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APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following statements explain the importance of clearly defined success criteria at handover?

1) Deliverables are more likely to satisfy the client

2) The project can be effectively evaluated

3) Work can be effectively planned

4) Change can generally be avoided

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 5

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development

Options:

A.

3 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 6

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

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Questions 7

Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?

Options:

A.

All variance to the project scope is evaluated.

B.

No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.

C.

Management costs of the project do not increase.

D.

Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.

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Questions 8

A portfolio can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.

B.

A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

C.

A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

D.

A range of products and services offered by an organisation.

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Questions 9

The main aim of quality management is to:

Options:

A.

prepare a high-quality management plan.

B.

ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards.

C.

validate the use of consistent standards.

D.

determine whether to accept change requests.

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Questions 10

What is an example of a project management office activity that would be most likely undertaken to support a project?

Options:

A.

Developing the project management plan.

B.

Developing the business case.

C.

Carrying out A. health check.

D Carrying out day-to-day resource management.

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Questions 11

Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders may be for the change or against

B.

Stakeholders may have little influence or lots

C.

Stakeholders may be internal or external to your organisation

D.

Stakeholders with high influence always have high interest in the project

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Questions 12

The definition of benefits management includes which key activities?

Options:

A.

Planning, analysis and integration of project benefits.

B.

Justification, validation and acceptance of project benefits.

C.

Identification, tracking and realisation of project benefits.

D.

Realisation, acceptance and integration of project benefits

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Questions 13

What information would you not expect to see in a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Quality management plan.

B.

Financial feasibility analysis.

C.

Risk management plan.

D.

Details of scope.

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Questions 14

The responsibility for development and production of the business case is primarily with:

Options:

A.

the project manager

B.

jointly shared between the project manager and project sponsor.

C.

the project sponsor.

D.

the project steering group/committee.

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Questions 15

What is the most likely conclusion resulting from a PESTLE analysis?

Options:

A.

The agreed end date for the project.

B.

A list of possible stakeholders.

C.

The number of project phases necessary.

D The size of the project team required.

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Questions 16

Which of the following is not a purpose of milestones?

Options:

A.

Adjusting resource requirements.

B.

Controlling project progress.

C.

Scheduling payments for deliverables.

D.

Setting major deadlines.

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Questions 17

A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

Options:

A.

define the terms of reference of the project manager.

B.

define the limits of the project sponsor's responsibilities.

C.

allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.

D.

allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

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Questions 18

You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As A. minimum, what should this plan include?

Options:

A.

A. summary of the project acceptance criteria.

B.

CVs of all the team members.

C.

Details Of previous similar projects.

D.

Resourcing details for quality reviews.

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Questions 19

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost estimating.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

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Questions 20

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

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Questions 21

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

Options:

A.

1, 2 & 3

B.

1, 2 & 4

C.

1, 3 & 4

D.

2, 3 & 4

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Questions 22

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of a project?

Options:

A.

The management of a routine operation.

B.

A functional team doing a repetitive task.

C.

It has an agreed timescale.

D.

No specific objectives for change.

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Questions 23

Programme Management can BEST be described as...

Options:

A.

the management of multiple projects by one project manager.

B.

the management of very large, complex projects.

C.

the means of linking business strategy to projects within an organisation.

D.

a fashionable term which means the same as Project Management.

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Questions 24

Which of the following statements refers to how scope is managed in a linear project but not an iterative project?

Options:

A.

Teams can act on new knowledge to change the scope.

B.

Teams can re-prioritise requirements within the scope.

C.

The scope of work is the starting point for the implementation of change control.

D.

Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project

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Questions 25

What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to stakeholders prior to any work being started?

Options:

A.

Verified work breakdown structure.

B.

Deployment baseline.

C.

Configuration record.

D.

Business case.

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Questions 26

What is the main reason for having an extended life cycle?

Options:

A.

Allow the project to have extra time to ensure that that there is enough capacity to realise benefits.

B.

Allow upfront planning for any supplemental activities and incorporate additional considerations for benefits realisation.

C.

Allow time for stakeholders to decide how they will use the output to best effect that will realise benefits.

D.

Allow extra funding to be applied to the project to ensure that sufficient resources exist to maximise benefits realisation.

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Questions 27

What is the main objective of an audit?

Options:

A.

Provide assurance to the project sponsor that the project is going to finish

on time and within budget.

B.

Provide feedback to the project manager with regard to their performance in managing the project.

C.

Provide assurance to the sponsor that the project is being managed using the agreed governance and process.

D.

Provide a report of the current status of the project regarding cost and schedule performance.

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Questions 28

What is the importance of having a business case?

