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APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An important aim of a post-project review is to:

Options:

A.

validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

B.

capture learning and document it for future usage.

C.

ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

D.

establish that project benefits have been identified.

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Questions 5

The project team comprises:

Options:

A.

all those responsible to the project manager who are working towards the project objectives.

B.

the members of staff who are allocated full time to the project.

C.

the members of staff who report to the project manager and who carry out work on the project.

D.

all project stakeholders.

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Questions 6

When in the project life cycle might analogous estimating be most commonly used?

Options:

A.

Transition.

B.

Concept

C.

Deployment.

D.

Definition.

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Questions 7

What is the main objective of A. RAM?

Options:

A.

To provide a clear and concise summary of tasks or deliverables and the specific. responsibilities defined.

B.

To provide an outline of the reporting structure to assist in day-to-day management of the project.

C.

To provide an outline of the scope of the project and the specific deliverables that have been agreed for the project.

D.

To provide an outline of the specific costs of the project and which key deliverables they are allocated to.

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Questions 8

Procurement strategy can be defined as the high-level approach for securing:

Options:

A.

stakeholder engagement.

B.

funding for the project.

C.

buy in from the project sponsor.

D.

goods and services required for the project.

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Questions 9

Which of the following aspects would best describe part of the project environment?

Options:

A.

The influence and interests of the key stakeholders of the project.

B.

The technical difficulties that are anticipated when undertaking the project.

C.

The circumstances within which the project is being undertaken.

D The relationship between the project manager and the project team.

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Questions 10

The project you are working on has chosen to produce an estimate using a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS). What estimating method is this approach commonly known as?

Options:

A.

Comparative estimating.

B.

Bottom-up/analytical estimating.

C.

Strategic estimating.

D.

Parametric estimating.

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Questions 11

Which one of the following takes place during closeout?

Options:

A.

Benefits realisation review.

B.

Final project review.

C.

Deliverables accepted by sponsor.

D.

Handover of relevant documentation

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Questions 12

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the:

Options:

A.

change management committee,

B.

change authority,

C.

change control board.

D.

change implementation group.

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Questions 13

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

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Questions 14

A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle.

Options:

A.

a hybrid.

B.

an extended.

C.

a reduced.

D.

a combined.

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Questions 15

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.

B.

A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.

C.

An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.

D.

A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

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Questions 16

One purpose of a typical project business case is to:

Options:

A.

carry out earned value analysis.

B.

allocate resources to the project.

C.

analyse cost-benefit of the project.

D.

plan project work packages

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Questions 17

"The degree of conformance of a process to requirements" is included in the definition of which term?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Compliance

C.

Quality

D.

Benefits

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Questions 18

Which of these is not part of the linear project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Operations

D.

Transition

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Questions 19

A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a:

Options:

A.

gate review.

B.

learning review.

C.

handover review.

D.

audit review.

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Questions 20

In project management quality is best defined as:

Options:

A.

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.

reviews and audits.

C.

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.

professionally-bound project reports.

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Questions 21

Project risk management is best described as:

Options:

A.

managing responses to threats.

B.

identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.

C.

planning responses to threats.

D.

minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

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Questions 22

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The PMP acts as a contract between the Project Manager, the project team and the sponsor.

B.

The PMP defines the baselines for the project upon which changes are considered.

C.

The PMP, once defined, will remain unchanged throughout the project.

D.

The PMP is used as a reference document for managing the project.

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Questions 23

The definition of benefits management includes which key activities?

Options:

A.

Planning, analysis and integration of project benefits.

B.

Justification, validation and acceptance of project benefits.

C.

Identification, tracking and realisation of project benefits.

D.

Realisation, acceptance and integration of project benefits

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Questions 24

Project reporting can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

informing stakeholders about the project.

B.

storing and archiving of project information.

C.

gathering stakeholder feedback.

D.

collecting project information.

