on the PC to router R2 and a static route on router R2 to the PC.

D.

A default route on router R1 to router R2.

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Questions 214

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 214

Router R1 learns the network 192.168.3.0/24 from IS-IS. Given the OSPF configuration shown, why isn ' t the 192.168.3.0/24 route in router R3 ' s route table?

Options:

A.

The route policy should be applied as an import policy.

B.

The route policy should say " from protocol isis " instead of " from protocol direct " .

C.

The ASBR configuration should be removed.

D.

The interface between routers R1 and R3 must be in OSPF area 0.

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Questions 215

Which OSPFv3 LSA type is similar in function to the OSPFv2 Type 4 LSA?

Options:

A.

Link

B.

Intra-Area Prefix

C.

Inter-Area Prefix

D.

Inter-Area Router

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Questions 216

What type of packet will cause an OSPF router to respond with a link-state request packet?

Options:

A.

Hello

B.

Link-state request

C.

Link-state acknowledgment

D.

Link-state update

E.

Database description

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Questions 217

The solicited node address for the destination node address of 2001:DB8::30A:216 4DFF:FE14:6CAE is:

Options:

A.

2001::FF:FE:14:6CAE

B.

2001::1:FF:14:6CAE

C.

FF02.DB8::30A:216:4DFF:FE14.6CAE

D.

FF02::1:FF14:6CAE

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Questions 218

You wish to advertise LDP labels for all local networks; which is the most effective policy statement to use?

Options:

A.

from prefix-list direct

B.

match local

C.

from protocol direct

D.

match protocol direct

E.

from protocol local

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Questions 219

Click on the exhibit button below.

4A0-C01 Question 219

With fast reroute enabled, and given the following:

    Two protected LSPs with the path R1-R2-R3

    Both LSPs enable facility bypass and link protection.

When router R1 is the PLR, which router becomes the MP?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

E.

Router R5

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Questions 220

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 220

A static route has been configured on router R1 to reach the PC at 139.120.121.2. What might be causing the ping to fail?

Options:

A.

Router R2 needs a static route to the PC.

B.

Router R2 needs a default to router R1.

C.

Router R1 needs a default route to router R2.

D.

The static route should use a next-hop of 172.31.1.2

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Questions 221

In an OSPF network, which of the following is NOT a result of manual summarization on an ABR?

Options:

A.

It can reduce the topological database size.

B.

It can reduce the size of the route table.

C.

It can reduce the number of Summary LSAs.

D.

It can reduce the number of Router LSAs.

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Questions 222

How have Traffic Engineering extensions to IS-IS been implemented?

Options:

A.

By defining new LSAs for the IS-IS protocol.

B.

By utilizing the OSPF opaque LSAs to maintain interoperability with OSPF routing domains

C.

By defining new TE extension TLVs to the IS-IS protocol.

D.

By enabling CSPF algorithm extensions that allow link state TE to be implemented.

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Questions 223

Which of the following reservation styles can be used to prevent both the primary and secondary paths from booking resources on a common link?

Options:

A.

Fixed filter

B.

Shared explicit

C.

Standby explicit LSP

D.

Preemptive filter

E.

Link capacity filter

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Questions 224

Which one of the following statements regarding RSVP LSP configuration is true?

Options:

A.

LSPs must always terminate on a system ID.

B.

MPLS and RSVP must be enabled on all routers.

C.

Interfaces must be individually created in RSVP.

D.

Path definitions must include at least one hop entry.

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Questions 225

If the destination IP address of a received unlabeled packet is successfully matched in the FIB, which of the following statements are true? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

A PUSH label stack operation must be performed.

B.

The outgoing interface and next-hop address will be determined from the FIB.

C.

The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet.

D.

A POP label stack operation may be performed.

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Questions 226

What is the function of the MPLS label assigned to a packet?

Options:

A.

It identifies the FEC.

B.

It specifies the packet ' s header length

C.

It identifies the origin of the packet.

D.

It specifies the type of data contained in the packet

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Questions 227

Which of the following LDP messages are used in the successful establishment of LDP sessions? Choose three answers

Options:

A.

Label request message

B.

Notification message

C.

Address message

D.

Keepalive message

E.

Initialization message

F.

Hello message

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Questions 228

The destination IP address of a received unlabeled packet is successfully matched in the FIB.

Which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A POP label stack operation may be performed.

B.

The outgoing interface and next-hop address will be determined from the FIB.

C.

The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet.

D.

A PUSH label stack operation may be performed.

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Questions 229

When multiple routing protocols offer a route for the same prefix, what part of the router is in charge of deciding which route to make active?

Options:

A.

The routing information base (RIB).

B.

The routing table manager (RTM).

C.

The equal cost multipath configuration (ECMP).

D.

The forwarding information base (FIB).

E.

The link state database (LSDB).

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Questions 230

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 230

Router R5 is advertising the three loopbacks prefixes shown in OSPFv3. The following command is executed on router R1: R1# configure router ospf3 area 0 area-range FD00:11:11:5000:764.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the OSPFv3 LSDB on R6?

Options:

A.

