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4A0-C02 Nokia SRA Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

In the IEEE 802.1 ag, how are merged services detected?

Options:

A.

The MEP sees the CFM frame from a different MEG.

B.

The MEP sees a different service-id in the frame sent by a MEP.

C.

The MIP transmits the service-id for each service. The MIP should only see it ' s own service-id.

D.

This is a function of 802,3ah EFM,

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Questions 5

Which of the following describes the overhead added to a customer frame on an Ethernet link in a VPLS service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

The overhead consists of 26 bytes. 14 DLC + 2 Ethertype + 8 for mpls labels + 2 for GRE

B.

The overhead consists of 14 bytes for DLC.

C.

The overhead consists of 18 bytes. 14 DLC +4 for mpls labels

D.

The overhead consists of 22 bytes. 14 DLC + 8 for mpls labels

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Questions 6

Which of the following is a function of the data plane that must be considered when provisioning a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

Number of LSPs.

B.

Number of TLDP sessions.

C.

Number of SDPs.

D.

MAC address consumption in the FDB.

E.

Bandwidth and replication requirements.

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Questions 7

How does PBB forward broadcast, unknown-unicast and multicast traffic from a B-VPLS to an l-VPLS?

Options:

A.

The receiving PE checks the l-TAG in the l-SID to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

B.

The receiving PE checks the l-SID in the l-TAG to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

C.

The receiving PE checks the service label in the mpls header to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

D.

The receiving PE checks the multicast B-DA to see if an l-SID has been mapped to the B-DA that matches a local l-VPLS on the node.

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Questions 8

One of the shortcomings of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is that it computes a valid, but not necessarily optimal, path between nodes within a network.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 9

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 9

Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?

Options:

A.

It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2.

B.

The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be no mac address association.

C.

Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1.

D.

Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4.

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Questions 10

A LAG is configured with LACP passive mode enabled. When will LACP packets be sent?

Options:

A.

On initialization and then every hello-interval.

B.

Only after receiving LACP packets.

C.

Every 1 second.

D.

Never.

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Questions 11

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 11

The SAP on PE-A has been configured with dot1q encapsulation. The SAP on PE-B has been configured with qinq encapsulation. CE-A sends frames with a single tag of 100. The VLAN tag from CE-A must be passed transparently. CE-B is expecting a frame with a top tag of 200 and bottom tag of 100. Which of the following is the correct SAP id for PE-B?

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1:200.100

B.

sap 1/1/1:200*

C.

sap 1/1/1:*

D.

sap 1/1/1:0*

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Questions 12

After the " disable-learning " command has been executed at the VPLS level, a new client device originates a frame. What is the result?

Options:

A.

If the MAC address of this new client device does not reach the upper limit of the configured total number of MAC addresses allowed in the VPLS forwarding database, then the new MAC address will be stored.

B.

The new source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS service forwarding database.

C.

New local source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS service forwarding database, but new remote MAC addresses would continue to be entered.

D.

New remote source MAC addresses will not be entered in the VPLS services forwarding database, but new local MAC addresses would continue to be entered.

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Questions 13

What is the default service-mtu for a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

1500

B.

1514

C.

1518

D.

It depends on the access port MTU.

E.

It depends on the network port MTU.

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Questions 14

What action will be taken when an MPLS router receives a frame with a label that does not exist in the LFIB?

Options:

A.

The frame will be flooded.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be fragmented.

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Questions 15

Which of the following SAP encapsulations supports only one service on a port?

Options:

A.

Dot1Q

B.

Null

C.

Q-in-Q

D.

Ipcp

E.

BCP

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Questions 16

Which PDU type is sent periodically over a link in the IEEE 802.3ah EFM as a method of keepalive?

Options:

A.

Event notification.

B.

Loopback control.

C.

Information.

D.

Variable request.

E.

Variable response.

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Questions 17

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 17

In the diagram below, SAP 1 is put into the blocking state as a result of the spanning tree protocol. What will occur in the VPLS instance if SAP 2 goes down and SAP 1 transitions to the forwarding state? Select the most accurate statement.

Options:

A.

A Spanning Tree BPDU will be sent across the mesh flushing the FDB table in all devices participating in the VPLS instance.

B.

Stale information will be used within the VPLS instance to forward traffic until the FDB ages out.

C.

An LDP control message will be sent to all devices in the mesh participating in the VPLS instance. Only MAC addresses associated with the PE that the failure occurred on will be flushed.

D.

An LDP control message will be sent to all devices in the mesh participating in the VPLS instance. The entire FDB in the VPLS instance will be flushed.

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Questions 18

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 18

In the following diagram, traffic ingressing on SAP 1/2/3:1 will be passed to the layer-2 DPI device for inspection based on a filter policy applied to the ingress of the SAP. What feature should be enabled on SAP 1/2/1:100 and SAP 1/2/2:100 to ensure that incorrect information is not populated in the FDB of VPLS 1?

Options:

A.

Learning should be disabled on both SAPs connected to the DPI device to prevent FDB instability

B.

A MAC filter should be applied to both SAPs connected to the DPI to limit MAC learning on the port

C.

An IP filter should be applied to both SAPs connected to the DPI to prevent FDB instability

D.

The SAPs connected to the DPI should be configured with the " discard-unknown " feature to limit MAC learning on the port

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Questions 19

Port 1/1/1 has been configured as an access port with QinQ encapsulation. Which of the following three statements are true for ingress traffic assuming default configuration? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1:*.0 is a valid sap id.

B.

sap 1/1/1:100* will accept frames with a single tag of 100.

C.

sap 1/1/1:200* will strip the top tag of 200 and the bottom tag will be transparently passed.

D.

sap 1/1/1:0* will accept all untagged frames.

E.

sap 1/1/1:0* will accept any tagged frames.

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Questions 20

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 20

If the device connected to PE-A in Metro A sends a frame to PE-A that requires replication within the VPLS which devices is PE-A responsible for replicating the frame to?

Options:

A.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all devices participating in the VPLS

B.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all PEs within Metro A

C.

PE-A must replicate the frame to all devices in the Metro A

D.

All of the above

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Questions 21

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 21

CE-A sends frames with 2 tags. If the SAP on PE-A is " sap 1/1/1:1 .* " and the SAP on PE-B is " sap 1/1/1:100.200 " how many tags will there be on the frame when it egresses from the SAP on PE-B?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 22

The following question relates to this command syntax: " config > service# vpls 9000 customer 6 create " . Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The customer-id in this command is 9000.

B.

The service-id in this command is 9000.

C.

This value 9000 should be unique across the network as a best practice.

D.

The vc-id will be 6 for the service by default.

E.

The egress vc-label will be 9000.

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Questions 23

Why are provisioning requirements a factor that influence VPLS design? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Adding or removing a node may require several network touches.

B.

Adding or removing a SAP may require several network touches.

C.

Adding or removing a service may require several network touches.

D.

Adding or removing an Epipe may require several network touches.

E.

Provisioning is a factor for all Ethernet services.

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Questions 24

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 24

Assume there are two VPLS services configured on the MDU. How could load-balancing be achieved when using Active/Standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

This cannot be done.

B.

Each VPLS will use the same pair of SDP ' s with the same endpoint configured with the option " load-balancing 2 " .

C.

Each VPLS will need their own pair of spoke-SDP ' s configured. The spoke-sdp ' s that are to be active should be configured with the option " precedence primary " .

D.

Under the end-point configuration, enable load-balancing 2 and the MDU will load balance automatically.

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Questions 25

An l-VPLS is configured with a service id of 511. What will the value of the l-SID be assuming a default configuration?

Options:

A.

The 1-SID must be explicitly configured.

B.

The 1-SID only supports a range from 1 to 255.

