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AHM-530 Network Management Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Dr. Ahmad Shah and Dr. Shantelle Owen provide primary care services to Medicare+Choice enrollees of health plans under the following physician incentive plans:

Dr. Shah receives $40 per enrollee per month for providing primary care and an additional $10 per enrollee per month if the cost of referral services falls below a specified level

Dr. Owen receives $30 per enrollee per month for providing primary care and an additional $15 per enrollee per month if the cost of referral services falls below a specified level

The use of a physician incentive plan creates substantial risk for

Options:

A.

Both Dr. Shah and Dr. Owen

B.

Dr. Shah only

C.

Dr. Owen only

D.

Neither Dr. Shah nor Dr. Owen

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Questions 5

The provider contract that the Canyon health plan has with Dr. Nicole Enberg specifies that she cannot sue or file any claims against a Canyon plan member for covered services, even if Canyon becomes insolvent or fails to meet its financial obligations. The contract also specifies that Canyon will compensate her under a typical discounted fee-for-service (DFFS) payment system.

During its recredentialing of Dr. Enberg, Canyon developed a report that helped the health plan determine how well she met Canyon's standards. The report included cumulative performance data for Dr. Enberg and encompassed all measurable aspects of her performance. This report included such information as the number of hospital admissions Dr. Enberg had and the number of referrals she made outside of Canyon's provider network during a specified period. Canyon also used process measures, structural measures, and outcomes measures to evaluate Dr. Enberg's performance.

The clause which specifies that Dr. Enberg cannot sue or file any claims against a Canyon plan member for covered services is known as:

Options:

A.

A termination with cause clause

B.

A hold-harmless clause

C.

An indemnification clause

D.

A corrective action clause

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Questions 6

If a member of the Green Health Plan reasonably believes that a provider in Green's provider network was acting as Green's employee or agent while providing negligent care, then the member may have cause to bring action against the health plan. This legal concept is known as vicarious liability. Steps that Green can take to reduce its exposure to vicarious liability claims include:

Options:

A.

Placing restrictions on provider-member communication involving treatment decisions.

B.

Implementing risk management and quality assurance programs for its provider network.

C.

Including in its provider agreements and marketing and membership literature a statement that members of the Green provider network are not independent contractors.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 7

Factors that are likely to indicate increased health plan market maturity include:

Options:

A.

Increased consolidation among health plans.

B.

Increased rate of growth in health plan premium levels.

C.

A reduction in the market penetration of HMO and point-of-service (POS) products.

D.

A reduction in the frequency of performance-based reimbursement of providers.

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Questions 8

Grant Pelham is covered by both a workers’ compensation program and a group health plan provided by his employer. The Shipwright Health Plan administers both programs. Mr. Grant was injured while on the job and applied for benefits.

Mr. Pelham’s group health insurance plan and workers’ compensation both provide benefits to cover expenses incurred as a result of illness or injury. However, unlike traditional group insurance coverage, workers’ compensation

Options:

A.

Provides reimbursement for lost wages

B.

Requires employees who suffer a work-related illness or injury to obtain care from specified network providers

C.

Covers all injuries and illnesses, regardless of their cause

D.

Requires employees to share the cost of treatment through deductible, coinsurance, and benefit limits

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Questions 9

The Pine Health Plan has incorporated pharmacy benefits management into its operations to form a unified benefit. Potential advantages that Pine can receive from this action include:

Options:

A.

the fact that unified benefits improve the quality of patient care and the value of pharmacy services to Pine's plan members

B.

the fact that control over the formulary and network contracting can give Pine control over patient access to prescription drugs and to pharmacies

C.

the fact that managing pharmacy benefits in-house gives Pine a better chance to meet customer needs by integrating pharmacy services into the plan's total benefits package

D.

all of the above

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Questions 10

Under the compensation arrangement that the Falcon Health Plan has with some of its providers, Falcon holds back 10% of the negotiated payments to these providers in order to offset or pay for any claims that exceed the budgeted costs for referral or hospital services. If the providers keep costs within the budgeted amount, Falcon distributes to them the entire amount of money held back. This way of motivating providers to control costs while providing high-quality, appropriate care is known as a:

Options:

A.

