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AFE Accredited Financial Examiner Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The balloon payment technique uses level payments of principal and interest but for a shorter period than is required to retire the loan fully during its term. For example, a loan with a 8.5 percent interest rate utilizing a 25-year amortization schedule with a 7-year maturity results in only $111 of each $l,000 principal being repaid. Thus, $889 of each $l,000 originally borrowed constitutes the balloon amount due at maturity.

Options:

A.

7th-year

B.

5th-year

C.

6th-year

D.

4th-year

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Questions 5

A company that has its loans serviced, for whatever reason, is usually charged a servicer’s fee. This fee is usually expressed:

Options:

A.

As an annual fraction of a percentage of each interest payment

B.

As an annual fraction of a percent of the principal balance of the loans or based on a percentage of each interest payment

C.

As a monthly fraction of a percent of the principal balance of the loans or based on a percentage of each interest payment

D.

As a monthly fraction of a percentage of each interest payment

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Questions 6

Quantifies the sensitivity of the option price to changes in interest rates is known as:

Options:

A.

complexity measure

B.

quantifiable measure

C.

effective duration measure

D.

change measure

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Questions 7

Which of the following id NOT the kind of Insurance?

Options:

A.

Business policies

B.

fire and alliance lines

C.

inland marine

D.

professional liability

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Questions 8

Lines of insurance in which claims are settled relatively quickly are called:

Options:

A.

Quick-tail lines

B.

Single-tail lines

C.

Acceptance-tail lines

D.

Short-tail lines

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Questions 9

During the underwriting process, information related to a mortgage loan is collected, and this information is the basis for a final decision as to whether or not the loan should be made. The documents generated during this underwriting process are all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Loan applications

B.

Credit reports

C.

Borrower’s financial statements

D.

Periodic inspection reports

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Questions 10

Sales of securities are recorded as of the trade date. A receivable due from the broker is established in instances when a security has been sold, but the proceeds from the sale have not been received. Receivable for securities not received within settlement date are non-admitted, and are classified as other than invested assets.

Options:

A.

15 days

B.

30 days

C.

35 days

D.

90 days

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Questions 11

The adjustments of the premium during the period of coverage based on actual experience during that same period are called:

Options:

A.

Policy rating

B.

Schedule rating

C.

Experience rating

D.

Retrospective Experience rating

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Questions 12

What is largely systematic that is; all insured risks are strongly affected by certain common influences, like developments in the capital markets?

Options:

A.

Performance risk

B.

Non-investment risk

C.

Investment risk

D.

Productive risk

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Questions 13

A premium deficiency relating to which insurance contracts indicate a probable loss on premiums yet to be earned.

Options:

A.

long duration

B.

premium policy

C.

short duration

D.

None of the above

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Questions 14

Interest rates are a key element of any option pricing exercise because cash flows are discounted at interest.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 15

It usually is acceptable to use the subsidiary’s statements if the difference in fiscal periods is:

Options:

A.

not more than 2 months

B.

not more than 3 months

C.

not more than 4 months

D.

not more than 5months

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Questions 16

The potential for loss resulting from changes in market interest rates are known as:

Options:

A.

Interest rate risk

B.

Interest rate loss

C.

Change rate risk

D.

Change rate loss

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Questions 17

The difference between the purchase price and the repurchase price, or sale price, plus accrued interest on the security represents:

Options:

A.

Accounting agreement

B.

Investment income

C.

Dollar price

D.

Saving price

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Questions 18

Generally, residential loans are open to prepayment at any time without penalty. To protect against a deficiency, mortgage loans should not exceed the market value of the mortgaged property and in fact are usually made for:

Options:

A.

No more than 80 percent of the value

B.

Not less than 80 percent of the value

C.

No more than 90 percent of the value

D.

Not less than 70 percent of the value

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Questions 19

Procedures for ensuring that the data used by the loss reserve specialist is completed and accurate due to:

Options:

A.

Controls over the preparation of managerial data

B.

Controls over the preparation of accounting estimates

C.