C.

The 1-SID will default to 511 .the value of the service-id.

D.

Thel " SIDwilldefaultto131582, the value of the service-id + 131071.

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Questions 26

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 26

Based on the output below which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

VPLS1500 is a user VPLS.

B.

VPLS 1500 is management VPLS.

C.

Spanning tree BPDUs for the management VPLS are tagged.

D.

Spanning tree BPDUs for the management VPLS are untagged.

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Questions 27

How is the Primary Bridge chosen in a VPLS?

Options:

A.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh run a separate Spanning Tree instance in the Core. The Primary Bridge is the Root Bridge for the VPLS mesh.

B.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge is closest to Root Bridge. This bridge becomes the Primary Bridge.

C.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge has the lowest bridge-id. This bridge becomes the Primary Bridge.

D.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge is the Root Bridge. This becomes the Primary Bridge.

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Questions 28

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 28

Which port will become the alternate port?

Options:

A.

Bridge B 1/1/3

B.

Bridge B 1/1/2

C.

Bridge C 1/1/2

D.

Bridge C 2/1/1

E.

Bridge D 1/1/1

F.

Bridge D 1/1/3

G.

Bridge E 1/1/1

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Questions 29

What is the default fdb size for a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

100

B.

1

C.

25

D.

250

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Questions 30

MAC explosion is best described as a large amount of MAC addresses being withdrawn and relearned?

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 31

What action will be taken when an Ethernet switch receives a frame with a known DA and an outer Ethertype value of 0x0800 on a dot1q encapsulated port?

Options:

A.

The frame will be forwarded out the port associated with the DA.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be flooded to all ports.

D.

The frame will be fragmented and forwarded out the port associated with the DA.

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Questions 32

The " discard-unknown " command has been enabled at the VPLS level. Which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Broadcast traffic will be flooded.

B.

If the unicastSA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

C.

If the unicast DA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

D.

All traffic will be dropped, including multicast and broadcast.

E.

Broadcast traffic will be dropped.

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Questions 33

Two management VPLSs have been created. mVPLS 1 and mVPLS 2. Two user VPLS services exist. uVPLS 10 and uVPLS 20. What command can be used to determine which management VPLS is managing uVPLS 10?

Options:

A.

show stp 10

B.

show service vpls 1 stp

C, show service id 10 stp

C.

show service id 1 stp or show service id 2 stp

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Questions 34

Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an AS to be considered multi-homed?

Options:

A.

A single connection to a single service provider.

B.

Two connections to a single service provider.

C.

Two connections to two different service providers.

D.

Multiple connections to different service providers.

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Questions 35

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 35

For the inter-AS model A VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1.1?

Options:

A.

CE2 forwards an unlabeled IP packet to PE2 via the VPRN interface.

B.

PE2 pushes two labels on the IP packet and label-switches the packet to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR2 pops one label from the IP packet and label-switches it to ASBR1.

D.

ASBR1 pushes two labels on the IP packet and label-switches the packet to PEL.

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Questions 36

In the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below, what does the highlighted text represent?

4A0-C02 Question 36

Options:

A.

The LDP identifier

B.

The Service identifier

C.

The Route Target

D.

The Route Distinguisher

E.

The tunnel label

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Questions 37

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 37

Which of the following is a valid BGP configuration for router R2?

4A0-C02 Question 37

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 38

When an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a BGP route with an AS Path loop, what action is taken by default?

Options:

A.

The route is ignored.

B.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the LOC-RIB.

C.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-In.

D.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-Out.

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Questions 39

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 39

Router R6 is a route reflector with clients R1, R2, R4 and R5. R4 receives three routes from router R6 and is configured with ECMP 3. Given the following BGP configuration on router R4, how many primary and backup paths will be present in router R4 ' s BGP routing table?

4A0-C02 Question 39

Options:

A.

Two primary paths and one backup path.

B.

One primary path and two backup paths.

C.

Three primary path and one backup path,

D.

Three primary paths.

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Questions 40

Which of the following is considered a best practice for BGP address planning?

Options:

A.

Advertising external networks into IGP.

B.

Using system addresses for setting up iBGP sessions.

C.

Exporting the networks associated with the external links of eBGP peers into BGP.

D.

Optimizing BGP route table by exporting IGP routes into BGP.

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Questions 41

Click on the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 41

AS 65540 is using MPLS to provide BGP shortcuts for its iBGP routing. Which routers must be configured with the " configure router bgp igp-shortcuts rsvp-te " command?

Options:

A.

Routers R6, R1, R4 and R5.

B.

Routers R1and R4.

C.

Routers R1, R2, R3 and R4.

D.

Routers R2 and R3.

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Questions 42

Which of the following commands would correctly configure the confederation AS number as 65200 with a member AS of 65202?

Options:

A.

config > router- confederation 65200 members 65202

B.

config > router > bgp= confederation 65200 members 65202

C.

config > router= confederation 65202 members 65200

D.

config > router > bgp= confederation 65202 members 65200

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Questions 43

Which of the following is a characteristic of inter-AS model C VPRN?

Options:

A.

A data packet destined to a remote AS is encapsulated with three labels within the originating AS.

B.

The ASBR redistributes VPN-IPv4 updates to its ASBR eBGP peers.

C.

PE routers in different ASes exchange IPv4 routes directly between each other using eBGP.

D.

The advertising ASBR assigns a new label to the route before sending it via an MP-eBGP update to its ASBR peer.

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Questions 44

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which CLI command displays the Route Target(s) associated to a prefix?

Options:

A.

Show router bgp routes

B.

Show router route-table summary

C.

Show router bgp routes vpn-ipv4 detail

D.

Show router route-table

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Questions 45

For a Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN where the customer carrier is an ISP that provides Internet connectivity to its end-customers, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

All traffic exchanged between end-customers is carried over a single CSC VRF.

B.

Customer carrier PE routers residing in different sites must run eBGP between them to exchange customers ' routes.

C.

The customer carrier network can be a pure IP network.

D.

MPLS can be used in the customer carrier network to improve scalability.

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Questions 46

What operation is performed by a P device on the label signaled by MP-BGP when it receives a labeled packet for a VPRN service?

Options:

A.

It will label switch the packet based on this label

B.

It will decrement the TTL and label switch the packet based on this label

C.

It will SWAP the label for a new label and then label switch the packet

D.

The P router does not perform any operation on this label

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Questions 47

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 47

For the inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following protocols is used to advertise routes between PE1 and ASBRI?

Options:

A.

iBGP

B.

eBGP

C.

MP-iBGP

D.

MP-eBGP

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Questions 48

Why would a selective export policy be applied to a customer VPRN service? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

To limit the number of routes advertised from a customer site

B.

To limit the number of routes learned from other customer sites CTo limit the size of the VRF table

C.

To limit connectivity to selected customer networks

D.

To perform packet filtering

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Questions 49

For the data packets in a VPRN, how is the inner label in an MPLS packet signaled?

Options:

A.

Signaled via MP-BGP and used to identify the egress PE.

B.

Signaled via T-LDP and used to identify the customer VPRN.

C.

Signaled via MP-BGP and used to identify the customer VPRN.

D.

Signaled via RSVP and LDP and used to identify the egress PE.

E.

Signaled via RSVP and LDP and used to identify the customer VPRN.

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Questions 50

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 50

For the extranet VPRN and community lists shown, which of the following communities will be included in the export policy applied to VPRN 20 on router R2?

Options:

A.

" Blue-Only "

B.

" Blue-Only " and " Blue-Green "

C.

" Green-Only "

D.

" Extranet-VPN-Green "

E.