Risk pool arrangement

B.

Withhold arrangement

C.

Cost-shifting arrangement

D.

Bonus pool arrangement

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Questions 11

Edward Patillo has established a Medicare+Choice medical savings account (MSA). This MSA will allow Mr. Patillo to:

Options:

A.

Carry over any money remaining in his MSA at the end of the benefit year to the next benefit year

B.

Make withdrawals at any time from the MSA, but only for medical expenses

C.

Obtain payment at 100% of the Medicare allowable payment for all Medicare-covered services he receives, without having to pay any deductibles or out-of-pocket expenses

D.

Make withdrawals from the MSA to meet qualified medical expenses that are not paid by his high-deductible health insurance policy, but these withdrawals are taxed as income to Mr. Patillo

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Questions 12

Partial capitation is one common approach to capitation. One typical characteristic of partial capitation is that it:

Options:

A.

Includes only primary care services

B.

Covers such services as immunizations and laboratory tests

C.

Can be used only if the provider's panel size is less than 50 providers

D.

Covers such services as cardiology and orthopedics

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Questions 13

The Aztec Health Plan has a variety of organizational committees related to quality and utilization management. These committees include the medical advisory committee, the credentialing committee, the utilization management committee, and the quality management committee. Of these committees, the one that most likely is responsible for providing oversight of Aztec's inpatient concurrent review process is the:

Options:

A.

medical advisory committee

B.

credentialing committee

C.

utilization management committee

D.

quality management committee

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Questions 14

The provider contract that Dr. Laura Cartier has with the Sailboat health plan includes a section known as the recitals. Dr. Cartier's contract includes the following statements:

Options:

A.

A statement that identifies the purpose of the contract

B.

A statement that defines in legal terms the parties to the contract

C.

A statement that identifies the Sailboat products to be covered by the contract

Of these statements, the ones that are likely to be included in the recitals section of Dr. Cartier's contract are statements:

D.

A, B, and C

E.

A and B only

F.

A and C only

G.

B and C only

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Questions 15

The Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act (TEFRA) of 1982 allowed competitive medical plans (CMPs) to participate in the Medicare program on a risk basis. Under the terms of Medicare risk contracts, CMPs were required to deliver all medically necessary Medicare-covered services in return for a

Options:

A.

fixed monthly capitation payment from CMS

B.

fee-for-service payment from the appropriate state Medicare agency

C.

mandatory premium paid by plan enrollees

D.

fee equal to twice the actuarial value of the Medicare deductible and coinsurance paid by plan enrollees

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Questions 16

The provider contract that the Canyon health plan has with Dr. Nicole Enberg specifies that she cannot sue or file any claims against a Canyon plan member for covered services, even if Canyon becomes insolvent or fails to meet its financial obligations. The contract also specifies that Canyon will compensate her under a typical discounted fee-for-service (DFFS) payment system.

During its recredentialing of Dr. Enberg, Canyon developed a report that helped the health plan determine how well she met Canyon's standards. The report included cumulative performance data for Dr. Enberg and encompassed all measurable aspects of her performance. This report included such information as the number of hospital admissions Dr. Enberg had and the number of referrals she made outside of Canyon's provider network during a specified period. Canyon also used process measures, structural measures, and outcomes measures to evaluate Dr. Enberg's performance.

Canyon used a process measure to evaluate the performance of Dr. Enberg when it evaluated whether:

Options:

A.

Dr. Enberg's young patients receive appropriate immunizations at the right ages

B.

Dr. Enberg conforms to standards for prescribing controlled substances

C.

The condition of one of Dr. Enberg's patients improved after the patient received medical treatment from Dr. Enberg

D.

