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4A0-C02 Nokia SRA Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Click the exhibit button below.

4A0-C02 Question 4

Based on the configuration of the network policy (below), what will be the forwarding class associated with a MPLS encapsulated customer packet that arrives on a dotlQ encapsulated network port 1/1/4:1 on P1 with the following characteristics:

EXP value = 6

DSCP value = cs1

Dot1pvalue = 3

Options:

A.

EF

B.

H1

C.

L1

D.

H2

E.

L2

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Questions 5

How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?

Options:

A.

8

B.

16

C.

6

D.

4

E.

3

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Questions 6

Which of the following statements about G.8032 Ethernet Ring Protection is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Uses standard Ethernet dot1q and QinQ encapsulation.

B.

Requires IS-1S as the protocol to carry control information.

C.

Ethernet Ring APS is a defined ITU standard.

D.

Standard Ethernet forwarding, learning, and flooding rules apply.

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Questions 7

Click the exhibit button below. A network operator has configured a network-queue policy to map forwarding classes to queues, as shown in the exhibit below. Based on the default scheduling behavior of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, in which order will packets be serviced?

4A0-C02 Question 7

Options:

A.

All in-profile packets in round-robin, then all out-of-profile packets in biased round-robin.

B.

In-profile EF packets, then in-profile H2 packets, then in-profile AF packets, then out-of-profile EF packets, then out-of-profile H2 and AF packets, and then out-of-profile BE packets.

C.

In-profile EF, H2 and AF packets, then out-of-profile H2, AF and BE packets in biased round-robin.

D.

In-profile EF packets, then in-profile H2 and AF packets, then out-of-profile H2, AF and BE packets in biased round-robin.

E.

In-profile EF and H2 packets, then in-profile AF packets, then out-of-profile H2, AF and BE packets in biased round-robin.

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Questions 8

Click the exhibit button below.

4A0-C02 Question 8

All interfaces are using their default trust states and MPLS is used as the transport tunnel. The SAP-ingress, SAP-egress, and network QoS policies have been configured as shown below. Assume that the default network-queue policy is used on each router.

At router PE 1, customer traffic is arriving marked with DSCP BE and tagged with a dot1p value of 3.

Based on the configuration shown below for the VPRN service, what will be the DSCP and dot1p marking for the packet egressing at router PE 2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.

The DSCP value will be set to be.

C.

TheDSCPvaluewillbesettoaf23.

D.

The DSCP value will be set to af 12.

E.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto5.

F.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto2.

G.

The dot1p value will be set to 3.

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Questions 9

A queue is configured with the following attributes:

MBS = 10KB

CBS = 5KB

High-Priority-Only = 20%

Assume that there is no CBS overbooking and that the slope-policy is disabled. If the current queue depth is 3KB, what will happen to an out-of-profile packet arriving at an egress queue?

Options:

A.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and remain out-of-profile.

B.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool if there are no in-profile packets already in the queue.

C.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and be in-profile.

D.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

E.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but may be dropped if the buffer utilization exceeds the start-average value of the low slope.

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Questions 10

Which of the following is uniquely identified by the VPLS-ID in an LDP VPLS using Auto-Discovery^*

Options:

A.

VPLS switch identifier.

B.

VPLS service identifier.

C.

VPLS router identifier to all PEs.

D.

A locally unique VPLS service identifier.

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Questions 11

Which of the following statements BEST describes an MBS parameter?

Options:

A.

It specifies the maximum rate at which a queue can be serviced.

B.

It specifies the maximum depth of a queue beyond which packets will be dropped.

C.

It specifies the portion of a queue that is taken from the reserved buffer pool.

D.

It specifies the threshold beyond which only in-profile packets will be queued.

E.

It specifies the peak bandwidth that can be attained by the incoming traffic.

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Questions 12

To implement Hierarchical-QoS (Multi-tiered scheduling), which of the following actions must be undertaken? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

H-QoS capabilities must be enabled globally on the router

B.

A scheduler-policy must be configured.

C.

The queues in the SAP-ingress and SAP-egress policies do not require additional configuration attributes to make use of the hierarchical schedulers.

D.

The network queue policy must be configured to make use of the scheduler-policy.

E.

The scheduler-policy must be referenced in the SAP-ingress and SAP-egress policies.

F.

The scheduler-policy must be applied on the service SAP.