" Blue-Green "

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Questions 51

Which of the following about BGP loops in a VPRN environment is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traditional BGP loop detection mechanisms may detect a loop in the VPRN scenario, which in fact is not present.

B.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR accepts routes containing AS_PATH loops by default.

C.

When the CLI command " config > router > bgp# loop-detect discard-route " is used, the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR sends a notification to the remote peer and drops the BGP session.

D.

In VPRN implementations where the CE-PE protocol is BGP, it is possible for separate sites of the same customer to use the same BGP autonomous system number.

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Questions 52

Based on the VPRN BGP decision process, which of the following routes is selected first if the command " PE1 > config > service > vprn > bgp best-path-selection as-path-ignore " is executed?

Options:

A.

The route learned from an eBGP peer.

B.

The route with the lowest Origin.

C.

The route with the lowest originator ID or BGP Identifier.

D.

The route with the shortest AS path.

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Questions 53

Click the exhibit button below. Traffic arriving at router PE 1 is marked with a dot1p value of 4. Given the network policies applied on the routers in the diagram below, what is the EXP value of packets arriving at router PE 2?

4A0-C02 Question 53

Note: Only relevant portions of the network policy are shown.

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

6

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 54

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The primary contributors to latency are distance, scheduling, and congestion.

B.

The weighted round robin scheduling algorithm will result in more delay for high priority traffic than the regular round robin algorithm.

C.

The round robin scheduling algorithm will result in less jitter for low priority traffic than a strict priority scheduler.

D.

Packet loss can be reduced by decreasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

E.

Latency can be reduced by increasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

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Questions 55

At which points can traffic be marked or remarked on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SAP-ingress only

B.

SAP-egress only

C.

SAP-ingress and SAP-egress

D.

Network ingress

E.

Network egress

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Questions 56

How does an IOM3 improve the queue usage over an IOM2 in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The IOM3 adds more memory to both forwarding complexes which increases the total number of queues available.

B.

The IOM3 only contains a single forwarding complex which reduces the number of queues used.

C.

The IOM3 allows multiple forwarding classes to be assigned to a single queue.

D.

The IOM3 allows queues to be dynamically allocated between ingress and egress.

E.

The IOM3 has a larger CPU capable of tracking active hardware queue utilization and adjusting memory allocation accordingly.

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Questions 57

What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

5

F.

8

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Questions 58

Which of the following entities can scheduler policies be applied to? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Network ingress port

B.

Epipe ingress SAP

C.

ES egress SAP

D.

Ingress MDA

E.

VPRN ingress interface

F.

Shared buffer space

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Questions 59

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, where can network-queue policies be applied? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

On the network egress port.

B.

On the SDP.

C.

On the access ingress port.

D.

On the egress MDA.

E.

On the SAP.

F.

On the ingress MDA.

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Questions 60

Which of the following about the Route Target is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The Route Target is added to an IPv4 route to create the VPN-IPv4 route.

B.

The Route Target is an extended community string that identifies VPN membership.

C.

A route can have only one Route Target.

D.

The Route Target is a 64-bit value added to customer prefixes to make them unique.

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Questions 61

When a PE node receives a PBB encapsulated frame on a B-VPLS, how does the PE determine which l-VPLS it belongs to?

Options:

A.

The l-TAG in the l-SID is inspected to determine where the frame should be delivered.

B.

When the B-MAC header is stripped the customer MAC address is then looked up in the FDB

C.

The l-SID in the l-TAG is inspected to determine where the frame should be delivered.

D.

The PE inspects the service label in the MPLS header before stripping the B-MAC header.

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Questions 62

Which of the following technologies allows for two explicit VLAN tags to be received from a customer device?

Options:

A.

RSVP-TE

B.

SP-VLAN

C.

QinQ

D.

Dot1Q

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Questions 63

Which of the following are required for an operational mesh-sdp binding for bidirectional traffic when signaling is enabled within the SDP? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

LDP must be enabled.

B.

RSVP must be enabled.

C.

An SDP must be configured on the far-end.

D.

Service MTU must match.

E.

SDP ID must match.

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Questions 64

Why should you configure send-flush-on failure on your PE routers when using active/standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

It flushes the local FDB speeding recovery

B.

It discards all packets in the queue and sends icmp-discad messages to the sender. The packets are re-transmitted resulting in no loss of data.

C.

On failure, the PE sends an LDP flush-all-from-me message to all PE devices in the VPLS. This speeds convergence to the new topology.

D.

It is not important to use send-flush-on-failure as Active/Standby signalling automatically converges the FDB in all VPLS instances

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Questions 65

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 65

Which bridge will become the root bridge?

Options:

A.

Bridge B

B.

Bridge C

C.

Bridge D

D.

Bridge E

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Questions 66

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 66

Based on the output below which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

This Bridge is furthest from the Root Bridge within the VPLS mesh.

B.

This Bridge is the Root Bridge.

C.

SAP 1/1/1 is an Edge Port.

D.

This Bridge is closest to the Root Bridge within the VPLS mesh.

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Questions 67

Which of the following is TRUE if the local state of BGP is OpenConfirm?

Options:

A.

The local system has received a Keepalive message and is ready to exchange updates.

B.

The local system is exchanging Update messages with its neighbor.

C.

The local system has sent a Keepalive message to its neighbor and is waiting to receive one back.

D.

The local system has sent an Open message to its neighbor and is waiting to receive one back.

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Questions 68

What is the default Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR TTL of a BGP advertisement between confederation members?

Options:

A.

1

B.

32

C.

64

D.

255

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Questions 69

Upon the successful establishment of a TCP session between peers, what type of BGP message is exchanged?

Options:

A.

OpenSent

B.

Keepalive

C.

Open

D.

Notification

E.

Update

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Questions 70

Which of the following AS Paths will match the regular expression " 65100. " ?

Options:

A.

" 65100 "

B.

" 65100 65200 ' '

C.

" 65200 65100 "

D.

" 65100 65250 65200 "

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Questions 71

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 71

Given that ISP 1 and ISP 2 are Tier 2 providers, and that ISP 3 and ISP 4 are Tier 1 providers, what is the most likely relationship between the ISPs?

Options:

A.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private transit relationship.

B.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public transit relationship.

C.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public peering relationship.

D.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private peering relationship.

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Questions 72

Which of the following about inter-AS model B VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Model B does not require the configuration of VPRN instances on the ASBRs.

B.

The ASBRs exchange data packets that are encapsulated with a transport label and a service label.

C.

The route target advertised in one AS is maintained and used in the remote AS.

D.

The CLI command " configure router bgp enable-inter-as-vpn " is required on the ASBRs.

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Questions 73

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 73

For the PE hub and spoke VPRN, which communities should be imported under the VPRN service on PE2?

Options:

A.

" Spoke.Sites " and " Hub_Site "

B.

" Hub_Site "

C.

" Spoke_Sites "

D.

No communities should be imported

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Questions 74

Which of the following regarding the connections between eBGP peers is TRUE?

Options:

A.

eBGP peers typically use system addresses for session establishment.

B.

eBGP peers are managed under a single administration.

C.

eBGP peers do not propagate updates learned via iBGP.

D.

eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.

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Questions 75

Assuming that " client1 " and " client2 " are directly-connected networks, what is the result of executing the following BGP export policy?

4A0-C02 Question 75

Options:

A.

" client2 " routes will be only tagged with communities ' East ' ' and " South " .

B.

" client2 " routes will be tagged with community " East " .

C.

" client2 " routes will only be tagged with community " South " .

D.

" client2 " routes will be rejected.

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Questions 76

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 76

Router R1 is advertising prefix 192.168.1.0/27 with community " no-export. Which routers will receive an update for that prefix?

Options:

A.

Router R2 only.

B.

Routers R2 and R3 only.