Dr. Enberg's procedures are adequate for ensuring patients' access to medical care

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Questions 17

The Walnut Health Plan provides a number of specialty services for its members. Walnut offers coverage of alternative healthcare, including coverage of treatment methods such as homeopathy and naturopathy. Walnut also offers home healthcare services, and it contracts with home healthcare providers on a non-risk basis to the health plan. The following statements are about the specialty services offered by Walnut. Select the answer choice containing the correct statement:

Options:

A.

Homeopathy treats diseases by using small doses of substances which, in healthy people, are capable of producing symptoms like those of the disease being treated.

B.

Naturopathy is an approach to healthcare that uses electronic monitoring devices to teach a patient to develop conscious control of involuntary bodily functions, such as heart rate.

C.

Under a non-risk contract, Walnut most likely transfers the responsibility for arranging home healthcare to the home healthcare provider organizations.

D.

Federal law allows Walnut to contract with a home healthcare provider organization only if the provider organization has received accreditation by the Utilization Review Accreditation Commission (URAC).

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Questions 18

The Medicaid program subsidizes indigent care through payments to disproportionate share hospitals (DSHs). The Preamble Hospital is a DSH. As a DSH, Preamble most likely:

Options:

A.

Receives financial assistance from the federal government but not a state government.

B.

Is at a higher risk of operating at a loss than are most other hospitals.

C.

Receives no payments directly from Medicaid for services rendered but rather receives a portion of the capitation payment that Medicaid makes to the health plans with which Preamble contracts.

D.

Is eligible for capitation rates that are significantly higher than the FFS average for all covered Medicaid services.

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Questions 19

The Foxfire Health Plan, which has 20,000 members, contracts with dermatologists on a contact capitation basis. The contact capitation arrangement has the following features:

Foxfire distributes the money in the contact capitation fund once each quarter and the distribution is based on the point totals accumulated by each dermatologist.

Foxfire's per member per month (PMPM) capitation for dermatology services is $1.

The dermatologist receives 1 point for each new referral that is not classified as a complicated referral and 1.5 points for each new referral that is classified as complicated.

During the first quarter, Foxfire's PCPs made 450 referrals to dermatologists and 100 of these referrals were classified as complicated. One dermatologist, Dr. Shareef Rashad, received 42 of these referrals; 6 of his referrals were classified as complicated. Statements that can correctly be made about Foxfire's contact capitation arrangement include:

Options:

A.

that the value of each referral point for the first quarter was $120

B.

that the value of Foxfire's contact capitation fund for dermatologists for the first quarter was $20,000

C.

that the payment that Foxfire owed Dr. Rashad for the first quarter was $6,120

D.

all of the above

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Questions 20

The National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) has integrated accreditation with Health Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) measures into a program called Accreditation ’99. One statement that can correctly be made about these accreditation standards is that

Options:

A.

Health plans are required by law to report HEDIS results to NCQA

B.

HEDIS restricts its reporting criteria to a narrow group of quantitative performance measures, while NCQA includes a broad range of qualitative performance measures

C.

Private employer groups purchasing health care coverage increasingly require both NCQA accreditation and HEDIS reporting

D.

HEDIS includes measures of a health plan’s effectiveness of care rather than its cost of care

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Questions 21

The Octagon Health Plan includes a typical indemnification clause in its provider contracts. The purpose of this clause is to require Octagon’s network providers to

Options:

A.

Agree not to sue or file claims against an Octagon plan member for covered services

B.

Reimburse Octagon for costs, expenses, and liabilities incurred by the health plan as a result of a provider’s actions

C.

Maintain the confidentiality of the health plan’s proprietary information

D.

Agree to accept Octagon’s payment as payment in full and not to bill members for anything other than contracted copayments, coinsurance, or deductibles

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Questions 22

The Gladspell HMO has contracted with the Ellysium Hospital to provide subacute care to its plan members. Gladspell pays Ellysium by using a per diem reimbursement method.

The per diem reimbursement method will require Gladspell to pay Ellysium a

Options:

A.

Fixed rate for each day a plan member is treated in Ellysium’s subacute care facility

B.

Discounted charge for all subacute care services given by Ellysium

C.

Rate that varies depending on patient category

D.