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements is considered best practice when changing a network policy that has been associated with an interface?

Options:

A.

The policy should be placed in a "shutdown" state before changes are made.

B.

A new network policy should be created and applied to the interface, overwriting the previous policy.

C.

The policy must first be removed from the interface, then modified and re-applied to the interface.

D.

Before the policy can be changed, it must be deleted with the no network qos command.

E.

Before any changes are made to the policy, all network interfaces where the policy is applied have to be shut down.

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Questions 14

If a packet is marked on a SAP-ingress, it will be remarked at the first network egress point (if remarking is enabled in the network egress policy).

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 15

Which of the following statements regarding egress FC and profile over-ride are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Packets can be classified into 16 different FCs when using priority mode queuing.

B.

This feature is available on egress SAPs within any service.

C.

MPLS EXP bits can be changed based on multi-field classification.

D.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, only the MF override parameters will take effect.

E.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, the BA classification can override the forwarding class while the MF classification can override the profile.

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Questions 16

WRED can be used to help avoid TCP slow-start synch problems.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 17

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the building of a QoS-enabled network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It is important that all packets are classified in the same way at all SAP-ingress points.

B.

Once a packet is classified to a forwarding class, it cannot change across the network.

C.

Packet enters a node will be treated as per the local hop's configured policy.

D.

Native IP packets entering a network port will be marked at the first network egress by default

E.

Native IP packets entering a network port will not be marked at the first network egress by default.

F.

Native IP packets entering a network port will be marked at the first network egress, regardless of the re-marking configuration.

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Questions 18

Which of the following statements is FALSE when providing Internet access using route leaking between a VRF and the global routing table? :>

Options:

A.

It is best used when a single VPN is required to provide Internet access, as well as to maintain VPN connectivity between different customer sites.

B.

If there is no requirement for the VRF to contain the full Internet routing table, a default route to the Internet gateway router is sufficient.

C.

Only one interface on the CE is required for both VPN and Internet connectivity.

D.

The Nokia 7750 SR supports route leaking in full mesh and extranet VPRN topologies only.

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Questions 19

A physical port has three associated buffer pools. Which of the following buffer pool combinations is associated to a physical port?

Options:

A.

Access ingress, access egress, network egress

B.

Access ingress, network ingress, network egress

C.

Port ingress, port egress, shared bi-directional

D.

Port ingress, port egress, network egress

E.

Port ingress, network ingress, network egress

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Questions 20

For what does a Layer 2 switch use the SA in the Ethernet frame?

Options:

A.

MAC learning

B.

SA filtering

C.

Routing table population

D.

Frame forwarding

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Questions 21

For the Carrier supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which routes are advertised between CSC-PE1 and SCS-PE2?

4A0-C02 Question 21

Options:

A.

BGP IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

B.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

C.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

D.

LDP labeled routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

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Questions 22

When deploying an Alcatel-Lucent MPLS network with QoS, how are the EXP bits set?

Options:

A.

The first 3 bits of the DSCP value are copied directly into the EXP field on the first network egress.

B.

The EXP bits are set on the first network egress, based on a combination of the SAP-ingress classification and the network policy applied.

C.

The 3 priority bits are copied directly from the dot1p header into the EXP field of the first MPLS header.

D.

The EXP bits are set based on a default map that translates DSCP codes into internal forwarding classes on SAP-ingress.

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Questions 23

Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Microflow reservations using RSVP

B.

DSCP to EXP translation

C.

Traffic classification

D.

Automatic profiling and policy configuration

E.

Buffer memory management

F.

Traffic scheduling

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Questions 24

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, how many queues per FC are available for multipoint traffic within a VPLS on service ingress?

Options:

A.

64

B.

8

C.

3

D.

16

E.

1

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Questions 25

Which of the following commands on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR will verify connectivity for a VPRN service when issued from the PE?

4A0-C02 Question 25

Options:

A.

oam vprn-ping source destination

B.

oam vprn-ping source destination

C.

vprn-ping router

D.

Ping source

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Questions 26

Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.

Options:

A.

Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain

B.

Signal the egress VPRN ID

C.

Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain

D.

Transport route updates between PEs

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Questions 27

Which of the following commands may be used on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to display a network exported locally to BGP on the originating router? (Choose two)

4A0-C02 Question 27

Options:

A.

Show router bgp routes

B.