Controls over the preparation of supporting data

D.

Controls over the preparation of assumed alternatives

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Questions 20

The name of each Subsidiary, Controlled and Affiliated (SCA) entity and percentage of ownership of common stock must be put to disclosure when:

Options:

A.

For all investments in SCA entities that exceed 20 percent of the total admitted expenses of the insurer.

B.

For all investments in SCA entities that exceed 15 percent of the total admitted liabilities of the insurer.

C.

For half of the investments in SCA entities that exceed 6 percent of the total admitted assets of the insurer.

D.

For all investments in SCA entities that exceed 10 percent of the total admitted assets of the insurer.

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Questions 21

Extrapolation of historical dollars, projection of separate frequency data, use of expected loss ratios are all projection methods for:

Options:

A.

Loss extrapolation projections

B.

Loss reserve projections

C.

Claim unit projections

D.

Losses incurred projections

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Questions 22

________ are contracts with the insurer which provide for periodic payments over a specified period or in specified amounts. In most respects they are administered and accounted for much like supplementary contracts without life contingencies since there are no mortality or morbidity considerations that affect the amount to be paid.

Options:

A.

Mixed stream

B.

Annuities certain

C.

Annuities due

D.

Ordinary Annuities

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Questions 23

The value of the capital stock shown in the stock life insurance company’s statutory basis balance sheet equals the par value per share multiplied by the number of issued shares. In the case of no-par stock:

Options:

A.

The stated value per share is used (or liquidation value, for no-par preferred capital stock)

B.

The Total value of shares is used (or liquidation value, for par preferred capital stock)

C.

The market value per share is used (or liquidation value, for no-par preferred capital stock)

D.

Capital stock may be sold to the public for an amount greater than par or stated value

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Questions 24

In which of the following, Internal entity experience or information from published sources concerning recent trends in socioeconomic factors affecting claim payments:

Options:

A.

general inflation rates

B.

judicial decisions assessing liability

C.

judicial decisions regarding noneconomic damages

D.

All of the above

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Questions 25

Tax Act states that:

Options:

A.

A life insurer is subject to an investment income tax of 15 percent on its ‘net Canadian life investment income

B.

A life insurer is subject to an investment income tax of 25 percent on its ‘net Canadian life investment income

C.

A life insurer is subject to an investment income tax of 35 percent on its ‘net Canadian life investment income

D.

A life insurer is subject to an investment income tax of 45 percent on its ‘net Canadian life investment income

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Questions 26

Short-duration contracts provide insurance protection for fixed period and can cancel the contract at the end of any contract period.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 27

A substantial investment is defined as any investment comprising more than 15 percent of an enterprise’s voting shares or greater than 35 percent of its equity.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 28

Which counterparts of duration and convexity are the first- and second order sensitivities of an equity market instrument to changes in the price of the underlying?

Options:

A.

Delta and gamma

B.

Gamma and theta

C.

Theta and rho

D.

Alpha and Vega

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Questions 29

The difference between the carrying value of the parent’s investment in subsidiary and the amount received is treated as a gain or loss in the:

Options:

A.

parent’s income statement

B.

subsidiary’s revenue statement

C.

parent’s financial statement

D.

subsidiary’s income statement

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Questions 30

A holistic analysis in a multi-scenario framework of all significant factors that can affect an insurer’s future financial condition is called:

Options:

A.

Insurance resting (IT)

B.

Dynamic solvency testing (DST)

C.

Financial testing (AT)

D.

Adequacy testing (AT)

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Questions 31

Generally, Participation income is an income stream due the company and is based upon the financial results of the borrower and/or borrowing business entity. Although it can take several forms, the more prominent ones are:

Options:

A.

Participation in revenue generated by the mortgaged property above a specified sum, such as a percentage of gross sales in excess of a specified dollar volume

B.

Participation in profits from the mortgaged property, such as a percentage of gross income less defined expenses

C.

Percentage of gross sales in excess of a specified dollar volume

D.

percentage of net sales in excess of a specified dollar volume

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Questions 32

Risk retention group is:

Options:

A.