Fixed rate per enrollee per month

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Questions 23

Assume that the national average cost per covered employee for PPO rental networks is $3 per member per month (PMPM) and that the average monthly healthcare premium PMPM is $300. This information indicates that, if the number of health plan members is 10,000, then the annual network rental cost to the health plan would be:

Options:

A.

$30,000

B.

$360,000

C.

$9,000,000

D.

$12,000,000

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Questions 24

The Azure Health Plan strives to ensure for its plan members the best possible level of care from its providers. In order to maintain such high standards, Azure uses a variety of quantitative and qualitative (behavioral) measures to determine the effectiveness of its providers. Azure then compares the clinical and operational practices of its providers with those of other providers outside the network, with the goal of identifying and implementing the practices that lead to the best outcomes.

Qualitative measures that Azure could use to assess provider performance include an evaluation of how

Options:

A.

Quickly the provider responds to plan members’ inquiries

B.

Effectively the provider communicates with plan members

C.

Often the provider refers plan members for ancillary services

D.

Many plan members visit the provider per month

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Questions 25

The provider contract that the Canyon health plan has with Dr. Nicole Enberg specifies that she cannot sue or file any claims against a Canyon plan member for covered services, even if Canyon becomes insolvent or fails to meet its financial obligations. The contract also specifies that Canyon will compensate her under a typical discounted fee-for-service (DFFS) payment system.

During its recredentialing of Dr. Enberg, Canyon developed a report that helped the health plan determine how well she met Canyon's standards. The report included cumulative performance data for Dr. Enberg and encompassed all measurable aspects of her performance. This report included such information as the number of hospital admissions Dr. Enberg had and the number of referrals she made outside of Canyon's provider network during a specified period. Canyon also used process measures, structural measures, and outcomes measures to evaluate Dr. Enberg's performance.

The report that helped Canyon determine how well Dr. Enberg met the health plan's standards is known as:

Options:

A.

An encounter report

B.

An external standards report

C.

A provider profile

D.

An access to care report

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Questions 26

The following statements describe two types of HMOs:

The Elm HMO requires its members to select a PCP but allows the members to go to any other provider on its panel without a referral from the PCP.

The Treble HMO does not require its members to select a PCP. Treble allows its members to go to any doctor, healthcare professional, or facility that is on its panel without a referral from a primary care doctor. However, care outside of Treble's network is not reimbursed unless the provider obtains advance approval from the HMO.

Both HMOs use delegation to transfer certain functions to other organizations. Following the guidelines established by the NCQA, Elm delegated its credentialing activities to the Newnan Group, and the agreement between Elm and Newnan lists the responsibilities of both parties under the agreement. Treble delegated utilization management (UM) to an IPA. The IPA then transferred the authority for case management to the Quest Group, an organization that specializes in case management.

Both HMOs also offer pharmacy benefits. Elm calculates its drug costs according to a pricing system that requires establishing a purchasing profile for each pharmacy and basing reimbursement on the profile. Treble and the Manor Pharmaceutical Group have an arrangement that requires the use of a typical maximum allowable cost (MAC) pricing system to calculate generic drug costs under Treble's pharmacy program. The following statements describe generic drugs prescribed for Treble plan members who are covered by Treble's pharmacy benefits:

The MAC list for Drug A specifies a cost of 12 cents per tablet, but Manor pays 14 cents per tablet for this drug.

The MAC list for Drug B specifies a cost of 7 cents per tablet, but Manor pays 5 cents per tablet for this drug.

From the following answer choices, select the response that best identifies Elm and Treble:

Options:

A.

Elm: open access (OA) HMO

Treble: direct access HMO

B.

Elm: open access (OA) HMO

Treble: gatekeeper HMO

C.

Elm: direct access HMO

Treble: open access (OA) HMO

D.

Elm: direct access HMO

Treble: gatekeeper HMO

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Questions 27

The following statements are about the inclusion of unified pharmacy benefits in health plan healthcare packages. Select the answer choice containing the correct statement.

Options:

A.