Show router bgp routes prefix

C.

Show router bgp routes self-originated

D.

Show router bgp routes hunt

E.

Show router bgp neighbor advertised-routes

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Questions 28

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 28

One Route Distinguisher is assigned per VRF. If CE1 and CE2 advertise prefix 10.1.1.0/24, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 and PE2 advertise the same VPN route to the route reflector.

B.

The route reflector receives two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24; one from PE1 and one from PE2.

C.

The route reflector reflects two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24.

D.

PE3 receives two routes and is able to load balance traffic across PE1 and PE2.

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Questions 29

When using the AS-override method to prevent BGP loops in VPRNs, where should the "as-override" CLI command be configured?

Options:

A.

On the PE facing the CE neighbor

B.

On the CE facing the PE neighbor

C.

On the P facing the PE neighbor

D.

On the PE facing the PE neighbor

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Questions 30

In a VPRN, which of the following are supported as PE-CE routing methods on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose four).

Options:

A.

Static

B.

RIP

C.

OSPF

D.

IS-IS

E.

MP-BGP

F.

BGP

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Questions 31

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 31

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier offering VPRN services. Which of the following about this configuration is FALSE?

Options:

A.

In the CSC VPRN, configure an eBGP session between CSC-PE and CSC-CE and use the "advertise-label vpn-ipv4" CLI command to enable the advertisement of VPN-IPv4 routes.

B.

When the customer carrier uses the same autonomous system number in various sites, use the "loop-detect off" CLI command to disable the loop detection functionality on CSC-CE and PE routers.

C.

On the CSC-PE routers, use the "carrier-carrier-vpn" CLI command to configure the VPRN service as CSC.

D.

Configure an iBGP session between PE1 and PE2 and use the "family vpn-ipv4" CLI command to directly exchange end-customer routes learned from CE1 and CE2.

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Questions 32

Which of the following about scaling techniques for route reflectors is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Logical Partitioning of route reflectors works best when PEs are partitioned to support different VPRNs.

B.

Logical Partitioning of route reflectors is simple and scalable, but requires more hardware.

C.

Filtering at route reflectors requires either inbound filtering at the route reflector or outbound filtering at the PE routers.

D.

Filtering at route reflectors allows the route reflector to filter routes received from PEs and only accept routes with a certain route distinguisher.

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Questions 33

When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Distributing the customer generated labels between sites

B.

Distributing the customer routing information between

C.

Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination

D.

Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site

E.

Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites

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Questions 34

When would it be appropriate to use the as-override command?

4A0-C02 Question 34

Options:

A.

When sites of different VPRN customers use the same BGP AS number

B.

When sites of the same VPRN customer use the same BGP AS number

C.

When sites of different VPRN customers use different BGP AS numbers

D.

When sites of the same VPRN customer use different BGP AS numbers

E.

When the customer site AS number is the same as the provider AS number

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Questions 35

Which of the following is NOT a viable option when implementing inter-AS VPRN?

Options:

A.

MP-eBGP exchange of VPN-IPv4 routes between ASBRs residing in different autonomous systems.

B.

MP-eBGP exchange of labeled IPv4 routes between route reflectors residing in different autonomous systems.

C.

A VRF-to-VRF connection at the autonomous system border routers.

D.

MP-eBGP exchange of VPN-IPv4 routes between PEs residing in different autonomous systems.

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Questions 36

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 36

Which of the following about the inter-AS model A VPRN configuration on ASBR1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The route-distinguisher value must be 64496:10 for successful VPRN operation.

B.

An export policy is not required for successful VPRN operation.

C.

The "family vpn-ipv4" command is required under the BGP configuration for successful VPRN operation.

D.

The neighbor address should be 10.10.10.4 under the BGP configuration for successful VPRN operation.

E.

The VPRN configuration on ASBR1 is correct.

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Questions 37

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 37

For the Inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following about the inter-as-label output on ASBR1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

ASBR1 includes label 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to PEL

D.

ASBR1 includes labels 131068 and 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

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Questions 38

Which command is required in the blank line to complete the configuration shown below on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

4A0-C02 Question 38

4A0-C02 Question 38

Options:

A.

Sap 1/1/1 create

B.

Sap 1/1/1 customer 10 create

C.

No shutdown

D.