A public entity formed by the members of the public pool primarily to provide business risk competency to the members.

B.

A business entity formed by the members of the private pool primarily to provide commercial asset insurance to the members.

C.

An insurance entity formed by the members of the private pool primarily to provide commercial liability insurance to the members.

D.

An insurance entity formed by the members of the public pool primarily to provide commercial expense insurance to the members.

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Questions 33

With fixed deferred annuities;

Options:

A.

the credited rate is determined fiscally and declared by the insurance company

B.

the debited rate is periodically re-determined and declared by the organization

C.

the credited rate is periodically re-determined and declared by the insurance company

D.

the debited rate is determined fiscally and declared by the organization

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Questions 34

The date on which the contract becomes effective is known as _.

Options:

A.

policy date

B.

report date

C.

reinsurance date

D.

record date

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Questions 35

What is the act in which the main sections are for Canadian companies and for foreign companies?

Options:

A.

Investment reimbursement Act

B.

Insurance Companies Act

C.

Regulatory Act

D.

Revenue-earned Act

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Questions 36

What is characterized by liabilities “shorter” than assets, which can lead to the liquidation of assets at depressed values in times of higher than expected interest rates?

Options:

A.

Reinvestment risk

B.

Actual interest risk

C.

Capital value risk

D.

None of the above

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Questions 37

An instrument that grants the holder the right but not the obligation to buy the underlying asset at a specified strike price is known as:

Options:

A.

Sell Option

B.

Call Option

C.

Buy Option

D.

None of the above

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Questions 38

What funnels premium dollars into separate accounts which means segregated pools of bonds or stocks?

Options:

A.

Variable life insurance

B.

Periodic life insurance

C.

Insurance plan

D.

Isolated Interest rate

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Questions 39

To avoid double counting or omitting the effects of risks factors what should reflect assumptions that are consistent with those inherent in the cash flows?

Options:

A.

Economic flow

B.

Nominal flows

C.

Discount rates

D.

Inflation effect

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Questions 40

Insurance entities usually write covered-call options because they consider the premium received for writing the options to be either:

Options:

A.

an economic hedge between a decline in market price and security

B.

a decrease in yield on the underlying risk security

C.

Both A & B

D.

Neither A nor B

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Questions 41

Revenue risk is defined as:

Options:

A.

the general administrative costs of insurers include components that do not necessarily vary with the level of the equity markets

B.

the general administrative costs of investors include components that must necessarily vary with the level of the equity markets

C.

the particular administrative costs of insurers include components that must necessarily vary with the level of the equity markets

D.

the general administrative costs of investors include components that do not vary with the level of the equity markets

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Questions 42

A mortgage servicer performs all of the servicing functions. The servicer remits all funds received on the serviced loans to the company on a monthly or other periodic basis and usually reports all transactions, including foreclosures and transactions related to foreclosed property. The contract between the company and servicer should provide that the:

Options:

A.

Company can periodically audit the servicer’s records and files pertaining to the loans owned by the company. In lieu of making the audit, the company can agree to receive an annual audit report pertaining to its loans from the servicer’s independent certified public accountants. This is the single audit concept

B.

Servicer should not have a fidelity bond and an errors and omission policy of stipulated minimum amounts

C.

Servicer must have a fidelity bond and an errors and omission policy of stipulated minimum amounts

D.

Servicer must have an annual independent audit, with a copy of the audited financial statements sent to the company within a certain period of time after the end of the servicer’s fiscal year

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Questions 43

The nature and extent of interest rate risk, credit risk, reinsurance risk and other significant risks should be disclosed is required for:

Options:

A.

Actuarial revenues

B.

Actuarial assets

C.

Actuarial liabilities

D.

Actuarial expenses

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Questions 44

On both old and new business, companies can also avoid premium notes by entering into agreements involving deposits of a portion of the premium with an extension on the balance. These deposits are treated as:

Options:

A.

A liability

B.

Unearned revenue and not credited to income until the deposit is used to pay the premium

C.