Options:

A.

It allows the sponsor to use the document as a baseline to calculate project slippage.

B.

It provides an overview of the project team performance at each stage of delivery.

C.

It shows how the project manager is performing in delivering the project

D.

It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuously when used at gate review

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Questions 29

One benefit of a gate review process is:

Options:

A.

it allows learning from one phase of the project to be passed on to the next phase.

B.

it stops projects that no longer meet the organisation's needs.

C.

it allows procurement to be planned into the project life cycle.

D.

it allows the project team to plan delivery of the next phase

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Questions 30

What are the likely results of building agile working into a or programme?

Options:

A.

Reduced schedule time.

B.

increased cost.

C.

Increased efficiency and flexibility.

D.

Reduced risk

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Questions 31

What factor creates the effect of the estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Project team getting to know each other better.

B.

utilization of learning and experience.

C.

Project scope increasing in cost.

D.

use of a linear life cycle

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Questions 32

Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:

Options:

A.

components of each product.

B.

budget of each product.

C.

benefits of each product.

D.

risks of each product.

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Questions 33

Which factor is likely to have the biggest influence over the success of communication?

Options:

A.

The size of the communication plan.

B.

The method of communication chosen.

C.

The age range of those communicating.

D.

The type of project being delivered.

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Questions 34

Once a proposed change is logged it should then be:

Options:

A.

accepted, rejected or deferred.

B.

accepted and the project plan updated.

C.

sent to the project sponsor for approval.

D.

assessed to determine its potential impact.

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Questions 35

Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?

Options:

A.

To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.

B.

To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

C.

To manage the project team in all daily activities.

D.

To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

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Questions 36

What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

Options:

A.

Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum.

B.

Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information.

C.

Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

D.

Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback

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Questions 37

The project you are working on has chosen to produce an estimate using a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS). What estimating method is this approach commonly known as?

Options:

A.

Comparative estimating.

B.

Bottom-up/analytical estimating.

C.

Strategic estimating.

D.

Parametric estimating.

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Questions 38

Communication is said to be the means by which information or instructions are:

Options:

A.

exchanged.

B.

received.

C.

clarified.

D.

given.

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Questions 39

How would a project manager use an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Describe the improvement in accuracy in estimations over time.

B.

Narrow down budgetary options.

C.

Eliminate unnecessary costs.

D.

Improve understanding of estimation methods over time.

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Questions 40

What is the prime advantage of using a parametric estimating method?

Options:

A.

Accuracy,

B.

Ability to deal With detailed information.

C.

Independence from historic data.

D.

Speed.

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Questions 41

Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

Options:

A.

It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.

B.

It facilitates the risk appetite.

C.

It facilitates the recording of risk responses.

D.

It facilitates the recording of risks.

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Questions 42

A member of your team has described being involved in a risk event. Which one of the following would best describe such an event?

Options:

A.

An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or impact of a threat, or to increase the probability or impact of an opportunity.

B.

The plan of the response to risks.

C.

An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A risk identification workshop.

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Questions 43

Benefits management ends once the benefits have been:

Options:

A.

defined.

B.

quantified.

C.

realised.

D.

conceived.

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Questions 44

To be considered effective. how should quality management be used in the project?

Options:

A.

To ensure compliance.

B.

To ensure quality standards are met.

C.

To ensure the required process needs of stakeholders are met.

D.

To ensure both the project outputs and the processes meet the required needs of stakeholders.

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Questions 45

The project management plan is best described as a reference document that confirms:

Options:

A.

the project completion date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

B.

the agreement between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

C.

the key project milestones as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

D.

the project start date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles anditerative life cycles?

Options:

A.

Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project.

B.

In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline.

C.

Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review.

D.

Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review

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Questions 47

The main objective of stakeholder management is to establish stakeholder:

Options:

A.

interests.

B.

expectations.

C.

influence.

D.

engagement.

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Questions 48

What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"?

Options:

A.

Teamwork.

B.

Motivation.

C.

Management.

D.

Leadership

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Questions 49

Why is environmental analysis the most important analysis for an organisation to undertake?

Options:

A.

It allows the detailed execution plans, to be defined, that are likely to be developed in order to deliver the project.

B.

It is the only way in which the scope of the project can be identified and detailed in plans.

C.

It identifies the problems, opportunities or business needs which may require some degree of response.

D It is the only form of detailed planning that can be carried out in the earliest phases of the project life cycle.

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Questions 50

A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?

Options:

A.

Benefits.

B.

Quality.

C.

Tolerance.

D.

Controls.

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Questions 51

Which of these is a correct definition of an Estimate?

Options:

A.