Neighbor 192.168.1.2

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Questions 39

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 39

According to the display, a BGP loop is detected for route 192.168.1.0/27. On which router is this command executed?

Options:

A.

CE1

B.

CE2

C.

PE1

D.

PE2

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Questions 40

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 40

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which router is configured as shown?

Options:

A.

PE1

B.

RR1

C.

ASBR1

D.

ASBR2

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Questions 41

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 41

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

Options:

A.

Configuring labeled eBGP sessions between CSC-CE and CSC-PE routers.

B.

Configuring a policy on each CSC-CE to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

C.

Configuring labeled iBGP sessions between PEs residing in different customer carrier sites.

D.

Advertising the received system addresses of remote PEs using either iBGP or IGP/LDP within each customer carrier site.

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Questions 42

Which of the following about the maximum number of routes that can be accepted in a VRF for a VPRN service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR allows the setting of the maximum number of routes that can be accepted in a VRF for a VPRN service.

B.

The "maximum-routes" command is used to specify the maximum number of remote routes that can be held within a VRF for a VPRN service.

C.

When the "maximum-routes" command is used with the "log-only" parameter, new routes are still learned.

D.

Once the "threshold" value is reached, no new routes are added to the VRF.

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Questions 43

Which of the following about BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The SoO attribute can be used to uniquely identify the site from which a PE learns routes.

B.

Before a PE redistributes a VPN-IPv4 route, it can assign an SoO attribute to the route.

C.

The SoO attribute can be used to prevent loops from a single site with multiple CE-PE connections.

D.

The SoO attribute can be used as matching criteria when redistributing routes from the CE to the PE.

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Questions 44

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 44

Which VPRN type produces the output shown on router R1?

Options:

A.

A full mesh VPRN

B.

APE hub and spoke VPRN

C.

An extranet VPRN

D.

ACE hub and spoke VPRN

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Questions 45

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 45

Assuming that the as-override command is used, what is the most likely location of prefix 10.1.2.0/24?

Options:

A.

The prefix is located in an Autonomous System directly connected to this router.

B.

There is a single Autonomous System between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix.

C.

There are two Autonomous Systems between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix.

D.

The prefix is located in Autonomous System 65100.

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Questions 46

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 46

Internet access using route leaking between the VRF and the global routing table is configured in the network. Which of the following is the correct output of route 192.168.50.1 in the global routing table of PE3?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

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Questions 47

When configuring BGP as the PE-CE protocol on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the configuration on the CE is done under the ____________ context and the PE configuration is under the ____________ context.

4A0-C02 Question 47

Options:

A.

Global, router

B.

Router, router

C.

Service, router

D.

Router, service

E.

Service, service

F.

Router, global

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Questions 48

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 48

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

Options:

A.

Configuring iBGP sessions between PEs residing in different customer carrier sites,

B.

Configuring a policy on each CSC-CE to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

C.

Configuring a CSC VPRN on each CSC-PE with a SAP interface towards the attached CSC-CE.

D.

Configuring an IES service on PEL

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Questions 49

Which of the following is NOT a BGP message type?

Options:

A.

Route-Refresh

B.

OpenSent

C.

Notification

D.

Update

E.

Keepalive

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Questions 50

What is the purpose of configuring a triggered-policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Policy changes are delayed until the peer router with the affected routes reboots.

B.

Policy changes are delayed until route updates for affected BGP routes are received from peers.

C.

Policy changes are delayed until BGP sessions are cleared or BGP is reset.

D.

Policy changes are delayed until the router reboots.

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Questions 51

Which of the following organizations would an ISP based in Europe approach for an IP prefix assignment?

Options:

A.

ARIN

B.

ICANN

C.

RIPE NCC

D.

LACNIC

E.

APNIC

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Questions 52

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 52

Routers RR1 and RR2 are route reflectors with the same Cluster-ID. How does router RA treat the updates for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 received from routers RR1 and RR2?

Options:

A.

Router RA prefers the update received from router RR1.

B.

Router RA prefers the update received from router RR2.

C.

Router RA flags both updates as invalid.

D.

Router RA accepts both updates and flags them as used.

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Questions 53

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 53

AS 65550 owns CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R6 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to AS 65541 with "as-set" enabled. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the aggregate route received by router R7?

Options:

A.

The AS Path is set to 65540, and the Atomic Aggregate flag is set.

B.