When pharmacy benefits management is incorporated into an health plan’s operations as a unified benefit, the health plan establishes pharmacy networks, but a pharmacy benefits management (PBM) company manages their operations.

B.

Under a unified pharmacy benefit, an health plan cannot use mail-order services to provide drugs to its members.

C.

Compared to programs that do not manage pharmacy benefits in-house, unified pharmacy benefits programs typically give health plans more control over patient access to prescription drugs.

D.

Compared to programs that do not manage pharmacy benefits in-house, unified pharmacy benefits programs make drug therapy interventions for plan members more difficult.

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Questions 28

During the credentialing process, a health plan verifies the accuracy of information on a prospective network provider’s application. One true statement regarding this process is that the health plan

Options:

A.

has a legal right to access a prospective provider’s confidential medical records at any time

B.

must limit any evaluations of a prospective provider’s office to an assessment of quantitative factors, such as the number of double-booked appointments a physician accepts at the end of each day

C.

is prohibited by law from conducting primary verification of such data as a prospective provider’s scope of medical malpractice insurance coverage and federal tax identification number

D.

must complete the credentialing process before a provider signs the network contract or must include in the signed document a provision that the final contract is contingent upon the completion of the credentialing process

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Questions 29

The Sweeney Health Plan uses the discounted fee-for-service (DFFS) method to compensate some of its providers. Under this method of compensation, Sweeney calculates payments based on

Options:

A.

The standard fees of indemnity health insurance plans, adjusted by region

B.

The Medicare fee schedules used by other health plans, adjusted by region

C.

Whichever amount is higher, the billed charge or the DFFS amount

D.

Whichever amount is lower, the billed charge or the DFFS amount

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Questions 30

Provider panels can be either narrow or broad. Compared to a similarly sized health plan that uses a broad provider panel, a health plan that uses a narrow provider panel most likely can expect to

Options:

A.

Experience higher contracting costs

B.

Encounter increased difficulty in utilization management

C.

Have to charge higher health plan premiums

D.

Experience lower provider relations costs

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Questions 31

The following statements are about the responsibilities that providers are expected to assume under most provider contracts with health plans. Select the answer choice containing the correct statement.

Options:

A.

All health plans now include in their provider contracts a statement that explicitly places responsibility for the medical care of plan members on the health plan rather than on the provider.

B.

According to the wording of most provider contracts, the responsibility of providers to deliver medical services to a plan member is not contingent upon the provider’s receipt of information regarding the member’s eligibility for these services.

C.

Most health plans include in their provider contracts a clause which requires providers to maintain open communication with plan members regarding appropriate treatment plans, even if the services are not covered by the member’s health plan.

D.

Most provider contracts require participating providers to discuss health plan payment arrangements with patients who are covered by the plan.

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Questions 32

Open panel health plans can contract with individual providers or with various provider groups when developing their networks. The following statements are about factors that an open panel health plan might consider in contracting with different types of provider organizations. Select the answer choice that contains the correct statement.

Options:

A.

One limitation of contracting with multispecialty groups is that a health plan obtains only specialty consultants, but not PCPs.

B.

One benefit to a health plan in contracting with an integrated delivery system (IDS) is the ability to have a network in rapid order and to enter into a new market or one that is already competitive.

C.

A health plan that contracts with an individual practice association (IPA) has a greater ability to select and deselect individual physicians than when contracting directly with the providers.

D.

A health plan that contracts with an IDS is able to eliminate the antitrust risk that exists when contracting with an IPA.

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Questions 33

Most health plan contracts provide an outline of the criteria that a healthcare service must meet in order to be considered “medically necessary.” Typically, in order for a healthcare service to be considered medically necessary, the service provided by a physician or other healthcare provider to identify and treat a member’s illness or injury must be

Options:

A.

Consistent with the symptoms of diagnosis

B.

Furnished in the least intensive type of medical care setting required by the member’s condition

C.

In compliance with the standards of good medical practice

D.