C.

Routers R2, R3 and R4 only.

D.

Routers R2, R3, R4and R5.

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Questions 77

What is the purpose of configuring a triggered-policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Policy changes are delayed until the peer router with the affected routes reboots.

B.

Policy changes are delayed until route updates for affected BGP routes are received from peers.

C.

Policy changes are delayed until BGP sessions are cleared or BGP is reset.

D.

Policy changes are delayed until the router reboots.

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Questions 78

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 78

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that router R6 is configured with " advertise-external " , what is the expected output of " show router bgp routes " when executed on router R1?

4A0-C02 Question 78

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 79

Which of the following statements are TRUE when discussing self-generated traffic QoS? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

In order to mark Layer 2 traffic, sgt-qos will set various ToS bits.

B.

DSCP bits can be set per application, per routing instance.

C.

The DSCP marking stays nc1 for all applications. Only the internal FC is manipulated across different applications.

D.

In order to mark Layer 2 self-generated traffic, network interfaces must be set to dot1Q.

E.

The internal forwarding class for self-generated traffic is set once and applied to the base router and all VPRN instances.

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Questions 80

A network port using null encapsulation has a MTU of 1514 bytes. When MPLS transport is used without FRR, what is the maximum service MTU of a VPLS using that port?

Options:

A.

1536

B.

1514

C.

14%

D.

1492

E.

1488

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Questions 81

By default, how does a hybrid port on a Nokia 7750 SR share its allocated buffer space between access and network pools?

Options:

A.

All buffer space is initially allocated to access pools, and some of it is reallocated to network pools if network interfaces are configured on it.

B.

All buffer space is initially allocated to network pools, and some of it is reallocated to access pools if service SAPs are configured on it.

C.

Buffer space is allocated 50% for access pools and 50% for network pools.

D.

Buffer space is allocated 25% for access pools and 75% for network pools.

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Questions 82

With hierarchical scheduling, up to ___________ tiers are supported on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

Options:

A.

8

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

E.

6

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Questions 83

What happens to the MAC entries in the VPLS FDB when " disable-aging " is executed at the VPLS levels

Options:

A.

The individual SAPs and SDPs will age out MAC addresses for this VPLS.

B.

Aging will be disabled for locally-learned MAC addresses for this VPLS.

C.

Aging will be disabled for both local and remote MAC addresses for this VPLS.

D.

Aging will be disabled for remote MAC addresses for this VPLS.

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Questions 84

The policies shown below from the configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR have been created to implement an Extranet VPRN between the main sites of two separate VPRNs. How should these policies be applied?

Options:

A.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 1

B.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 2

C.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

D.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

E.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on all PEs connected to sites of Customer 1

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Questions 85

In a VPRN, how does the service provider ensure that customer addresses are unique when multiple customers use the same address space?

Options:

A.

It is the customer responsibility to ensure their address space is unique

B.

The Route Distinguisher ensures that addresses are unique between customers.

C.

The Route Target ensures that addresses are unique between customers

D.

The provider will advise the customers to change their addresses

E.

The provider will use NAT to ensure that addresses are unique between customers

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Questions 86

Which single command will verify the state of auto-bind, the configured Route Distinguisher and Route Target, in addition to the SAP and SDP bindings for a particular service on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Show service all

B.

Show service id < service-id > detail

C.

Show service id < service-id > base

D.

Show service id < service-id > bindings

E.

Show service sap-using

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Questions 87

Which of the following about Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

CSC eliminates the need for customer carriers to build and maintain their own MPLS backbone.

B.

CSC is also known as carrier ' s carrier or carrier serving carrier.

C.

The customer carrier provides VPN or Internet services to its end-customers.

D.

A CSC VPRN is configured on the customer carrier ' s CSC-CE routers.

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Questions 88

What is the minimum number of Route Distinguishers required to implement an overlapping VPRN involving 5 different customers?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

5

D.

7

E.

10

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Questions 89

A CE hub and spoke VPRN has two spoke sites; which of the following would be the best option to implement this topology at the hub site PE?

Options:

A.

One VPRN, one route distinguisher, and two route targets

B.

Two VPRNs, one route distinguisher, and three route targets

C.

Two VPRNs, two route distinguishers, and three route targets

D.

One VPRN, two route distinguishers, and three route targets

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Questions 90

Which of the following statements about Spanning Tree Protocol is true?

Options:

A.

For the switches that are non-root or designated switches, the port with the highest combined cost to the root is the root port.

B.

In the case where two switches have the same priority, the switch with the lowest MAC address becomes the root.

C.

The switch port that is the greatest distance from the LAN to the root is the designated port.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 91

When using the AS-override method to prevent BGP loops in VPRNs, where should the " as-override " CLI command be configured?

Options:

A.

On the PE facing the CE neighbor

B.

On the CE facing the PE neighbor

C.

On the P facing the PE neighbor

D.

On the PE facing the PE neighbor

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Questions 92

Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured with _________________.

Options:

A.

A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE

B.

MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.

C.

MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE

D.

MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices

E.

A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for exchanging routes with the PE

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Questions 93

Which of the following is not a valid BGP design for a network provider supporting VPRNs?

Options:

A.

Full mesh of MP-BGP between all P devices

B.

Full mesh of MP-BGP between PE devices

C.

Route reflector configuration between PE devices

D.

Confederation configuration between PE devices

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Questions 94

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 94

The CLI command " remove-private " is configured on PE1 to eliminate BGP loops in the VPRN. For the displayed route, what is the value of the AS-Path field?

Options:

A.

64496 64512

B.

64512

C.

64496

D.

64512 64496

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Questions 95

During the process of troubleshooting a VPLS problem the " oam mac-purge " command with " register " option was used to purge a MAC address from the FDB. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done once customer traffic resumes.

B.

Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done with the " oam mac-populate " command.

C.

Customer traffic destined to the MAC address that was purged will be dropped until the MAC address is relearned with the " oam mac-populate " command.

D.

Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done with the " oam mac-register " command.

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Questions 96

What is the default remote-age timer of a B-VPLS?

Options:

A.

The same timer is used in all VPLS types.

B.

Higher than the default timer of an I-VPLS.

C.

Lower than the default timer of an l-VPLS.

D.

The same timer as an l-VPLS.

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Questions 97

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 97

The service MTU on PE-A is 1514 bytes and the service MTU on PE-C is 1518 bytes. What is the status of the mesh-sdp between PE-A and PE-C?

Options:

A.

The mesh-sdp will be up.

B.

The mesh-sdp will be down.

C.

The mesh-sdp will only be up on PE-A.

D.

The mesh-sdp will only be up on PE-C.

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Questions 98

What must be enabled in order to prevent a loop within a LAG?

Options:

A.

RSTP

B.

Dynamic-cost

C.

LACP active

D.

Nothing, There are no loops in LAGs

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Questions 99

Which of the following statements about a management VPLS are true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

A management VPLS carries customer traffic over the non-blocking spoke-SDP

B.

A VPLS service must be defined as a management VPLS upon creation to take on the role of a management VPLS

C.

The state of a spoke-SDP within a user VPLS will take on the state of the spoke-sdp within the management VPLS.

D.

The management VPLS must be created before the user VPLS.

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Questions 100

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 100

Assume the port on CE-A is sending two tags, a top tag of 100 and a bottom tag of 500. PE-A is configured with a SAP id of 1/1/1:100.*. How should PE-B be configured if CE-B is expecting a top tag of 200 and a bottom tag of 500?

Options:

A.

PE-B will require a SAP id of " sap 1/1/1:500* " .

B.

PE-B will require a SAP id of " sap 1/1/1:100* " .

C.

PE-B will require a SAP id of " sap 1/1/1:500.200 " .