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Questions 25

An example Of an external stakeholder group could be:

Options:

A.

users.

B.

A. governmental regulatory body.

C.

functional managers within the sponsoring organisation.

D.

the project team members.

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Questions 26

Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

Options:

A.

Staff appraisals.

B.

Management buy in.

C.

Milestone achievement.

D.

Master schedule.

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Questions 27

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development

Options:

A.

3 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 28

One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures:

Options:

A.

the power and influence of stakeholders is understood.

B.

that all communication is delivered face to face.

C.

your message is understood.

D.

clear reporting lines for the project.

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Questions 29

Which of the following would be considered most important when carrying out A. detailed evaluation of a change?

Options:

A.

Impact of change on baseline, risks and business case.

B.

The number of extra people required to deliver the change.

C.

How the change will be reported when it is implemented into the project.

D.

The configuration requirements Of the change when implemented into the project,

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Questions 30

Which of these is likely to occur if the scope is poorly defined?

1. Additional time spent in the concept phase

2. Scope creep

3. Budget over/under runs

4. Scheduling problems

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 31

What benefit justifies expending resources to achieve stakeholder

engagement?

Options:

A.

Optimised resource management opportunities.

B.

Reduced overall costs Of project delivery.

C.

Decreased duration of the project schedule.

D.

Increased likelihood Of the project being accepted.

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Questions 32

A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

Options:

A.

define the terms of reference of the project manager.

B.

define the limits of the project sponsor's responsibilities.

C.

allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.

D.

allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

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Questions 33

Which one of the following would be expected to form the main part of a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Deciding on the approach to project risk management.

B.

Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative importance.

C.

Deciding on how to respond to the risk and who should implement the response.

D.

Deciding if the risk is a threat or opportunity.

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Questions 34

Which one of the following best describes users?

Options:

A.

Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.

B.

Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.

C.

Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.

D.

Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

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Questions 35

How can the project manager ensure a sound stakeholder environment?

Options:

A.

Ensure that stakeholders who oppose the project are not involved

B.

Develop an environment where all stakeholder's needs are satisfied.

C.

Develop ways of understanding the needs of stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that the influence stakeholders have is reduced.

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Questions 36

How is project risk management best defined?

Options:

A.

A. series of actions taken by a project team member or stakeholder to proactively avoid project threats.

B.

A. structured process to optimise project success by minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

C.

A. technique to decompose the project into component parts or discrete groups for programming purposes.

D.

A. framework that allows requirements to be defined and reviewed so that the best project approach is determined.

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Questions 37

Which of the following disadvantages applies to video conferencing?

Options:

A.

A level of technological expertise is required.

B.

Body language can reinforce the message.

C.

It is harder to maintain concentration.

D.

There are increased costs of getting to the meeting.

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Questions 38

Throughout the life of the project. issues that are raised are in the:

Options:

A.

quality register.

B.

issue register.

C.

change register.

D.

risk register.

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Questions 39

Why is environmental analysis the most important analysis for an organisation to undertake?

Options:

A.

It allows the detailed execution plans, to be defined, that are likely to be developed in order to deliver the project.

B.

It is the only way in which the scope of the project can be identified and detailed in plans.

C.

It identifies the problems, opportunities or business needs which may require some degree of response.

D It is the only form of detailed planning that can be carried out in the earliest phases of the project life cycle.

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Questions 40

Which one of the following is an example of a project issue?

Options:

A.

There are no suppliers that can meet our specification.

B.

We may not be able to finish on time.

C.

The project is going to be late.

D.

A key phase of the project is taking longer than expected

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Questions 41

Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:

Options:

A.

components of each product.

B.

budget of each product.

C.

benefits of each product.

D.

risks of each product.

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Questions 42

Within which phases of a project life cycle are risks identified?

Options:

A.

Within the end phase.

B.

Within the initial phases.

C.

Within the deployment phase.

D.

Within each phase.