All of the above

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Questions 34

Dr. Leona Koenig removed the appendix of a plan member of the Helium health plan. In order to increase the level of reimbursement that she would receive from Helium, Dr. Koenig submitted to the health plan separate charges for the preoperative physical examination, the surgical procedure, and postoperative care. All of these charges should have been included in the code for the surgical procedure itself. Dr. Koenig's submission is a misuse of the coding system used by health plans and is an example of:

Options:

A.

Upcoding

B.

A wrap-around

C.

Churning

D.

Unbundling

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Questions 35

The Blanchette Health Plan uses a method of claims submission that allows its providers to submit claims directly to Blanchette through a computer application-to-application exchange of claims using a standard data format. This information indicates that Blanchette allows its providers to submit claims using technology known as

Options:

A.

Telemedicine

B.

An electronic referral system

C.

Electronic data interchange

D.

Encounter reporting

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Questions 36

The provider contract that Dr. Nick Mancini has with the Utopia Health Plan includes a clause that requires Utopia to reimburse Dr. Mancini on a fee-for-service (FFS) basis until 100 Utopia members have selected him as their primary care provider (PCP). At that time, Utopia will begin reimbursing him under a capitated arrangement. This clause in Dr. Mancini's provider contract is known as:

Options:

A.

an antidisparagement clause

B.

a low-enrollment guarantee clause

C.

a retroactive enrollment changes clause

D.

an eligibility guarantee clause

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Questions 37

Martin Breslin, age 72 and permanently disabled, is classified as dually-eligible. This information indicates that Mr. Breslin qualifies for coverage by both

Options:

A.

Medicare and private indemnity insurance, and Medicare provides primary coverage

B.

Medicare and Medicaid, and Medicare provides primary coverage

C.

Medicaid and private indemnity insurance, and Medicaid provides primary coverage

D.

Medicare and Medicaid, and Medicaid provides primary coverage

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Questions 38

The Azure Health Plan strives to ensure for its plan members the best possible level of care from its providers. In order to maintain such high standards, Azure uses a variety of quantitative and qualitative (behavioral) measures to determine the effectiveness of its providers. Azure then compares the clinical and operational practices of its providers with those of other providers outside the network, with the goal of identifying and implementing the practices that lead to the best outcomes.

The comparative method of evaluation that Azure uses to identify and implement the practices that lead to the best outcomes is known as

Options:

A.

Case mix analysis

B.

Outcomes research

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Provider profiling

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Questions 39

The following statement(s) can correctly be made about contracting and reimbursement of specialty care physicians (SCPs):

Options:

A.

Typically, a health plan should attempt to control utilization of SCPs before attempting to place these providers under a capitation arrangement.

B.

Forms of specialty physician reimbursement used by health plans include a retainer and a bundled case rate.

C.

Both A and B

D.

A only

E.

B only

F.

Neither A nor B

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Questions 40

With regard to the compensation of dental care providers in a managed dental care system, it is correct to state that, typically:

Options:

A.

dental PPOs compensate dentists on a capitated basis

B.

group model dental HMOs (DHMOs) compensate general dental practitioners on a salaried basis

C.

independent practice association (IPA)-model dental HMOs (DHMOs) capitate general dental practitioners

D.

staff model dental HMOs (DHMOs) compensate dentists on an FFS basis

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Questions 41

State Medicaid agencies can contract with health plans through open contracting or selective contracting. One advantage of selective contracting is that it

Options:

A.

Allows enrollees to choose from among a greater variety of health plans

B.

Reduces the competition among health plans

C.

Increases the ability of new, local plans to participate in Medicaid programs

D.

Encourages the development of products that offer enhanced benefits and more effective approaches to health plans

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Questions 42

Health plans often negotiate compensation arrangements that transfer some or all of the financial risk associated with delivering healthcare services to network providers. The following statements are about these compensation arrangements. Select the answer choice containing the correct statement.

Options:

A.

A per diem system typically places a healthcare facility at risk for controlling utilization and costs internally.

B.

One likely reason that an health plan would use a fee schedule system to compensate providers is that this system transfers most of the financial risk to the provider.