D.

PE-B will require a SAP id of " sap 1/1/1:200* " .

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Questions 101

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 101

Management VPLS 100 has been created for redundant spoke-SDP connections. User VPLSs 10 and 20 are using the same spoke-SDPs that are being managed by VPLS 100. Unexpected behavior has been reported. Based on the following output, what is the most likely reason for the unexpected behavior?

Options:

A.

VPLS 100 was not actually configured as a management VPLS.

B.

VPLS 10 and VPLS 20 are not actually configured as a user VPLS.

C.

VPLS 10 and VPLS 20 are not using the same spoke-sdps that the management VPLS is using.

D.

Based on the output there is now way of telling if there is a problem with the configuration.

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Questions 102

Which element of IEEE 802.1ag is responsible for initiating CFM messages?

Options:

A.

MEP

B.

MAP

C.

MIP

D.

MUP

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Questions 103

In IEEE 802.1ag, which two key functions are configured on bridge ports (SAPs and SDPs) to support CFM messages? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

MEP

B.

MAP

C.

MIP

D.

MUP

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Questions 104

To reduce the amount of flooding between PE devices which of the following steps should be taken?

Options:

A.

Configure the local age timer to be larger.

B.

Configure the local age timer to be lower.

C.

Configure the remote age timer to be larger.

D.

Configure the remote age to be lower.

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Questions 105

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 105

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is a BGP/MPLS service provider. If CE1 sends an IP packet to 192.168.200.1, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 pushes a VPN label, a BGP label, and an LDP transport label on the IP packet.

B.

CSC-CE1 pops the LDP label and swaps the BGP label.

C.

CSC-PE1 pops the BGP label, swaps the VPN label, and pushes an LDP transport label.

D.

CSC-PE2 pops the LDP and VPN labels and pushes a BGP label.

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Questions 106

Which of the following VPRN topologies must a customer implement to allow a given VRF to include routes from different VPRNs?

Options:

A.

Either a hub and spoke or an extranet VPRN

B.

An extranet VPRN

C.

A hub and spoke VPRN

D.

Either a full mesh or a hub and spoke VPRN

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Questions 107

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 107

For the inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1.1?

Options:

A.

PE2 pushes one label on the IP packet and forwards it to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR2 forwards the IP packet with one label to ASBR1.

C.

ASBR1 forwards the IP packet with two labels to PEL

D.

PE1 forwards an unlabeled IP packet to CE1.

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Questions 108

How was standard BGP modified to allow it to carry routing information for VPRNs?

Options:

A.

By using the MED attribute to carry the OSPF metric.

B.

By defining Extended Communities for use as the Route Target

C.

By using the Cluster List attribute to carry the network prefix

D.

By defining support for the VPN-IPv4 address family

E.

By adding an additional field to the BGP Update to carry the VPRN label

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Questions 109

What is wrong with the configuration shown below?

Options:

A.

The VPRN ID must be the same value as is used in the vrf-target command

B.

The VPRN ID must be the same value as is used in the route-distinguisher command

C.

The router-id command should not be used in this context

D.

The vrf-target command is mandatory

E.

There is nothing wrong with this configuration

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Questions 110

What command is required to configure the PE devices for a VPRN service on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Family vpn-ipv4

B.

Family vprn-ipv4

C.

Family vprn

D.

Address-family vpn-ipv4

E.

Address-family vprn-ipv4

F.

Address-family vprn

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Questions 111

Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Participate in service provider core routing

B.

P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices

C.

Run a common routing protocol with the CE router

D.

Must support MP-BGP

E.

Do not have any connections to the CE

F.

Must be aware of the VPRNs

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Questions 112

What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Memory exhaustion in the provider core

B.

Route leaking between the customer networks

C.

CPU utilization for route processing

D.

Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks

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Questions 113

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 113

The AS-path nullification method is used to prevent CE2 from discarding routes received from CE1. On which router should the AS-path nullification policy be configured?

Options:

A.

CE1

B.

PE2

C.

PE1

D.

CE2

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Questions 114

Which of the following about the configuration of BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each PE must implement a policy to apply a unique SoO attribute to the set of routes received from each customer site.

B.

A different BGP extended community is used on each PE that connects to a single site.

C.

An import policy on the PE rejects a route if the attached SoO matches the configured value.

D.

Import and export policies are applied on the PEs under the global BGP context.

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Questions 115

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 115

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier offering VPRN services. Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

Options:

A.

Creating an export policy on CSC-CE1 and CSC-CE2 to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

B.

Configuring eBGP between CSC-CE and CSC-PE routers; setting the address family to IPv4; and enabling the advertisement of labels for IPv4 routes.

C.

Configuring iBGP between PE and CSC-CE within each customer carrier site; setting the address family to IPv4; and enabling the advertisement of labels for IPv4 routes.

D.

Configuring MP-iBGP between PE1 and PE2; setting the address family to IPv4; and enabling the advertisement of labels for IPv4 routes.

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Questions 116

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 116

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which of the following statements about a data packet sent from CE1 toCE2isTRUE?

Options:

A.

PE1 sends the data packet with three labels: the bottom label is a service label, the middle label is a BGP label, and the top label is an LDP label.

B.

ASBR1 sends the data packet with one label: the BGP label.

C.

ASBR1 sends the data packet with one label: the service label.

D.

ASBR2 sends the data packet with three labels: the bottom label is a service label, the middle label is a BGP label, and the top label is an LDP label.

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Questions 117

In a Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which of the following is a benefit to the network provider?

Options:

A.

No need to build and maintain its own backbone.

B.

The solution scales as the number of serviced customer carriers increases.

C.

The solution scales as the number of VPNs offered by the customer carriers increases.

D.

The ability to manage end-customer services.

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Questions 118

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 118

When configuring the double lookup functionality, which configuration forces the global routing table to be consulted for any packet matching the VPRN default route?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

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Questions 119

What operation does a P device perform when it receives a labeled packet for a VPRN service?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet based on the label signaled by MP-BGP.

B.

It decrements the TTL and forwards the packet based on the inner label.

C.

It swaps the outer label then forwards the packet.

D.

The P router does not perform any operations on labeled packets.

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Questions 120

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 120

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which route is NOT present in PE1 ' s global routing table?

Options:

A.

192.60.100.0

B.

10.10.10.6

C.

10.10.10.3

D.

192.50.1.1

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Questions 121

Which of the following about BGP loops in a VPRN environment is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Traditional BGP loop detection mechanisms are unable to detect a loop in a VPRN scenario.

B.

BGP loops are detected in a VPRN when the customer has separate sites using the same BGP autonomous system number.

C.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR rejects routes containing AS_PATH loops by default.

D.

When " remove-private " is configured at a PE, all routes received from the associated CE will have private AS numbers removed.

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Questions 122

Which command is used to generate the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

4A0-C02 Question 122

Options:

A.

Show service 3

B.

Show service id 3

C.

Show service 3 base

D.

Show service id 3 base

E.

Show service 3 detail

F.

Show service id 3 detail

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Questions 123

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 123

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is to be configured as a PE router that supports VPRNs using LDP as the transport protocol. Which of the following best describes this configuration?

Options:

A.

This configuration is correct and complete.

B.

This configuration is correct, except that the system interface must be added.

C.

This configuration is correct, except that the interfaces facing the CE routers must be added.

D.

MPLS configuration is not required.

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Questions 124

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 124

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

Options:

A.

Configuring labeled eBGP sessions between CSC-CE and CSC-PE routers.

B.

Configuring a policy on each CSC-CE to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

C.

Configuring labeled iBGP sessions between PEs residing in different customer carrier sites.

D.

Advertising the received system addresses of remote PEs using either iBGP or IGP/LDP within each customer carrier site.