Router R6 will have a single Router LSA that describes the summary prefix.

B.

Router R6 will have three Router LSAs - one to describe each loopback prefix.

C.

Router R6 will have a single Inter-Area Prefix LSA to describe the summary prefix.

D.

Router R6 will have three Inter-Area Prefix LSAs - one to describe each loopback prefix.

E.

Router R6 will not have any LSAs to describe the loopback prefix or the summarized prefix.

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Questions 231

How is the DR selected when an OSPF router is added to a broadcast network?

Options:

A.

The current DR is selected, if there is one. Otherwise, the router with the lowest priority is the DR. If priorities are the same, the DR is chosen based on the lowest RID.

B.

The current DR is selected, if there is one. Otherwise, the router with the highest priority is the DR. If priorities are the same, the DR is chosen based on the highest RID.

C.

The router with the lowest priority is the DR. If priorities are the same, the current DR is selected. Otherwise the DR is chosen based on the lowest RID.

D.

The router with the highest priority is the DR. If priorities are the same, the current DR is selected. Otherwise the DR is chosen based on the highest RID.

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Questions 232

Which of the following statements regarding LSPs are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

IGP-based LSPs are established solely from information contained in routing tables.

B.

The constraint-based routed LSP is calculated at the ingress of the network, based on the router database and user defined constraints.

C.

The constraint-based routed LSP is calculated at each hop of the LSP, based on the route table and user defined constraints.

D.

IGP-based LSPs must use LDP signaling.

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Questions 233

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 233

OSPF is operational on all links in the network diagram, all links are the same cost, and all routers are configured with an ECMP value of 4. Router R4 advertises the prefix 192.168.3.0/24 into OSPF.

How many entries for prefix 192.168.3.0/24 will be in router R5 ' s routing table?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

E.

4

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Questions 234

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 234

A static route has been configured on router R1 to reach the PC at 139.120.121.2. What might be causing the ping to fail?

Options:

A.

Router R2 needs a static route to the PC.

B.

Router R2 needs a default to router R1.

C.

Router R1 needs a default route to router R2.

D.

The static route should use a next-hop of 172.31.1.2

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Questions 235

An IS-IS router receives a CSNP that references an older LSP than the one in its database. What action is taken?

Options:

A.

The router sends a copy of the LSP from its database to its neighbor.

B.

The router sends a PSNP to its neighbor describing the LSP in its database.

C.

The router updates its database with the LSP and floods a copy to its other neighbors.

D.

The router sends a PSNP to its neighbor to request the LSP.

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Questions 236

FRF.5 is a standard that describes which of the following requirements?

Options:

A.

ATM to Frame Relay translation.

B.

Frame Relay to Ethernet translation.

C.

ATM tunneling over a Frame Relay core network.

D.

Frame Relay tunneling over an ATM core network.

E.

Frame Relay tunneling over an MPLS/IP core network

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Questions 237

Which of the following commands is used to enable an Epipe service?

Options:

A.

config > service# epipe service-id enable

B.

config > service# vpws service-id enable

C.

config > service# service-id no shutdown

D.

config > port# port-id no shutdown

E.

config > service# epipe service-id no shutdown

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Questions 238

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 238

An LDP-over-RSVP tunnel is established between routers R1 and R6. There is a VPN service running between routers R1 and R6. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R4 swaps both the RSVP-TE LSP label and LDP transport label received with new labels,

B.

Router R4 swaps the VPN service label received with a new label.

C.

Router R4 uses the same RSVP-TE LSP label as the one received from router R3.

D.

Router R4 uses the same LDP transport label as the one received from router R3.

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Questions 239

What distinguishes a VPLS service from a VPWS service?

Options:

A.

VPLS supports point-to-point connections.

B.

VPLS supports multipoint-to-multipoint connections

C.

VPLS supports a distributed service

D.

VPLS supports a local service on a single node.

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Questions 240

Which of the following modes are used by RSVP-TE on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Independent control mode, downstream on demand

B.

Independent control mode, downstream unsolicited

C.

Ordered control mode, downstream on demand

D.

Ordered control mode, downstream unsolicited

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Questions 241

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the VRF?

Options:

A.

The VRF is a virtual router on the PE router that contains the customer ' s routes for the VPRN

B.

Each PE maintains multiple VRFs based on the number of PE peers it connects to.

C.

Each PE has a VRF for each VPRN service provisioned on the router.

D.

All of the above.

E.

Only A and C.

F.

Only A and B

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Questions 242

Click on the exhibit button below.

4A0-C01 Question 242

Assuming the customer only needs to monitor traffic from PE3 to the customer site, what three items are missing from PE3 ' s configuration? (Assume that the IP/MPLS network structure between the local and remote PEsis in place.)

Options:

A.

The mirror destination configuration on PE5 is missing the " remote-source " command,

B.

The mirror destination on PE3 needs a " remote-source " command.

C.

The mirror service IDs on the local and remote destinations must match.

D.

The mirror source on PE3 needs a " remote-source " command.

E.

The mirror source command on the remote PE3 needs a command that tells it to monitor port 1/1/2.