The use of a range of tools and techniques to produce forecasts of the probable time or cost of completing work

B.

An educated guess that improves over time

C.

A forecast of the probable time or cost of completing work

D.

An estimate is an approximation of project time and cost targets that forms the basis of the contract

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Questions 52

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

Options:

A.

quality assurance.

B.

quality planning.

C.

quality control.

D.

quality audit.

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Questions 53

How is project risk management best defined?

Options:

A.

A. series of actions taken by a project team member or stakeholder to proactively avoid project threats.

B.

A. structured process to optimise project success by minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

C.

A. technique to decompose the project into component parts or discrete groups for programming purposes.

D.

A. framework that allows requirements to be defined and reviewed so that the best project approach is determined.

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Questions 54

Where in the project life cycle would the project manager typically be appointed?

Options:

A.

At the start of the concept phase.

B.

At the start of the definition phase.

C.

At the start of the development phase.

D.

At the end of the handover stage.

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Questions 55

A generic linear project life cycle might include the sequence:

Options:

A.

Definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.

B.

Concept. definition, deployment. transition.

C.

Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.

D.

Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover. review.

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Questions 56

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

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Questions 57

Project risk management is best described as:

Options:

A.

managing responses to threats.

B.

identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.

C.

planning responses to threats.

D.

minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

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Questions 58

Which of these is likely to occur if the scope is poorly defined?

1. Additional time spent in the concept phase

2. Scope creep

3. Budget over/under runs

4. Scheduling problems

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 59

You have been asked to review the project's quality management plan and in particular the elements of the plan most relevant to quality control. Which one of the following will be your primary focus for consideration?

Options:

A.

The development of a. strategy for the management of quality in the project.

B.

Supplying the client with evidence of control to ISO 9000:2000.

C.

A. review of whether underlying processes and way of working are leading towards product deliverables of the right quality.

D.

The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria defined during quality planning.

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Questions 60

An issue that results in a change to scope or the baseline plan should be managed through:

Options:

A.

configuration control.

B.

change management.

C.

change control.

D.

scope management.

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Questions 61

A project stakeholder could best be described as:

Options:

A.

A member of the sponsoring organisation's board of directors.

B.

A key player who is seeking to maximize control over the project

C.

A person or group who has an interest in or is impacted by the project.

D.

A project team member who has the skills necessary to deliver the project

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Questions 62

Which of the following is not an essential activity to verify the configuration of an output?

Options:

A.

Plan configuration management process and activities.

B.

Create records and reports to demonstrate traceability.

C.

Verify integrity of configuration before use.

D.

Dissemination of each configuration item.

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Questions 63

Quality control verifies that:

Options:

A.

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

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Questions 64

An important aim of a post-project review is to:

Options:

A.

validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

B.

capture learning and document it for future usage.

C.

ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

D.

establish that project benefits have been identified.

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Questions 65

A communications plan should be:

1) one way

2) adjustable

3) measurable

4) rigid

Options:

A.

2, 3 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2 and 3

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Questions 66

Which of the following would be considered most important when carrying out A. detailed evaluation of a change?

Options:

A.

Impact of change on baseline, risks and business case.

B.

The number of extra people required to deliver the change.

C.

How the change will be reported when it is implemented into the project.

D.

The configuration requirements Of the change when implemented into the project,

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Questions 67

Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process?

Options:

A.

Share the issue with stakeholders.

B.

Track the issue to closure.

C.

Escalate to the sponsor.

D.

Apply change control.

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Questions 68

Three general categories for interpretation of communication could be described as:

Options:

A.

email, paper, Voice.

B.

tactile/visual, auditory, written.

C.

telephone, computer. microphone.

D.

reception, transmission, interruption.

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Questions 69

A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle.

Options:

A.

a hybrid.

B.

an extended.

C.

a reduced.

D.

a combined.

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Questions 70

By carrying out a stakeholder analysis, project managers can assess whether or not stakeholders are:

Options:

A.

making unfair judgements.

B.

able to bring expertise to the project team.

C.

in a position to affect their careers.

D.

for or against the project outcomes.

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Questions 71

Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

Options:

A.

External stakeholders.

B.

The end users.

C.

The finance director.

D.

The project manager

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Questions 72

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Options:

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

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Questions 73

Which of the following BEST describes a project issue?

Options:

A.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur

B.

An opportunity that occurs through change control

C.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis

D.

A problem that needs to be escalated to the next level of management for resolution

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Questions 74

Options:

A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

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Questions 75

Which of the following should happen as soon as a change has been approved?

Options:

A.

Update change log.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Update the issue log.

D.

Update lessons learned.