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Questions 125

In a VPRN, what type of logical topology is required for the BGP sessions configured in the provider core?

4A0-C02 Question 125

Options:

A.

Full mesh between all CE, PE and P devices

B.

Full mesh between PE and P devices

C.

Full mesh of P devices

D.

Full mesh of PE devices

E.

Full mesh between PE and CE devices

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Questions 126

Which of the following are categories of forwarding classes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Real-time

B.

Assured

C.

Non-conforming

D.

High priority

E.

In-profile

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Questions 127

Which of the following fields in frames belonging to a Layer 3 service CANNOT be marked or remarked on SAP-egress?

Options:

A.

Dotlp

B.

EXP

C.

DSCP

D.

PREC

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Questions 128

Click the exhibit button below. Given the SAP-ingress policy, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

4A0-C02 Question 128

Options:

A.

All AF traffic will be marked " in-profile " at the SAP-ingress.

B.

All TCP traffic will be mapped to forwarding class EF.

C.

UDP traffic is placed in queue 3 while ICMP traffic is placed in queue 5.

D.

EF traffic will receive higher scheduling priority than H2 traffic.

E.

Traffic that does not match any of the IP criteria will be placed in queue 3.

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Questions 129

In the image shown above, the network QoS policy is applied properly to a Nokia 77S0 SR acting as a transit Label Switch Router (LSR) for a given MPLS tunnel. A packet is received inside the MPLS tunnel with EXP=5, dotlp=0, and DSCP=EF. Which forwarding class is assigned to this packet?

4A0-C02 Question 129

Options:

A.

BE

B.

AF

C.

EF

D.

H1

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Questions 130

Click the exhibit button below. Given the slope-policy (below), which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

4A0-C02 Question 130

Options:

A.

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before that of any in-profile traffic.

B.

The discard probability slope of an in-profile traffic is steeper than that of an out-of-profile traffic.

C.

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 55%, both in-profile and out-of-profile packets may be dropped.

D.

The maximum probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is higher than that of an in-profile packet.

E.

When the shared buffer utilization is at 61%, only in-profile packets are currently in the shared buffer pool.

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Questions 131

The port groups have been configured consistently on the PE routers, as highlighted in the exhibit. Which SDP connection will be blocked first when the re-learn rate is exceeded?

4A0-C02 Question 131

Options:

A.

The connection between PE-A and PE-C

B.

The connection between PE-A and PE-B

C.

The connection between PE-D and PE-C

D.

The connection between PE*D and PE-B

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Questions 132

Based on queue usage, which of the following QoS-policies when combined will allow queue rates to be dynamically allocated? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The slope-policy

B.

The SAP-ingress policy

C.

The network-queue policy

D.

The scheduler-policy

E.

The network-policy

F.

The WRED-policy

G.

The arbitrator-policy

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Questions 133

Click the exhibit button below.

4A0-C02 Question 133

Based on the configuration shown below, name the forwarding class to be associated with a TCP packet encapsulated inside an Ethernet frame that arrives on SAP 1/1/5 with the following characteristics:

Destination IP address = 120.110.1.1

TCP port number = 23

DSCP value = nc1

Dot1pvalue = 3

Options:

A.

H2

B.

NC

C.

L2

D.

EF

E.

H1

F.

BE

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Questions 134

When deploying an Alcatel-Lucent MPLS network with QoS, how are the EXP bits set?

Options:

A.

The first 3 bits of the DSCP value are copied directly into the EXP field on the first network egress.

B.

The EXP bits are set on the first network egress, based on a combination of the SAP-ingress classification and the network policy applied.

C.

The 3 priority bits are copied directly from the dot1p header into the EXP field of the first MPLS header.

D.

The EXP bits are set based on a default map that translates DSCP codes into internal forwarding classes on SAP-ingress.

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Questions 135

Which of the following QoS functions does the slope-policy perform?

Options:

A.

Classification

B.

Marking

C.

Queuing

D.

Congestion management

E.

Scheduling

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Questions 136

According to the SAP-ingress QoS policy shown, what needs to be the depth of the CIR bucket of policer 5, as a minimum, for forwarded packets to start being marked as out-of-profile?

4A0-C02 Question 136

Options:

A.

1,000 tokens

B.

2,000 tokens

C.

10,000 tokens

D.

20,000 tokens

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Questions 137

Which of the following statements describe the operation of WRED on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

WRED monitors the shared buffer space utilization over a period of time.

B.

WRED disables the TCP slow-start congestion control mechanism.

C.

WRED uses two configurable slopes for each buffer pool: a high slope and a low slope.

D.

WRED uses the shared buffer utilization, instead of the individual queue depth, to get a better picture of the average resource utilization of the shared buffer space.

E.

WRED polices the shared buffer pool and marks all packets above a certain rate as " discard eligible. "

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Questions 138

According to the SAP-egress policy configured and applied, which queue will EF traffic use?

4A0-C02 Question 138

Options:

A.

Queue 2 in " policer-output-queues, " the default queue group used by policers on egress, because there are no queues in the " qg-10 " queue-group template.

B.

The local SAP ' s queue 1, because there is no queue in the " qg-10 " queue-group template for EF traffic.

C.

Queue 1 in the " qg-10 " queue-group, because it exists by default and all traffic is mapped to it.

D.

EF traffic is dropped because there are no queues in the " qg-10 " queue-group template.

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Questions 139

The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant (first) bits define precedence.

Options:

A.

8, 6, 3

B.

8, 8, 6

C.

16, 8, 4

D.

8, 6, 4

E.

24, 16, 8

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Questions 140

Which of the following statements about standalone pokers and CFHP policers is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A standalone policer has no parent arbiter, while a CFHP pohlicer has a parent arbiter.

B.

A standalone policer has a fixed PIR rate, while a CFHP poker ' s PIR rate can be dynamically adjusted by its parent arbiter.

C.

Both standalone and CFHP policers use the FIR bucket to gain access to their fair share of the available bandwidth.

D.

Both standalone and CFHP policers use a policer output queue to store packets before they are forwarded.

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Questions 141

Click the exhibit button below. A service provider has applied the SAP-ingress policy configuration below on his customer ' s SAP. The service provider notices that all of the customer ' s traffic is being dropped at the SAP-ingress. Which of the following actions can resolve the problem, if applied on its own? (Choose three)

4A0-C02 Question 141

Options:

A.

Set the CIR of queue 3 to a non-zero value corresponding to the customer ' s expected bandwidth requirements.

B.

Set queue 3 to use priority mode.

C.

Set the traffic classification of packets to in-profile.

D.

Set the high-priority-only value to 0.

E.

Map AF traffic to queue 1

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Questions 142

Policing improves bandwidth utilization by using buffering to absorb high bursts of traffic.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 143

A service provider is using GRE for his transport tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. How can traffic be marked as it traverses the service provider ' s network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Using dot1p bits of the 802.1q Ethernet frame header

B.

Using DSCP bits within the ToS field of the IP packet header.

C.

Using the IP precedence bits within the ToS field of the IP packet header.

D.

Using the CLP bit of the ATM cell header.

E.

Using the EXP bits of the MPLS transport label header.

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Questions 144

Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered macroflows.

Options:

A.

SAPs

B.

SDPs

C.

Services

D.

Queues

E.

Schedulers

F.

Forwarding classes

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Questions 145

Which of the following statements regarding policing and shaping on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The larger the configured MBS value, the lower the amount of shaping performed.

B.

When policing is enabled on the SAP-ingress, all traffic is considered as in-profile.

C.

Setting the CIR to 1000 and the PIR to max will enable shapeless policing at 1 Mbps within the SAP-egress policy.