C.

Under a salary system, a provider assumes no service risk.

D.

The use of a FFS or a salary system allows an health plan to transfer a greater proportion of financial risk to providers than does the use of capitation.

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Questions 43

In most health plan pharmacy networks, the cost component of the reimbursement formula is based on the average wholesale price (AWP). One true statement about the AWP for prescription drugs is that

Options:

A.

AWPs tend to vary widely from region to region of the United States

B.

The AWP is often substantially higher than the actual price the pharmacy pays for prescription drugs

C.

A health plan’s contracted reimbursement to a pharmacy for prescription drugs is typically the AWP plus a percentage, such as 5%

D.

The AWP usually is lower than the estimated acquisition cost (EAC) for most prescription drugs

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Questions 44

With respect to contractual provisions related to provider-patient communications, nonsolicitation clauses prohibit providers from

Options:

A.

Encouraging patients to switch from one health plan to another

B.

Disclosing confidential information about the health plan’s reimbursement structure

C.

Dispersing confidential financial information regarding the health plan

D.

Discussing alternative treatment plans with patients

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Questions 45

The following statements can correctly be made about the advantages and disadvantages to an health plan of using the various delivery options for pharmacy services.

Options:

A.

A disadvantage of using open pharmacy networks is that the health plan’s control over costs is limited to setting reimbursement levels.

B.

An advantage of using performance-based systems is that they tend to increase participation in the health plan’s pharmacy network.

C.

A disadvantage of using customized pharmacy networks is that these networks typically can be implemented only in companies with fewer than 500 employees.

D.

All of these statements are correct.

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Questions 46

The Gardenia Health Plan has a national reputation for quality care. When Gardenia entered a new market, it established a preferred provider organization (PPO), a health maintenance organization (HMO), and a point-of-service product (POS) to serve the plan members in this market. All of the providers included in the HMO or the POS are included in the broader provider panel of the PPO. The POS will be a typical two-level POS that offers a cost-based incentive plans for PCPs, and the HMO is a typical staff model HMO.

One statement that can correctly be made about Gardenia’s two-level POS product is that

Options:

A.

members who self-refer without first seeing their PCPs will receive no benefits

B.

both Gardenia and the PCPs stand to benefit if the non-provider panels are kept relatively narrow

C.

members will pay higher coinsurance or copayments if they first see their PCPs each time

D.

the plan offers no financial incentives to members to choose an in-network specialist over a non-network specialist

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Questions 47

The Gladspell HMO has contracted with the Ellysium Hospital to provide subacute care to its plan members. Gladspell pays Ellysium by using a per diem reimbursement method.

If Gladspell’s per diem contract with Ellysium is typical, then the per diem payment will cover such medical costs as

Options:

A.

Laboratory tests

B.

Respiratory therapy

C.

Semiprivate room and board

D.

Radiology services

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Questions 48

The Ross Health Plan compensates Dr. Cecile Sanderson on a FFS basis. In order to increase the level of reimbursement that she would receive from Ross, Dr. Sanderson submitted the code for a comprehensive office visit. The services she actually provided represented an intermediate level of service. Dr. Sanderson’s action is an example of a type of false billing procedure known as

Options:

A.

Cost shifting

B.

Churning

C.

Unbundling

D.

Upcoding

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Questions 49

If a third party is responsible for injuries to a plan member of the Hope Health Plan, then Hope has a contractual right to file a claim for the resulting healthcare costs against the third party. This contractual right to recovery from the third party is known as

Options:

A.

Subrogation

B.

Partial capitation

C.

Coordination of benefits

D.

A remedy provision

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Questions 50

Participating providers in a health plan’s network must undergo recredentialing on a regular basis. During recredentialing, a health plan typically reviews

Options:

A.

a provider’s current, updated application information, as well as provider’s peer reviews and performance reports on the provider

B.

a provider’s current, updated application information, as well as the provider’s education and prior work history

C.

a provider’s education and prior work history only

D.

peer reviews and performance reports on a provider and the provider’s prior work history only

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Questions 51

Dr. Janet Dubois is a radiologist who practices exclusively at the Rightway Healthcare Center. This information indicates that Dr. Dubois is employed by Rightway as

Options:

A.