The AS Path is set to 65540 65550, and the Atomic Aggregate flag is set.

C.

The AS Path is set to 65540 65550, and the Atomic Aggregate flag is not set.

D.

The AS Path is set to 65550, and the Atomic Aggregate flag is not set.

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Questions 54

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an iBGP peer with a MED value of 500. What

MED value is sent to eBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

The IGP cost

C.

500

D.

None

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Questions 55

What happens to a route that is rejected by an import policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

The route is discarded.

B.

The route is kept in the RIB-In, but marked as an invalid route.

C.

The route is moved to the LOC-RIB, but not marked as a used route.

D.

The route is moved to the route table, but not to the FIB.

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Questions 56

Which of the following statements regarding BGP control plane convergence is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Core and edge node failure recovery depends on IGP convergence.

B.

Edge neighbor failure is detected by the eBGP session timeout.

C.

BGP control plane convergence is independent of number of affected prefixes.

D.

Upon BGP control plane convergence, an optimal path is installed in the FIB.

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Questions 57

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 57

AS 65550 owns the CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R4 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to AS65540. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the aggregate route advertisement?

Options:

A.

The aggregator attribute will not be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will not be set.

B.

The aggregator attribute will not be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will be set.

C.

The aggregator attribute will be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will not be set.

D.

The aggregator attribute will be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will be set.

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Questions 58

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives two updates for the same route with local preferences 200 and 300, respectively. What local preference is sent to eBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

200

C.

300

D.

None

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Questions 59

What class of attribute is Originator_ID?

Options:

A.

Well-known mandatory.

B.

Well-known discretionary.

C.

Optional transitive.

D.

Optional non-transitive.

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Questions 60

Which of the following regarding the atomic aggregate attribute is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It is an optional transitive attribute.

B.

It is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the aggregator attribute is set.

D.

The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the AS Path information is lost due to aggregation.

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Questions 61

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an eBGP peer without a MED. What MED value is sent to iBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

250

C.

The IGP cost

D.

None

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Questions 62

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 62

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that none of the routers in AS 65540 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" on router R2?

4A0-C02 Question 62

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 63

Which of the following statements regarding the Originator_ID attribute is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The BGP router that originates an update sets the Originator_ID.

B.

The Originator_IDis set to the ClusterJD of the advertising router reflector.

C.

Both confederation and route reflector topologies use the Originator_ID.

D.

A BGP router ignores an update that contains its own BGP router ID as Originator_ID.

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Questions 64

Which of the following best describes the purpose of advertise-external?

Options:

A.

It enables a BGP speaker to advertise multiple external routes to iBGP peers.

B.

It enables a BGP speaker to advertise its best external route to iBGP peers when the best overall route is internal.

C.

It enables a BGP speaker to advertise its best external route to eBGP peers without an import policy.

D.

It enables a BGP speaker to advertise its best internal route to eBGP peers without an export policy.

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Questions 65

How are policy direction and data flow related on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Import policies affect ingress data flow.

B.

Export policies affect ingress data flow.

C.

Both import and export policies affect ingress data flow.

D.

Policy direction and data flow are independent.

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Questions 66

A router receives two routes from its neighbors: a route from OSPF for 10.0.0.0/24, and a route from BGP for 10.0.0.0/8. Both routes have reachable next hops. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Only the BGP route is in the route table.

B.

Both routes are in the route table.

C.

None of the routes is in the route table.

D.

Only the OSPF route is in the route table.

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Questions 67

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 67

Which of the following about the relationship between ISP 1 and ISP 3 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

ISP 1 is downstream from ISP 3 and is expected to push more traffic toward ISP 3 than it pulls from it.

B.

ISP 3 is downstream from ISP 1 and is expected to push more traffic toward ISP 1 than it pulls from it.

C.

ISP 1 is downstream from ISP 3 and is expected to pull more traffic from ISP 3 than it pushes toward it.

D.

ISP 3 is downstream from ISP1 and is expected to pull more traffic from ISP 1 than it pushes toward it.

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Questions 68

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 68

Assuming router A is configured with "next-hop-self", what does the BGP update for prefix 192.168.0.1/27 contain when it arrives at router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router A.

B.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router E.

C.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router A.

D.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router E.

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Questions 69

The configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is given below. Router Rl has established BGP sessions with routers R2 and R3. Which of the following is TRUE?