A liability and not credited to income until the deposit is used to pay the premium

D.

Asset and not credited to income until the deposit is used to pay the premium

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Questions 45

The market in which the reporting entity would sell the asset or transfer the liability with the greatest volume and level of activity for the asset or liability is known as:

Options:

A.

Transfer market

B.

Transport market

C.

Principal market

D.

Turn-around market

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Questions 46

Schedule H retains the identity of the Group Accident and Health and the Credit Accident and Health lines of business. However, in Schedule H the line of business designated as Other Accident and Health is subdivided to identify individual policies or elective options. Which of the following is/are out of those classifications?

Options:

A.

Collectively Renewable

B.

Cancelable

C.

Guaranteed renewable

D.

Non-renewable for market reasons only

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Questions 47

Investments in equities by a life insurance company may not exceed the total of

Options:

A.

70 percent of the insurance company’s regulatory capital

B.

15 percent of the liabilities in respect of non-participating policies

C.

25 percent of the liabilities in respect of participating policies

D.

All of the above

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Questions 48

The options for securities that insurance entities own and can deliver if the options are exercised by the option buyers are called:

Options:

A.

concealed transactions

B.

covered-call options

C.

financial servicing

D.

safekeeping

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Questions 49

The risk that the obligation will not be fulfilled and affects the value at which the liability is transferred is known as:

Options:

A.

performance risk

B.

nonperformance risk

C.

hypothetical risk

D.

relocation risk

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Questions 50

Who is responsible for accounting for customer remittance advices and the agent’s current account?

Options:

A.

Accounts department

B.

Customer release policy

C.

Payment policy

D.

Premium collection department

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Questions 51

Valuation technique should be used to measure fair value and is consistent with:

Options:

A.

market, income and risk approach

B.

market, performance and cost approach

C.

security, income and risk approach

D.

market, income and cost approach

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Questions 52

For immediate annuities, this is the ______________, defined by the sequence of periodic annuity benefit payments the policyholder is promised.

Options:

A.

maximum credited rate

B.

minimum credited rate

C.

implicit interest rate

D.

explicit interest rate

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Questions 53

Which of the following is NOT the Asset/ Liability Management (ALM) activity?

Options:

A.

Regulation of Insurer Financial Disclosure

B.

Regulation of Insurer Investment Activity

C.

Regulation of Insurer Reserve Adequacy

D.

Regulation of Insurer Asset Adequacy

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Questions 54

When a retained asset account is established in the place of a cash settlement, an interest bearing account is created by the insurer for the beneficiary. The beneficiary receives a checkbook with which to draw upon funds in the new account. The account holder can make:

Options:

A.

Partial or total withdrawal of the account balance as needed and has total control over the account

B.

Partial withdrawal of the account balance as needed and has total control over the account

C.

Total withdrawal of the account balance as needed and has total control over the account

D.

25% withdrawal of the account balance as needed and has total control over the account.

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Questions 55

The evaluation and subsequent purchase or sale of investments is based on the judgment of the entity’s investment and finance committees.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 56

Insurers issuing participating policies sometimes incur dividends which have been earned but which have not been disbursed or otherwise credited as of the financial statement date. Such dividends represent a due and unpaid liability amount. Reasons why dividends may be due and unpaid include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Premium payment transactions not recorded within the last processing cycle for the reporting period.

B.

All premiums paid to the anniversary date

C.

The policy anniversary date is near the end of the calendar year and the policyholder has elected to receive dividends in cash, but the cash dividend has not yet been disbursed

D.

The policy anniversary date is near the end of the calendar year and the policyholder has elected to have the dividend reduce the premiums, but the premium for the next policy year has not yet been received

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Questions 57

With traditional whole life insurance:

Options:

A.

an interest rate on reserves is implicit in the premium rate and is unlocked at time of policy issuance

B.

an expense rate on reserves is explicit on the premium rate and is locked in at time of policy issuance

C.

an interest rate on reserves is implicit in the premium rate and is locked in at time of policy issuance

D.

a debt rate on reserves is implicit in the premium rate and is unlocked at time of policy issuance

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Questions 58

In many states, a claims-made insurance policy is required to:

Options:

A.

contain an extended-reporting clause

B.

provide for purchase, at the policyholder’s option

C.

provide for automatic tail coverage

D.