D.

Configuring MBS to equal CBS will disable shaping.

E.

Setting the CIR and PIR to equal values disables soft-policing.

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Questions 146

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the PE device in a QoS enabled network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

A device that provides no differentiation between customer traffic flows.

B.

A device that classifies and marks customer traffic.

C.

A device that uses MPLS EXP bits to differentiate between traffic flows.

D.

A device that creates macroflows towards the core from multiple customer sites.

E.

A device that passes macroflows while optionally changing QoS markings.

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Questions 147

In a BGP VPLS, which of the following BGP attributes is used to carry the L2 MTU?

Options:

A.

The NRLI

B.

The AFI

C.

The SAFI

D.

The extended community

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Questions 148

Real-time rate limiting on the service ingress is a feature that performs_____________. Traffic above the defined PIR is ______________.

Options:

A.

Policing, expedited

B.

Metering, marked discard eligible

C.

Marking, marked discard eligible

D.

Policing, discarded

E.

Shaping, discarded

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Questions 149

What is the purpose of the Nokia SR design that includes, for every ingress unicast queue, one hardware queue per destination forwarding complex (FFPC)?

Options:

A.

To utilize memory resources efficiently

B.

To avoid Head of Line blocking

C.

To achieve more granularity of QoS control

D.

To make hierarchical scheduling/policing possible

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Questions 150

Which of the following statements regarding DSCP bits are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

The three most significant (first) bits define 8 forwarding classes.

B.

The three least significant (last) bits of the DSCP specify the drop probability.

C.

The full 8 bits of the TOS field are used for DSCP.

D.

To convert DSCP to IP precedence, the three most significant (first) bits are matched.

E.

DSCP provides for eight drop probabilities.

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Questions 151

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, how many queues per FC are available for multipoint traffic within a VPLS on service ingress?

Options:

A.

64

B.

8

C.

3

D.

16

E.

1

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Questions 152

Which of the following is uniquely identified by the VPLS-ID in an LDP VPLS using Auto-Discovery^*

Options:

A.

VPLS switch identifier.

B.

VPLS service identifier.

C.

VPLS router identifier to all PEs.

D.

A locally unique VPLS service identifier.

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Questions 153

Which of the following statements BEST describes where shaping mechanisms should be applied?

Options:

A.

On all ports on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

B.

At the junction of high-speed to low-speed links or at places of traffic aggregation.

C.

At the junction of low-speed to high-speed links or at places of traffic aggregation.

D.

On low-speed WAN links.

E.

Nowhere. Shaping is only performed in hardware and serviced in a round-robin.

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Questions 154

Which of the following statements regarding buffer pool allocation are FALSE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Each network egress port receives its own buffer pool.

B.

Each SAP-egress port receives its own buffer pool.

C.

All SAP-ingress ports on the same MDA share a buffer pool.

D.

All the network ingress ports on the same MDA share a buffer pool.

E.

Each network ingress port on the same MDA receives its own buffer pool.

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Questions 155

When allocating scheduling resources, which of the following statements BEST describes how the egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth?

Options:

A.

The egress port scheduler takes the ratio of requested bandwidth to total bandwidth request from all children. It allocates bandwidth fairly, using these percentages and not exceeding the egress interface speed.

B.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth based on a WRR distribution method that takes into account the CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max speed, either default or configured, on egress.

C.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth on a first come, first served distribution method that takes into account the total CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max PIR requested from a single level.

D.

The egress port scheduler will limit the bandwidth offered to the egress port based on the over-subscription factor, provisioned under the router interface, while using a WRR scheduler for the remaining bandwidth.

E.

The egress port scheduler will use the Russian Dolls Method to allocate bandwidth to each level of requested bandwidth. HPO-Only is automatically set to 100%, allowing only high priority traffic to be buffered during congestion.

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Questions 156

Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

The EXP bits in the MPLS header.

B.

The packet ' s source and destination IP addresses.

C.

The packet ' s DSCP bits.

D.

The dot1p bits in the frame header.

E.

The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.

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Questions 157

Which of the following statements describe the primary objectives of the policing of traffic flows on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Ensure that traffic flows conform to their traffic profile.

B.

Log violations of metered traffic flows exceeding the CIR value set on the entity across which the traffic is moving.

C.

Provide fairness between traffic flows, so that conforming (in-profile) traffic flows are not starved of bandwidth and/or buffer space by non-conforming (out-of-profile) flows.

D.

Minimize packet loss and reduce end to end latency.

E.

Ensure that variable latencies do not cluster short bursts of originally conforming packets and render them nonconforming.

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Questions 158

Which of the following BEST describes a SAP when regarding QoS?

Options:

A.

A point in the network where EXP bits can be mapped to one of eight predefined FCs, each one with its own queue.

B.

A logical point in a service tunnel where all of customer traffic is aggregated.

C.

A point at which the initial classification of customer traffic occurs.

D.

A point in the network where QoS parameters are discarded in favor of lower-level hardware queuing functions, such as LLI (Link Layer Interleave).

E.

A point in the network where traffic flows from multiple different services are queued together, based on forwarding class.

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Questions 159

According to the SAP-ingress QoS policy shown, which packets have a higher priority to enter queue 6?

4A0-C02 Question 159

Options:

A.

Those marked with dotlp = 5.

B.

Those marked with dscp = " ef.

C.

All packets mapped to queue 6 have the same priority to use the available buffer space.

D.

There are no packets mapped to Queue 6.

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Questions 160

Click the exhibit button below.

4A0-C02 Question 160

Based on the configuration of the network policy (below), what will be the forwarding class associated with a MPLS encapsulated customer packet that arrives on a dotlQ encapsulated network port 1/1/4:1 on P1 with the following characteristics:

EXP value = 6

DSCP value = cs1

Dot1pvalue = 3

Options:

A.

EF

B.

H1

C.

L1

D.

H2

E.

L2

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Questions 161

Click the exhibit button below. A partial SAP-ingress policy configuration is shown below. A UDP video stream is sent to a PC with IP address 192.168.1.100. Given the SAP-ingress policy, to which forwarding class is the traffic matched?

4A0-C02 Question 161

Options:

A.

AF

B.

EF

C.

H2

D.

H1

E.

BE

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Questions 162

A BGP router has loopback interfaces 192.168.1.1/27 and 192.168.2.1/27 advertised into BGP using the following export policy. The " aggregate 192.168.0.0/16 " command is executed. What is the effect of this configuration?

4A0-C02 Question 162

Options:

A.

A single route for 192.168.0.0/16 is advertised.

B.

BGP routes 192.168.1.0/27, 192.168.2.0/27, and 192.168.0.0/16 are advertised.

C.

BGP routes 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.2.0/27 are advertised, and 192.168.0.0/16 appears as a " Blackhole " route in the route table only.

D.

The given export policy is invalid.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

There can only be one community associated with a route.

B.

Community is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Community is an optional transitive attribute.

D.

Community is a well-known discretionary attribute.

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Questions 164

Two Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs are established BGP peers with the following add-paths configuration:

R1: configure router bgp add-paths ipv4 send 4 receive

R2: configure router bgp add-paths ipv4 send 2

If router R1 advertises three routes for a given prefix X, how many routes is router R2 expected to have for prefix X?

Options:

A.

None

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 165

From what range are 16-bit private AS numbers selected?

Options:

A.

64496 – 64511

B.

1 – 56319

C.

64512-65534

D.

64513-65535

E.

There are no defined private AS numbers; there are only private IP addresses.

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Questions 166

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is configured with a local preference of 250. If it receives a BGP update with a local preference of 500, what local preference is sent to its eBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

250

C.

500

D.