4A0-C02 Question 69

Options:

A.

Router R1forms an iBGP session with router R2, and an eBGP session with router R3.

B.

Router R1forms iBGP sessions with routers R2 and R3.

C.

Router R1forms eBGP sessions with routers R2 and R3.

D.

The types of BGP sessions with routers R2 and R3 cannot be determined.

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Questions 70

Which of the following statements regarding the Internet is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It is a global network relying on interconnections provided by Internet service providers.

B.

It is a continuous and interconnected set of public IP networks, advertised and shared across the globe.

C.

It is a settlement-free global network that provides interconnection between Internet service providers.

D.

It is a network that allows any Internet service provider to reach every other Internet service provider in the world.

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Questions 71

What will happen if an update is received with an unrecognized optional non-transitive attribute?

Options:

A.

The router will accept the update and send a notification.

B.

The router will not accept the update and send a notification.

C.

The router will accept the update and ignore the attribute.

D.

The router will accept the update and propagate the attribute.

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Questions 72

Click the exhibit.

4A0-C02 Question 72

AS 65550 owns CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R3 is advertising Client1 and Client2 networks into BGP. Router R6 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to AS 65541 with "summary-only" enabled. Which of the following routes are received by router R7?

Options:

A.

Client1, Client2 and the aggregate.

B.

Only the aggregate.

C.

Only Client1 and the aggregate.

D.

Only Client2 and the aggregate.

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Questions 73

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 73

The SAP on PE-A has been configured with dot1q encapsulation. The SAP on PE-B has been configured with qinq encapsulation. CE-A sends frames with a single tag of 100. The VLAN tag from CE-A must be passed transparently. CE-B is expecting a frame with a top tag of 200 and bottom tag of 100. Which of the following is the correct SAP id for PE-B?

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1:200.100

B.

sap 1/1/1:200*

C.

sap 1/1/1:*

D.

sap 1/1/1:0*

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Questions 74

Which of the following describes the overhead added to a customer frame on an Ethernet link in a VPLS service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

The overhead consists of 26 bytes. 14 DLC + 2 Ethertype + 8 for mpls labels + 2 for GRE

B.

The overhead consists of 14 bytes for DLC.

C.

The overhead consists of 18 bytes. 14 DLC +4 for mpls labels

D.

The overhead consists of 22 bytes. 14 DLC + 8 for mpls labels

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Questions 75

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 75

The service MTU on PE-A is 1514 bytes and the service MTU on PE-C is 1518 bytes. What is the status of the mesh-sdp between PE-A and PE-C?

Options:

A.

The mesh-sdp will be up.

B.

The mesh-sdp will be down.

C.

The mesh-sdp will only be up on PE-A.

D.

The mesh-sdp will only be up on PE-C.

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Questions 76

Why is MAC explosion a factor to be considered when designing a large VPLS network? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The time to relearn thousands of MAC addresses may result in excessive flooding or loss of packets.

B.

If the FDB reaches the limit, the router will discard frames.

C.

Discarding frames when the FDB limit is reached could deny SLA guarantees.

D.

It could take several seconds to relearn thousands of MAC addresses denying QoS/SLA guarantees.

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Questions 77

What of the following is a key benefit of Active/Standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

The MDU does not need to support MPLS.

B.

Can be used in ring networks of 4 or more nodes

C.

Does not require the use of a layer 2 loop prevention protocol such as RSTP

D.

The MDU does not have to be aware of the active/standby configuration

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Questions 78

When a PE node receives a PBB encapsulated frame on a B-VPLS, how does the PE determine which l-VPLS it belongs to?

Options:

A.

The l-TAG in the l-SID is inspected to determine where the frame should be delivered.

B.

When the B-MAC header is stripped the customer MAC address is then looked up in the FDB

C.

The l-SID in the l-TAG is inspected to determine where the frame should be delivered.

D.

The PE inspects the service label in the MPLS header before stripping the B-MAC header.

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Questions 79

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the IEEE 802.3ah EFM standard?

Options:

A.

Discovery and auto-negotiation of OAM capabilities.

B.

Link monitoring via event notifications.

C.

Remote failure indication (RFI).

D.

Remote Loopback

E.

Latency and jitter across a service.

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Questions 80

In Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol, a Backup Port is on the same switch as a Designated Port?