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Questions 43

Options:

A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

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Questions 44

Which of the following statements about scheduling is false?

Options:

A.

Defines the sequence of activities.

B.

Considers work calendars and time contingency.

C.

Provides a baseline for safety considerations.

D.

Quantifies the required resources.

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Questions 45

If using an iterative life cycle what actions might be necessary for scope items that are NOT considered as 'must have'?

Options:

A.

They need to be given a special priority to ensure that they are definitely delivered.

B.

They should have best resort to ensure they efficiently delivered.

C.

The project could be If the delivery of these requirements were proving more difficult than expected

D.

They would sacrificed if at any time Was to go over budget or be late

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Questions 46

The concept that describes how estimating accuracy changes through the project life cycle is termed:

Options:

A.

estimating risk.

B.

estimating funnel.

C.

normal values.

D.

parametric estimating.

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Questions 47

The purpose of a risk register is to provide a:

Options:

A.

structured process for risk identification.

B.

record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.

C.

means of assessing the likelihood and impact of all of the risks.

D.

record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

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Questions 48

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

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Questions 49

Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they:

Options:

A.

contribute to the project's procurement strategy.

B.

help satisfy the project's resource requirements.

C.

provide acceptance certificates based on quality of resources supplied.

D.

determine the quality requirements of goods supplied.

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Questions 50

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?

Options:

A.

Verification.

B.

Request.

C.

Closure.

D.

Justification

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Questions 51

What aspect is important to clarify when conducting scope definition?

Options:

A.

The number of products contained in the PBS,

B.

The boundaries and interfaces with adjacent projects.

C.

Who is going to perform the work.

D.

When the work is going to be performed.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is included in a Procurement Strategy?

Options:

A.

Benefits

B.

Stakeholder list

C.

Contract pricing information

D.

Specification of works

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Questions 53

What could be considered a significant barrier to communication?

Options:

A.

Use of body language.

B.

Having formal meetings.

C.

Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

D.

Use of informal communication channels

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Questions 54

What is essential for ensuring the level of stakeholder engagement is maintained throughout the delivery of the project?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders communicate with each other.

B.

The project management plan is established.

C.

An effective communication plan is used.

D.

All stakeholders are treated equally.

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Questions 55

Which one of the following would NOT typically be part of procurement?

Options:

A.

Estimating.

B.

Engagement of external suppliers.

C.

Definition of items to be acquired.

D.

Bidding.

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Questions 56

Which of the following can be adjusted in a timebox situation?

Options:

A.

Deadline and duration.

B.

Time and cost.

C.

Scope and quality.

D.

Budget and resources.

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Questions 57

What is the importance of having a business case?

Options:

A.

It allows the sponsor to use the document as a baseline to calculate project slippage.

B.

It provides an overview of the project team performance at each stage of delivery.

C.

It shows how the project manager is performing in delivering the project

D.

It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuously when used at gate review

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Questions 58

Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Define outputs.

B.

Identify outputs.

C.

Share outputs.

D.

Control outputs

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Questions 59

Which one of the following is NOT a project change?

Options:

A.

An approved omission from the agreed project scope.

B.

The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project.

C.

A. requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs.

D.

The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

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Questions 60

In A. RACI coding format, what does 'A' stand for?

Options:

A.

Available.

B.

Authorised.

C.

Accountable.

D.

Acceptable.

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Questions 61

Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a project's business case?

Options:

A.

A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/deliverables and satisfaction.

B.

The reasons why the project sponsor wants their project to proceed.

C.

A statement on how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor.

D.

Provides justification for undertaking the project, in terms of evaluating the benefits, cost and risks

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Questions 62

Which of the following is not a purpose of milestones?

Options:

A.

Adjusting resource requirements.

B.

Controlling project progress.

C.

Scheduling payments for deliverables.

D.

Setting major deadlines.

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Questions 63

Configuration management can be used to control documents, information and:

Options:

A.

users.

B.

audits.

C.

stakeholders.