All of the above

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Questions 59

________ allow investments to be made, up to a certain percent of invested or total admitted assets, in assets that do not otherwise meet regulatory requirements. If their domiciliary jurisdiction regulations have a this, a life insurer with a business purpose for doing so can make a limited amount of mortgage loans that do not meet regulatory requirements without a reduction in surplus. However, some jurisdictions do exercise some extraterritorial jurisdiction related to it.

Options:

A.

Loan application

B.

Basket clause

C.

Underwriting agreement

D.

None of these

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Questions 60

Audit risk consists of:

Options:

A.

Risk of material misstatement

B.

detection of risk

C.

Both A & B

D.

Neither A nor B

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Questions 61

Fidelity bonds cover employees against dishonest acts by employees.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 62

What is applied to the sale of all or a block of an entity’s insurance in force of another entity?

Options:

A.

Insurance impede

B.

Portfolio Reinsurance

C.

Poly-holder insurance

D.

Syndicated insurance

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Questions 63

A change in _______ or its application is appropriate if the change results in a measurement that is equally or more representative of fair value in the circumstances.

Options:

A.

Valuation technique

B.

Value technique

C.

Investment approach

D.

Accounting corrections

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Questions 64

Excess liability:

Options:

A.

covers the insured against the loss in access of an actual amount, but only for profits as covered and defined in a predetermined planning.

B.

covers the insured against the loss in access of an actual amount, but only for profits as covered and defined in an underlying policy.

C.

covers all uninsured against the gain in access of a stated amount, but only for losses as covered and defined in an underlying policy.

D.

covers the insured against the loss in access of a stated amount, but only for losses as covered and defined in an underlying policy.

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Questions 65

Asset and liability management is:

Options:

A.

An approach of matching assets and liabilities that requires a correct mix of long and short term investments.

B.

An approach of mix assets and liabilities in a financial statement that requires specific long and short term revenues.

C.

An approach of mix assets and liabilities in a financial statement that requires specific long and short term revenues.

D.

An approach of specific assets and liabilities in a financial statement that requires correct mix of long and short term revenues.

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Questions 66

The securities repurchased have the same stated interest rate as, and maturities similar to, the securities sold and are generally priced to result in substantially the same yield is known as:

Options:

A.

Yield-maintenance agreements

B.

Variable-coupon agreements

C.

Fixed-coupon agreement

D.

None of the above

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Questions 67

The two basic methods for billing premiums are:

Options:

A.

policy and direct billing

B.

agency and direct billing

C.

collecting and indirect billing

D.

business and direct billing

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Questions 68

What is considered “pure” mortality protection?

Options:

A.

Life insurance

B.

Premium plan

C.

Transience policy

D.

Assurance plan

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Questions 69

Permanent stockholders’ equity represents an outside claim (from the permanent stockholders’ perspective) on the net assets of a subsidiary.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 70

Cash does include funds in transit, unless the deposit was prepared and sent to the bank. If the deposit was sent to the bank, it is considered cash and entered into the company’s books and is no longer in transit. Funds in transit not yet sent to the bank are entered:

Options:

A.

On a write-in line on the Assets page

B.

As a prepaid asset on the Assets page

C.

As a long term asset on the Assets page

D.

As a non-admitted asset on Asset page

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Questions 71

Which of the following is NOT the primary consideration for defining the capital of a company for purposes of measuring capital adequacy?

Options:

A.

Permanence

B.

Freedom from mandatory fixed charges

C.

Debtors of the business

D.

Creditors of the business

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Questions 72

What is based on statistical data and are large groups of similar risks can be classified by a few and easily identifiable characteristics and result in standard rates?

Options:

A.

Numerical rating

B.

Premium rating

C.

Manual rating

D.