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 81

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 81

CE-A sends frames with 2 tags. If the SAP on PE-A is "sap 1/1/1:1 .*" and the SAP on PE-B is "sap 1/1/1:100.200" how many tags will there be on the frame when it egresses from the SAP on PE-B?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 82

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 82

Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?

Options:

A.

It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2.

B.

The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be no mac address association.

C.

Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1.

D.

Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4.

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Questions 83

Which of the following are required for an operational mesh-sdp binding for bidirectional traffic when signaling is enabled within the SDP? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

LDP must be enabled.

B.

RSVP must be enabled.

C.

An SDP must be configured on the far-end.

D.

Service MTU must match.

E.

SDP ID must match.

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Questions 84

What is the default remote-age timer of a B-VPLS?

Options:

A.

The same timer is used in all VPLS types.

B.

Higher than the default timer of an I-VPLS.

C.

Lower than the default timer of an l-VPLS.

D.

The same timer as an l-VPLS.

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Questions 85

The following question relates to this command syntax: "config>service# vpls 9000 customer 6 create". Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The customer-id in this command is 9000.

B.

The service-id in this command is 9000.

C.

This value 9000 should be unique across the network as a best practice.

D.

The vc-id will be 6 for the service by default.

E.

The egress vc-label will be 9000.

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Questions 86

A LAG is configured with LACP passive mode enabled. When will LACP packets be sent?

Options:

A.

On initialization and then every hello-interval.

B.

Only after receiving LACP packets.

C.

Every 1 second.

D.

Never.

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Questions 87

The "discard-unknown" command has been enabled at the VPLS level. Which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Broadcast traffic will be flooded.

B.

If the unicastSA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

C.

If the unicast DA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

D.

All traffic will be dropped, including multicast and broadcast.

E.

Broadcast traffic will be dropped.

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Questions 88

What is the default service-mtu for a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

1500

B.

1514

C.

1518

D.

It depends on the access port MTU.

E.

It depends on the network port MTU.

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Questions 89

What is the DA address used for in the Ethernet Header?

Options:

A.

MAC learning

B.

SA filtering

C.

Routing table population

D.

Frame forwarding

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Questions 90

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 90

The VPLS service MTU on R2 is 1514 bytes. What must the service MTU be on all other routers participating in the VPLS?

Options:

A.

The service MTU must be equal to or smaller than 1514 bytes.

B.

The service MTU must be 1514 bytes.

C.

The service MTU must be equal to or greater than 1514 bytes.

D.

The service MTU can be any value.

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Questions 91

How does PBB forward broadcast, unknown-unicast and multicast traffic from a B-VPLS to an l-VPLS?

Options:

A.

The receiving PE checks the l-TAG in the l-SID to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

B.

The receiving PE checks the l-SID in the l-TAG to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

C.

The receiving PE checks the service label in the mpls header to determine if there is a local l-VPLS on the node.

D.

The receiving PE checks the multicast B-DA to see if an l-SID has been mapped to the B-DA that matches a local l-VPLS on the node.

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Questions 92

Which of the following statements is false?

Options:

A.

VPLS is a bridged LAN service.

B.

VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs.

C.

VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point-to-point virtual circuits.

D.

CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN.

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Questions 93

Which protocol is used to signal the status of the active links between the PE and the CE in MC-LAG?

Options:

A.

MSTP

B.

MCLAG

C.

LACP

D.

DHCP

E.

A proprietary protocol

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Questions 94

Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?

Options:

A.

Unlike VPLS. VPWS appears as a multi-hop network to the customers.

B.

Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN.

C.

Unlike VPWS, VPLS allows customers to view the network as a routed network.

D.

Unlike VPWS, VPLS is a service where customer MAC addresses are learned.

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Questions 95

Click on the exhibit below.

4A0-C02 Question 95

Assume there are two VPLS services configured on the MDU. How could load-balancing be achieved when using Active/Standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

This cannot be done.

B.

Each VPLS will use the same pair of SDP's with the same endpoint configured with the option "load-balancing 2".

C.

Each VPLS will need their own pair of spoke-SDP's configured. The spoke-sdp's that are to be active should be configured with the option "precedence primary".

D.

Under the end-point configuration, enable load-balancing 2 and the MDU will load balance automatically.

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Exam Code: 4A0-C02
Exam Name: Nokia SRA Composite Exam
Last Update: Dec 7, 2024
Questions: 639

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