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Questions 76

How is the deployment baseline used throughout the project?

Options:

A.

Progress monitoring and implementation of change control.

B.

Benefits realisation.

C.

Identify options for deployment.

D.

Prepare users for delivery of the output into operation.

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Questions 77

Which one of the following best defines a benefit?

Options:

A.

A. positive result of stakeholder management.

B.

The successful management of a project.

C.

An improvement resulting from project deliverables.

D.

The successful delivery of project reports and updates.

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Questions 78

Which of the following is included in a Procurement Strategy?

Options:

A.

Benefits

B.

Stakeholder list

C.

Contract pricing information

D.

Specification of works

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Questions 79

Following the approval of the deployment baseline, which of the following can be altered during an iterative project life cycle but not a linear project life cycle?

1) Scope

2) Resource

3) Time

4) Cost

Options:

A.

1 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1 and 2

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 80

Which one of the following is the best description of project scope?

Options:

A.

Scope is detailed in the business case.

B.

Scope is the total work content of a project.

C.

Scope is an outcome of the scheduling and estimating processes.

D.

Scope defines what is NOT delivered by the project.

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Questions 81

PESTLE analysis covers the following areas:

Options:

A.

Political, Economic, Sociological, Technical, Legal, Environmental.

B.

Personnel, Economic, Safety, Technical, Legal, Ecological.

C.

Political, Ecological, Strategy, Technical, Life cycle, Environmental.

D Personnel, Ecological, Sociological, Training, Life cycle, Ecological.

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Questions 82

Which of the following role is primarily responsible for defining goals and creating vision for the operability of the project's outputs?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Product owner.

C.

User.

D Business case owner.

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Questions 83

A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce:

Options:

A.

the cost of a do-nothing option.

B.

an analytical estimate.

C.

high-level project costs.

D.

a comparative estimate.

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Questions 84

What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan?

Options:

A.

The project is more likely to finish on time.

B.

There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards.

C.

The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.

D.

There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering.

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Questions 85

Which of the following would be considered as the main purpose of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

To provide a documented account of the outcomes of the planning process.

B.

To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale.

C.

To provide A. record of how the project was planned, for archiving in the organisation's lessons learned.

D.

To identify and record the projects intended financial spend over the period of project delivery.

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Questions 86

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Options:

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

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Questions 87

Which of the following is true of the project environment?

Options:

A.

Within the environment are the factors that influence and impact projects.

B.

Only certain types of projects are influenced by the environment.

C.

The project environment will only really impact the project at the start.

D There is no real way of determining the true project environment.

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Questions 88

Risk management should be initiated...

Options:

A.

when the Project Management Plan is initiated.

B.

at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.

C.

at the start of the project.

D.

once the project concept is understood.

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Questions 89

Which of these is not part of the linear project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Operations

D.

Transition

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Questions 90

Which of the following statements about the business case is true?

Options:

A.

The business case should always be referred to throughout the project

B.

The business case once written will never change.

C.

The business case becomes the project manager's responsibility, once the project is in the implementation phase.

D.

The business case contains key information on how the project will be performed.

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Questions 91

Which of the following estimating techniques utilizes work packages, assigning costs and consolidating to provide a project estimate?

Options:

A.

Analytical.

B.

Comparative.

C.

Parametric.

D.

Strategic.

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Questions 92

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a:

Options:

A.

gate review.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review

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Questions 93

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Risk events always have beneficial effects on the project.

B.

Risk events can have either beneficial or detrimental effects on the project.

C.

Risk events always have detrimental effects on the project.

D.

Risk events have neither beneficial nor detrimental effects on the project.

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Questions 94

A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

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Questions 95

Which one Of the following statements about project risk is true?

Options:

A.

Risk is always beneficial to the project.

B.

Risk is neither beneficial or detrimental to the project

C.

Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project.

D.

Risk is always detrimental to the project.

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Questions 96

A key output of a well-controlled configuration management process is:

Options:

A.

documented traceability between versions of each configuration item.

B.

that the project is most likely to meet its success criteria.

C.

documented evidence of all project changes: proposed. authorised, rejected or deferred.

D.

an agreed point after which no further changes to scope will be considered.

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Questions 97

Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?

Options:

A.

Recommendation.

B.

Justification.

C.

Planning.

D.

Continuous improvement

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Questions 98

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

Options:

A.

to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.

B.

to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

C.

to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.

D.

to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders

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Questions 99

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

Options:

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

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Questions 100

Which one of the following statements about the project life cycle is true?

Options:

A.

The phases in the project life cycle are always the same size.

B.

The same processes are used in each of the project life cycle phases.