Item rating

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Questions 73

An estimate due to time lags in the receipt of reports from cendants is called reinsurance.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 74

Policy loan:

Options:

A.

On policies are valuable to the policyholders, and insurers encourage them to protect this feature by saving it for emergency use

B.

Interest rate is raised to eight percent

C.

Interest rate was raised to eight percent, and later variable rates were approved

D.

Do not have variable principal payments or a maturity

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Questions 75

The ten largest companies account for what percent of life insurance sales in Canada?

Options:

A.

less than 50 percent

B.

more than 65 percent

C.

more than 75 percent

D.

less than 80 percent

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Questions 76

Selling a stream of contingent revenues to another party, at a discount to the expected value is called:

Options:

A.

Prioritized investment

B.

Reinsurance

C.

Profit

D.

Securitization.

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Questions 77

A private agreement to buy or sell a given quantity of an asset such as a currency, interest rate or commodity at a specified future date at a specified price is called:

Options:

A.

Forward investment plan

B.

Future agreement plan

C.

Future Contract

D.

Forward Contract

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Questions 78

What usually features a fixed premium that acts to levelize the policyholder’s outlay over the lifetime of the policy?

Options:

A.

Whole life insurance

B.

Permanent life insurance

C.

Fiscally examined insurance

D.

Life time insurance

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Questions 79

A package of coverage including most property and liability coverage except workers’ compensation, automobile insurance and surely bonds is called:

Options:

A.

Single peril

B.

Multiple peril

C.

Property lines

D.

professional property

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Questions 80

For Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), the four methods for reporting the results of operations and financial position of a subsidiary (investee) by a parent (investor) are:

Options:

A.

Renovation, Equity Basis, Market, Cost

B.

Consolidation, Equity Basis, Market, Cost

C.

Equity Basis, Market, Cost, Time

D.

Market, Cost, Performance, Time

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Questions 81

In which policies the contract provides for insurance coverage for a fixed period of duration and enables the insurer to not renew the contract or adjust the provisions of the contract at the end of the contract period?

Options:

A.

Short duration

B.

Policy duration

C.

Contract duration

D.

None of the above

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Questions 82

Direct serving loans method requires a system of good internal control and requires that the functions be split between the Accounting Department and the Investment Department. The Investment Department is responsible for promptly supplying the Accounting Department with:

Options:

A.

Accounting data on new loans

B.

Resolving few exceptions reported to it by the Accounting Department, i.e., when a borrower defaults on a loan payment

C.

Data related to changes in existing loans, which affects the accounting function

D.

Alerting the Investment Department promptly whenever an exception to the normal processing routine occurs

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Questions 83

Schedule rating:

Options:

A.

starts with a real standard, frequently the judgmental rate, and adjusts such standard rates according to an evaluation of greater or lesser exposure to risk.

B.

starts with an assumed standard, frequently the manual rate, and adjusts such standard rates according to an evaluation of greater or lesser exposure to risk.

C.

starts with an assumed standard, frequently the class rate, and adjusts such standard rates according to an evaluation of greater or lesser exposure to risk.

D.

starts with a real standard, frequently the individual rate, and adjusts such standard rates according to an evaluation of greater or lesser exposure to risk.

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Questions 84

Dynamic hedging requires that:

Options:

A.

the price or value sensitivities of the hedge portfolio and the assets are in alignment

B.

the price or value sensitivities of the hedge portfolio and the liabilities are in alignment

C.

the price or value sensitivities of the hedge portfolio and the expenses are in alignment

D.

the price or value sensitivities of the hedge portfolio and the revenues are in alignment

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Questions 85

Special surplus funds are portions of surplus allocated or appropriated for a specific purpose. Special surplus funds usually are allocated voluntarily but also may be required by an insurance regulator. Which one the following is NOT an example of special funds:

Options:

A.

Group contingency reserve

B.

Group annuity contingency reserve

C.

Participation is separate accounts

D.

Guarantee Loan

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Exam Code: AFE
Exam Name: Accredited Financial Examiner
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 286

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