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Questions 243

To enable the LDP-over-RSVP feature, which of the following configurations is NOT required on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Enable the Idp-over-rsvp feature on all PEs and ABRs along the LSP tunnel.

B.

Configure Link-LDP sessions between each PE-ABR and ABR-ABR pair.

C.

Configure RSVP-TE LSPs in each area between each PE-ABR and ABR-ABR pair.

D.

Configure T-LDP sessions with the tunneling option.

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Questions 244

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 244

The LSP " toR6 " is configured with a fully strict path on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. Which of the following configurations is required to enable fast reroute for this LSP?

Options:

A.

Enable fast-reroute on all routers along the path. R1, R2, R4, and R6.

B.

Enable both link-protection and node-protection on router R1.

C.

Enable fast-reroute with either one-to-one or facility mode on this LSP.

D.

Enable link-protection only on router R4.

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Questions 245

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of MPLS?

Options:

A.

It provides the ability to establish connection oriented paths over a connectionless IP network.

B.

It provides a mechanism to engineer network traffic patterns independently of IP routing tables.

C.

It will work over most physical layer protocols.

D.

It can use GRE tunnels to transport data from many different protocols over an IP network.

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Questions 246

Which of the following about RSVP-TE is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It supports traffic protection using IGP equal cost paths.

B.

It supports CAC to prevent resource overbooking.

C.

It supports LSPs with traffic engineering constraints.

D.

It supports LSPs that follow the IGP best path.

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Questions 247

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 247

Both Path-1 and Path-2 are down. If Path-2 becomes available again, how does the headend router select the secondary LSP path?

Options:

A.

The router will switch to Path-2 because it is the first secondary path configured in the list.

B.

The router will not switch to Path-2 because the current path has the longest uptime.

C.

The router will switch to Path-2 because it is a more preferred path.

D.

The router will not switch to Path-2 because the router will not revert to another secondary path.

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Questions 248

Which of the following commands is required to configure an Ethernet port to be used as a SAP in a service?

Options:

A.

Configure service sap sap-id access

B.

Configure port port-id Ethernet mode access

C.

Configure port port-id Ethernet mode network

D.

Configure port port-id mode access

E.

Configure port port-id mode network

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Questions 249

An LSP is configured with one-to-one FRR and node protection on a Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. Which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Each PLR signals a protection tunnel that avoids the downstream node.

B.

A single protection tunnel can protect all LSPs that go through the same hop.

C.

A link protection tunnel is signaled if a node protection tunnel cannot be established.

D.

Protection tunnels used in this LSP are also detour tunnels.

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Questions 250

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 250

The link between routers R4 and R6 are configured with an admin group " red " . What happens when the LSP is first signaled?

Options:

A.

The LSP will go through the path R1-R2-R4-R6.

B.

The LSP will go through the path R1-R3-R5-R6.

C.

The LSP is down because router R1 detects that no path can meet its constraints.

D.

The LSP is down because router R4 detects that no path can meet its constraints.

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Questions 251

Using facility mode fast reroute, how does the PLR learn the address of the MP?

Options:

A.

The PLR issues an RSVP PATH message to the tail-end requesting the address of the MP.

B.

The PLR learns the address of the MP from the ERO.

C.

The PLR learns the address of the MP from the RRO.

D.

The PLR learns the address of the MP from the targeted RSVP Hello message.

E.

The PLR knows the address of the MP is the same as the tail-end router.

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Questions 252

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 252

RSVP state for LSP 1 has timed out on router R3. Which of the following actions will router R3 initiate to clear the RSVP session?

Options:

A.

Send a RESV Tear message toward router R6.

B.

Send a RESV Tear message toward router R1.

C.

Send a RESV Error message toward router R6.

D.

Send a RESV Error message toward router R1.

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Questions 253

Which of the following defines a SAP that will select frames with an outer tag of ' 4 ' and ignore any inner lag on a Q-in-Q encapsulated port?

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1:0.*

B.

sap 1/1/1

C.

sap 1/1/1:*.4

D.

sap 1/1/1:4.*

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Questions 254

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 6VPE?

Options:

A.

Multiple MP-BGP sessions are required to carry VPN-IPv4 and VPN-IPv6 routes.

B.

PE routers must support both IPv4 and IPv6 addresses; customer routers can use either one

C.

In 6VPE, MP-BGP is used to advertise IPv6 prefixes and the associated VPRN label.

D.

In 6VPE, the provider core routers are IPv6-unaware.

E.

All of the above statements are true.

F.

All of the above statements are false.

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Questions 255

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C01 Question 255

An LSP ' s primary path takes R1-R3-R5-R6. Its fully loose secondary path is configured for SRLG. All links are of equal cost. Which path will the secondary path take?

Options:

A.

The secondary path will take R1-R3-R2-R4-R6.

B.

The secondary path will take R1-R2-R4-R6.

C.

The secondary path will take R1-R2-R3-R5-R6.

D.

The secondary path will take R1-R3-R2-R4-R5-R6.

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Exam Code: 4A0-C01
Exam Name: Nokia NRS II Composite Exam
Last Update: May 14, 2026
Questions: 852

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