None

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Questions 167

Which of the following behaviors regarding the modification of BGP attributes within a confederation is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Next Hop is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

B.

Origin Code is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

C.

AS Path is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

D.

None of the well known mandatory attributes is modified within a confederation.

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Questions 168

Which regular expression will match the AS Path of a route originating in remote AS 65100?

Options:

A.

" .+ 65100 "

B.

" 65100.+ "

C.

" .* 65100.* "

D.

" 65100 "

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Questions 169

Which of the following statements regarding route reflectors is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Route reflectors propagate BGP learned routes to their clients.

B.

Route reflectors require " n " iBGP sessions, where " n " is the number of BGP routers in the AS.

C.

Route reflectors disable iBGP split horizon for all iBGP peers in the AS.

D.

Route reflectors do not work in conjunction with confederations.

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Questions 170

Which of the following statements regarding BGP control plane convergence is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Core and edge node failure recovery depends on IGP convergence.

B.

Edge neighbor failure is detected by the eBGP session timeout.

C.

BGP control plane convergence is independent of number of affected prefixes.

D.

Upon BGP control plane convergence, an optimal path is installed in the FIB.

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Questions 171

Which of the following regarding BGP confederations is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The entire confederation is viewed as a single AS by an eBGP peer.

B.

Within a confederation, each member AS is considered as a stand-alone AS.

C.

Member ASs within a confederation can use route reflection.

D.

Member ASs must be fully meshed within a confederation.

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Questions 172

What kind of BGP attribute is the Local Preference?

Options:

A.

Optional transitive attribute.

B.

Optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Well-known mandatory attribute.

D.

Well-known discretionary attribute.

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Questions 173

BGP is configured on two peers, routers A and B. Router A is configured with a Hold Time timer of 60 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 25 seconds. Router B is configured with a Hold Time timer of 90 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 70 seconds. What will the active Keepalive timer be on router B?

Options:

A.

70 seconds

B.

25 seconds

C.

20 seconds

D.

30 seconds

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Questions 174

Which of the following regarding the TTL of a BGP message is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TTL is a well-known mandatory BGP attribute.

B.

The default TTL value of an eBGP message is 1, and 64 for an iBGP message.

C.

The default TTL value of an iBGP message can be modified using the multihop command.

D.

The default TTL value of an eBGP message can be modified using the " ttl-security " command.

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Questions 175

Which of the following statements regarding the Originator_ID attribute is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The BGP router that originates an update sets the Originator_ID.

B.

The Originator_IDis set to the ClusterJD of the advertising router reflector.

C.

Both confederation and route reflector topologies use the Originator_ID.

D.

A BGP router ignores an update that contains its own BGP router ID as Originator_ID.

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Questions 176

Which of the following routes is NOT considered an internal route?

Options:

A.

A route received from a BGP peer within the same AS.

B.

A route originated by a router in a different cluster of the same AS.

C.

A route received from a BGP peer from a different member AS of a confederation.

D.

A route received from a BGP peer from the same member AS of a confederation.

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Questions 177

Which of the following statements about the BGP Advertise External feature is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It modifies the BGP advertisement logic.

B.

It improves convergence times and allows for better load sharing.

C.

It allows a router to advertise multiple external paths for a single prefix.

D.

It supports both IPv4 and IPv6.

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Questions 178

The configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is given below. Router Rl has established BGP sessions with routers R2 and R3. Which of the following is TRUE?

4A0-C02 Question 178

Options:

A.

Router R1forms an iBGP session with router R2, and an eBGP session with router R3.

B.

Router R1forms iBGP sessions with routers R2 and R3.

C.

Router R1forms eBGP sessions with routers R2 and R3.

D.

The types of BGP sessions with routers R2 and R3 cannot be determined.

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Questions 179

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 179

AS 65550 owns CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R3 is advertising Client1 and Client2 networks into BGP. Router R6 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to AS 65541 with " summary-only " enabled. Which of the following routes are received by router R7?

Options:

A.

Client1, Client2 and the aggregate.

B.

Only the aggregate.

C.

Only Client1 and the aggregate.

D.

Only Client2 and the aggregate.

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Questions 180

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 180

Router R6 is a route reflector with clients R1, R2 and R5. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R1, R2 and R5. How many routes for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 will router R6 receive?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

None

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Questions 181

Which of the following statements regarding Internet Exchange Points is FALSE?

Options:

A.

They provide both peering and transit services.

B.

They provide services only to Tier 1 service providers.

C.

They can be either public or private.

D.

They provide services at the local, regional and continental levels.

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Questions 182

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 182

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that router R6 is configured with " advertise-external " , what is the expected output of " show router bgp routes " when executed on router R5?

4A0-C02 Question 182

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 183

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 183

Router R3 is configured with an import policy to reject updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression " .+ 65540 " . Which of the following regarding updates originating in AS 65540 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R3 rejects all updates originating in AS 65540.

B.

Router R3 accepts updates received from router R1 and rejects updates transited through router R2.

C.

Router R3 accepts updates transited through router R2 and rejects updates received from router R1.

D.

Router R3 accepts updates from both routers R1 and R2.

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Questions 184

The user of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR wants to see the effect of changing an import policy immediately. What is the best command to force re-evaluation of the import policy with minimal impact?

Options:

A.

Configure router bgp shutdown

B.

Clear router bgp neighbor < ip-address > soft

C.

Clear router bgp neighbor < ip-address > soft-inbound

D.

Clear router bgp protocol

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Questions 185

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is configured with a policy to export directly-connected networks to BGP. Which of the following commands verifies that the export was successful?

Options:

A.

show router route-table

B.

show router bgp routes

C.

show router bgp routes < prefix > hunt

D.

show router bgp neighbor < ip-address > received-routes

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Questions 186

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 186

Which of the following can be used by router R4 in AS 65542 to reject all routes originating in AS 65540?

Options:

A.

An import policy that rejects updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression " .+ 65540 .+ " .

B.

An import policy that rejects updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression " .+ 65540 " .

C.

An import policy that rejects updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression " 65540 .+ " .

D.

An import policy that rejects updates with an AS Path matching the regular expression " 65540 " .

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Questions 187

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 187

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured, and link-local IPv6 addresses are used to establish the eBGP sessions. Which of the following is the MINIMAL configuration required on router A so that router B can exchange traffic with router D?

4A0-C02 Question 187

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 188

Which of the following statements regarding BGP shortcuts is FALSE?

Options:

A.

MPLS tunnels are used to carry transit traffic across the network.

B.

A full mesh of iBGP peering sessions is not required,

C.

Edge and transit routers need to be configured with BGP.

D.

The transit routers need to support LDP or RSVP-TE LSPs.

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Questions 189

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an iBGP peer with a MED value of 500. What

MED value is sent to eBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

The IGP cost

C.

500

D.

None

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Questions 190

Click the exhibit.

AS 65540 routers are iBGP fully-meshed. Prefixes advertised by router R2 have a local preference of 200. Router R1 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R2 and R3. Assuming that router R3 is configured with " advertise-external " , what is the expected output of " show router bgp routes " when executed on router R4?

4A0-C02 Question 190

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 191

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 191

Router R2 receives a route to 192.168.1.0/27 from router R4, and sets the local preference to 110. Router R1 receives a route to 192.168.1.0/27 from router R3, and sets the local preference to 80. Both ASs have a full iBGP mesh. What path does traffic destined to 192.168.1.0/27 take from router R1?

Options:

A.

R1-R3-R8

B.

R1-R2-R4-R8

C.

R1-R3-R4-R8

D.

R1-R2-R4-R3-R8

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Exam Code: 4A0-C02
Exam Name: Nokia SRA Composite Exam
Last Update: May 14, 2026
Questions: 639

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