D.

assets.

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Questions 64

An issue that results in a change to scope or the baseline plan should be managed through:

Options:

A.

configuration control.

B.

change management.

C.

change control.

D.

scope management.

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Questions 65

What is the estimating method that uses data from a similar project as the basis for the estimate?

Options:

A.

Evaluative estimating.

B.

Risk based estimating.

C.

Analogous estimating.

D.

Analytical estimating.

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Questions 66

Configuration management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the process through which all requests to change the approved baseline of a project is captured. evaluated and then approved. rejected or deferred.

B.

the system that ensures that all changes to configuration items are controlled and the interrelationships between items are identified.

C.

the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work.

D.

A report of the current status and history of all changes to the configuration, together with a complete record of what has happened to the configuration to date.

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Questions 67

Communication is said to be the means by which information or instructions are:

Options:

A.

exchanged.

B.

received.

C.

clarified.

D.

given.

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Questions 68

When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

Options:

A.

the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.

B.

the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.

C.

the project documentation must be disposed of.

D.

the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised

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Questions 69

A communications plan should be:

1) one way

2) adjustable

3) measurable

4) rigid

Options:

A.

2, 3 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2 and 3

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Questions 70

Which of the following statements about estimating is true?

Options:

A.

Post project reviews are a prime source of estimating data.

B.

An estimated cost for a project must be 10 per cent to be any use

C.

If you cannot estimate task durations to within 20 per cent there is no point in developing a schedule.

D.

The project manager should always add 10 cent to peoples duration estimates to allow for natural optimism

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Questions 71

Who in the project is responsible for benefits realisation?

Options:

A.

The senior management of the organisation.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The sponsor.

D The end users.

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Questions 72

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project team members?

Options:

A.

To establish formal reporting procedures for project progress.

B.

To assess the progress of their work against the strategic objectives.

C.

To ensure that work assigned to them by the Project Manager is performed.

D.

To identify and resolve project issues affecting the work delegated to them

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Questions 73

One way that communication could be improved in the project is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that free flowing feedback channels are planned into the communication structure.

B.

ensure that communication is carried out as much as possible, transmitting as much information as possible.

C.

target only those stakeholders who seem to show a valid interest in the project.

D.

avoid planning communication too much so that messages are not seen as rigid and overly complex.

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Questions 74

Which of the following best describes a project's context?

Options:

A.

The environment in which the business operates.

B.

The geographic location in which the project is undertaken.

C.

The external and internal business environments including stakeholder's interests and influences.

D Industry and business sector practices.

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Questions 75

How is it determined whether a deliverable conforms to its requirements and configuration information?

Options:

A.

A configuration management plan is produced

B.

A configuration identification reference is allocated to the deliverable.

C.

A configuration verification audit is performed.

D.

A status accounting report is produced.

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Questions 76

The advantages of communicating using a telephone conference call is:

Options:

A.

accents are easier to interpret.

B.

information is easier to understand.

C.

discussions will be quicker.

D.

there is less visual distraction.

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Questions 77

How would a project manager use an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Describe the improvement in accuracy in estimations over time.

B.

Narrow down budgetary options.

C.

Eliminate unnecessary costs.

D.

Improve understanding of estimation methods over time.

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Questions 78

Who is best placed in the project to manage sponsor and user expectations?

Options:

A.

The senior management team.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The project management office.

D The project team.

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Questions 79

What role does the project manager have in the writing of the business case? The project manager:

Options:

A.

works with the project sponsor.

B.

has no involvement.

C.

must develop it themself.

D.

works with the end user.

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Questions 80

Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

Options:

A.

An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

B.

A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.

C.

The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.

D.

A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term

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Questions 81

What might be considered a disadvantage of virtual communication?

Options:

A.

Digital communication links never seem to work as required.

B.

Communication being misunderstood.

C.

There is no method for providing feedback.

D.

This method of communication tends to be time consuming.