C.

The project life cycle has a number of distinct phases.

D.

The project budget is divided equally between each phase of the project life cycle.

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Questions 101

A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a:

Options:

A.

gate review.

B.

learning review.

C.

handover review.

D.

audit review.

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Questions 102

If planning a meeting where there were likely to be stakeholders with widely different levels of knowledge and experience attending, what practical proactive measure could the project manager take to reduce the impact of communication barriers?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the meeting room was reserved for a longer period than normal.

B.

Have a number of meetings where some would be technical and some non-technical.

C.

Aim for a common level of discussion avoiding too technical discussions.

D.

Ensure that a glossary of technical terms was made available in advance

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Questions 103

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of

Options:

A.

the quality manager.

B.

the key users,

C.

the project manager.

D.

the business sponsor.

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Questions 104

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers:

Options:

A.

at the post-project review.

B.

not more frequently than monthly.

C.

throughout the project.

D.

only when assessing project risk.

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Questions 105

Project success criteria are best defined as:

Options:

A.

the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.

B.

the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome.

C.

the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule.

D.

the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success

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Questions 106

Which activity is not utilised by scope management?

Options:

A.

Defining.

B.

Identifying.

C.

Delivering.

D.

Controlling.

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Questions 107

Successful project communications will most likely occur when:

Options:

A.

the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all stakeholder communication from the outset.

B.

email is the primary method used in order to get information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient manner.

C.

A. standard project communication format for reports is used to provide feedback to stakeholders.

D.

the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are fully understood.

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Questions 108

Which of the following descriptions particularly identifies a risk?

Options:

A.

An unplanned delay to the project.

B.

A. current problem that will result in the project going over budget.

C.

An uncertain event that if it occurs will have an effect on one or more of the project objectives,

D.

A. current problem that will result in the project being delayed.

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Questions 109

What is a factor that is important when communicating as part of stakeholder engagement?

Options:

A.

Planned communication will help to establish the level of interest and power a stakeholder is likely to possess.

B.

Planned communication will increase the number of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project.

C.

Planned communication will reduce the power of stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the project.

D.

Planned communication is likely to reduce the number Of valid stakeholders who have an interest in the project.

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Questions 110

What is essential for ensuring the level of stakeholder engagement is maintained throughout the delivery of the project?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders communicate with each other.

B.

The project management plan is established.

C.

An effective communication plan is used.

D.

All stakeholders are treated equally.

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Questions 111

What is the purpose of a stakeholder grid?

Options:

A.

A means of stakeholder identification.

B.

It provides a statement of the stakeholder communications plan.

C.

To understand a stakeholder's position in relation to the project.

D.

It presents an action plan for stakeholder management.

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Questions 112

When no other changes are being considered to the project, this is usually termed as a:

Options:

A.

scope verification.

B.

change freeze.

C.

consolidated baseline.

D.

configuration control.

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Questions 113

What estimating method is most commonly used in the definition phase Of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Analogous.

B.

Analytical

C.

Parametric.

D.

Statistical

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Questions 114

Which one of the following is NOT a function of leadership?

Options:

A.

Reinforcing positive relationships.

B.

Inspiring the individual.

C.

Maintaining constant tight control.

D.

Promoting the project vision.

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Questions 115

Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the change.

B.

Advise the sponsor.

C.

Update the change log.

D.

Update the project plan.

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Questions 116

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

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Questions 117

When effectively implemented, what is one of the key roles of governance?

Options:

A.

Provide confidence that the business case is the best option for the current circumstances and that there will be no changes as the project is being delivered.

B.

Provide confidence that the plans that have been developed will guarantee that the project will be delivered on time and to budget.

C.

Provide confidence to all stakeholders that projects are being well managed and the most appropriate financial and technical controls are being exerted.

D Provide confidence to all project team members that their jobs are secure at least from the period of the project start to the handover.

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Questions 118

Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a project governance board?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor, project manager and quality manager.

B.

Corporate management, project sponsor, quality manager and project office.

C.

Sponsor, supplier representative and user representative.

D Sponsor, project manager and senior project team members.

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Questions 119

The business case is owned by the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

sponsor.

C.

steering group (board).

D.

senior user.

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Questions 120

One purpose of risk management is to:

Options:

A.

adapt the plan to resolve problems.

B.

minimise threats and maximise opportunities.

C.

continually improve the project teams' efficiency.

D.

manage variations in a controlled way

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Questions 121

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its lifecycle

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Questions 122

A project communication plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

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Exam Code: APM-PFQ
Exam Name: APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)
Last Update: Jun 12, 2025
Questions: 409

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