An academic practitioner

B.

An independent practitioner

C.

A network manager

D.

A hospital-based specialist

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Questions 52

Promise, Inc., a corporation that specializes in cancer services, employs its physicians and support staff and provides facilities and ancillary services for cancer patients. Promise has contracted with the Cordelia Health Plan to provide all specialty services for Cordelia plan members who are undergoing cancer treatment. In return, Promise receives a capitated amount from Cordelia. Promise is an example of a type of specialty services organization known as a

Options:

A.

Specialty IPA

B.

Disease management company

C.

Single specialty management specialist

D.

Specialty network management company

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Questions 53

The Gladspell HMO has contracted with the Ellysium Hospital to provide subacute care to its plan members. Gladspell pays Ellysium by using a per diem reimbursement method.

If the Ellysium subacute care unit is typical of most hospital-based subacute skilled nursing units, then this unit could be used for patients who no longer need to be in the hospital’s acute care unit but who still require

Options:

A.

Daily medical care and monitoring

B.

Regular rehabilitative therapy

C.

Respiratory therapy

D.

All of the above

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Questions 54

From the following answer choices, choose the term that best matches the description.

An integrated delivery system (IDS), which controls most providers in a particular specialty, agrees to provide that specialty service to a health plan only on the condition that the health plan agree to contract with the IDS for other services.

Options:

A.

Group boycott

B.

Horizontal division of territories

C.

Tying arrangements

D.

Concerted refusal to admit

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Questions 55

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) Managed Care Plan Network Adequacy Model Act defines specific adequacy and accessibility standards that health plans must meet. In addition, the Model Act requires health plans to

Options:

A.

Hold plan members responsible for unreimbursed charges or unpaid claims

B.

Allow providers to develop their own standards of care

C.

Adhere to specified disclosure requirements related to provider contract termination

D.

File written access plans and sample contracts with the Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS)

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Questions 56

The following paragraph contains an incomplete statement. Select the answer choice containing the term that correctly completes the statement.

One important activity within the scope of network management is ensuring the quality of the health plan’s provider networks. A primary purpose of __________________ is to review the clinical competence of a provider in order to determine whether the provider meets the health plan’s preestablished criteria for participation in the network.

Options:

A.

authorization

B.

provider relations

C.

credentialing

D.

utilization management

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Questions 57

For this question, if answer choices (A) through C) are all correct, select answer choice (D). Otherwise, select the one correct answer choice.

Understanding the level of health plan penetration in a particular market can help a health plan determine which products are most appropriate for that market. Indicators of a mature health plan market include

Options:

A.

A reduction in the rate of growth in health plan premium levels

B.

A reduction in the level of outcomes management and improvement

C.

An increase in the rate of inpatient hospital utilization

D.

All of the above

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Questions 58

Determine whether the following statement is true or false:

The NCQA has established a Physician Organization Certification (POC) program for the purpose of certifying medical groups and independent practice associations for delegation of certain NCQA standards, including data collection and verification for credentialing and recredentialing.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 59

One important aspect of network management is profiling, or provider profiling. Profiling is most often used to

Options:

A.

measure the overall performance of providers who are already participants in the network

B.

assess a provider’s overall satisfaction with a plan’s service protocols and other operational areas

C.

verify a prospective provider’s professional licenses, certifications, and training

D.

familiarize a provider with a plan’s procedures for authorizations and referrals

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Questions 60

Four types of APCs are ancillary APCs, medical APCs, significant procedure APCs, and surgical APCs. An example of a type of APC known as

Options:

A.

An ancillary APC is a biopsy

B.

A medical APC is radiation therapy

C.

A significant procedure APC is a computerized tomography (CT) scan

D.

A surgical APC is an emergency department visit for cardiovascular disease

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Exam Code: AHM-530
Exam Name: Network Management
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 202

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