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Questions 82

When should test plans for quality control be agreed?

Options:

A.

During quality planning.

B.

When the live product is available for test.

C.

At the end of the project.

D.

Prior to handover of the output

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Questions 83

The risk management process is concerned with managing which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threats and opportunities.

B.

Risks and issues.

C.

Issues that have arisen.

D.

Risk events with negative impact.

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Questions 84

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Questions 85

The primary purpose of a product breakdown structure (PBS) is to:

Options:

A.

define all the products that the project will produce.

B.

define precisely what resources will be used on the project.

C.

detail all the products in order of priority.

D.

map out the key project elements identified in the business plan

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Questions 86

Which one of the following statements best describes communication?

Options:

A.

The giving, receiving, processing and interpretation of information.

B.

The explanation, understanding, managing and sorting of information.

C.

The giving, explaining, understanding and interpretation of information.

D.

The managing, receiving, processing and sorting of information.

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Questions 87

A member of your team has described being involved in a risk event. Which one of the following would best describe such an event?

Options:

A.

An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or impact of a threat, or to increase the probability or impact of an opportunity.

B.

The plan of the response to risks.

C.

An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A risk identification workshop.

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Questions 88

Which of the following is true regarding differences between linear and iterative life cycles?

Options:

A.

A linear life cycle is best for evolving projects whereas an iterative life cycle is better for more structured projects.

B.

A linear life cycle is sequential whereas an iterative life cycle repeats one or more phases.

C.

A linear life cycle is always longer in duration whereas an iterative life cycle is always shorter in its duration.

D.

A linear life cycle is formally managed by A. dedicated project manager whereas management responsibility is shared in an iterative life cycle

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Questions 89

Resource smoothing is used when:

Options:

A.

quality is more important than cost.

B.

quality is more important than scope.

C.

scope is more important than time.

D.

time is more important than cost.

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Questions 90

During project deployment, which process will provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards?

Options:

A.

Quality assurance for the project.

B.

Strategic Business Planning for Quality (SBPQ).

C.

Total quality planning.

D.

Total quality management (TQM).

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Questions 91

What is the most likely conclusion resulting from a PESTLE analysis?

Options:

A.

The agreed end date for the project.

B.

A list of possible stakeholders.

C.

The number of project phases necessary.

D The size of the project team required.

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Questions 92

You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As A. minimum, what should this plan include?

Options:

A.

A. summary of the project acceptance criteria.

B.

CVs of all the team members.

C.

Details Of previous similar projects.

D.

Resourcing details for quality reviews.

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Questions 93

Which one of the following is a valid description of the phases of a complete project lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Start-up, feasibility, planning, execution and roll-out.

B.

Concept, screening, implementation, handover and closeout.

C.

Concept, definition, implementation, handover and closeout.

D.

Start-up, definition, development and production closedown.

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Questions 94

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is considered to be the most important condition of compliance to ensure an effective plan is produced?

Options:

A.

The project team should not contribute to the writing of the PMP.

B.

The PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the sponsor and the project manager as a minimum.

C.

The sponsor should maintain ownership of the PM P.

D.

The PMP is necessary for effective stakeholder management.

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Questions 95

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.

develop a communication plan.

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Questions 96

Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process?

Options:

A.

Share the issue with stakeholders.

B.

Track the issue to closure.

C.

Escalate to the sponsor.

D.

Apply change control.

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Questions 97

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of

Options:

A.

the quality manager.

B.

the key users,

C.

the project manager.

D.

the business sponsor.

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Questions 98

One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue:

Options:

A.

must be recorded but a risk does not.

B.

is an uncertain event but a risk is not.

C.

is a certain event but a risk is not.

D.

always affects scope but a risk does not

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Questions 99

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

Options:

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

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Questions 100

As part of the risk management process the capture of threats and

opportunities to the project objectives are referred to as:

Options:

A.

risk assessment.

B.

risk avoidance.

C.

risk exposure.

D.

risk identification.

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Questions 101

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Options:

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

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Questions 102

A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce:

Options:

A.

the cost of a do-nothing option.

B.

an analytical estimate.

C.

high-level project costs.

D.

a comparative estimate.

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Questions 103

Which of the following phases precedes feasibility in an iterative project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Foundations.

B.

Pre-project.

C.

Concept.

D.

Initiation.

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Questions 104

Which of the following would be considered as the main purpose of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

To provide a documented account of the outcomes of the planning process.

B.

To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale.

C.

To provide A. record of how the project was planned, for archiving in the organisation's lessons learned.

D.

To identify and record the projects intended financial spend over the period of project delivery.

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Questions 105

Which one of the following would best describe a post project review?

Options:

A.

It is a personal appraisal for each team member on completion Of the project.

B.

It appraises the products of the project.

C.

It considers all aspects of the management of the project.

D It involves only the project implementation team.

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Questions 106

Which of the following are the major stakeholders of the project management plan?

1) Project sponsor

2) General public

3) Project team

4) Project manager

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 107

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

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Questions 108

Project team leaders can influence team performance by developing:

Options:

A.

a clear stakeholder management plan.

B.

respect, shared values and trust.

C.

detailed project management processes.

D.

important political alliances.

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Questions 109

What is the best way that PESTLE analysis supports the development of a business case?

Options:

A.

It provides A. powerful way in which the most favourable financial returns are shown from the project options being considered.

B.

It considers a number of options avoiding over reliance on a single idea, when there may be other more favourable options available.

C.

It identifies which tools and techniques are necessary in order to arrive at the best group of projects to be considered as valid options.

D It shows which assets, capabilities, processes and functions are required to be included in the business case.

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Questions 110

Benefits management ends once the benefits have been:

Options:

A.

defined.

B.

quantified.

C.

realised.

D.

conceived.

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Questions 111

The main objective of stakeholder management is to establish stakeholder:

Options:

A.

interests.

B.

expectations.

C.

influence.

D.

engagement.

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Questions 112

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

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Questions 113

Which of the following is the purpose of an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Keeping resource usage to a minimum to help reduce costs.

B.

Supporting the production of comparative estimates.

C.

Identifying where costs can be minimised when preparing a budget.

D.

Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle

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Questions 114

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

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Questions 115

Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?

Options:

A.

All variance to the project scope is evaluated.

B.

No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.

C.

Management costs of the project do not increase.

D.

Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.

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Questions 116

Where in the project life cycle would the project manager typically be appointed?

Options:

A.

At the start of the concept phase.

B.

At the start of the definition phase.

C.

At the start of the development phase.

D.

At the end of the handover stage.

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Questions 117

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a...

Options:

A.

decision gate.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review.

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Questions 118

Which one of the following best characterises a project?

Options:

A.

An ongoing activity to maintain the company plant.

B.

A. transient endeavour carried out to meet specificobjectives.

C.

Continuous improvement of the company procedures.

D.

Manufacturing components for a new technology.

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Questions 119

Which of the following is not an essential activity to verify the configuration of an output?

Options:

A.

Plan configuration management process and activities.

B.

Create records and reports to demonstrate traceability.

C.

Verify integrity of configuration before use.

D.

Dissemination of each configuration item.

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Questions 120

The project management plan:

Options:

A.

justifies undertaking the project.

B.

describes the success criteria for the project.

C.

focuses primarily on time related issues.

D.

describes the success factor for the project.

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Questions 121

One disadvantage of physical communication is:

Options:

A.

its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.

B.

that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members.

C.

it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project.

D.

that your body language may not reflect what you're saying when passing on information

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Questions 122

Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Evaluation.

B.

Identification.

C.

Registration.

D.

Justification.

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Exam Code: APM-PFQ
Exam Name: APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)
Last Update: May 10, 2026
Questions: 409

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