Which of the following IRS documents addresses travel & entertainment (T&E) expenses?
Notice 1009
Publication 463
Advisory 972
Form 1046
The Internal Revenue Service (IRS)Publication 463, titled "Travel, Gift, and Car Expenses," is the primary document that addresses travel and entertainment (T&E) expenses. It provides detailed guidance on what qualifies as deductible business travel, entertainment, and related expenses, including rules for substantiation, accountable plans, and per diem rates.
The web source from the IRS states: “Publication 463, Travel, Gift, and Car Expenses, explains what expenses are deductible, how to report them, and the rules for an accountable plan.” This directly supports Option B. The other options are incorrect:
Notice 1009 (A)does not exist in the context of T&E expenses.
Advisory 972 (C)is not a recognized IRS document.
Form 1046 (D)is not related to T&E; IRS forms like 1040 or 1099 are unrelated.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS guidelines for T&E expenses. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes familiarity with Publication 463 for compliance with T&E reporting requirements.
The general rule for determining independent contractor status looks at evidence in each of the following categories, EXCEPT:
The degree of control the employer exercises over the worker’s work results
The amount of control the employer has over the worker’s finances
The job title assigned to the worker
The type of relationship established between the parties
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers IRS guidelines for determining independent contractor status, critical for 1099 reporting and avoiding worker misclassification. The IRS uses three categories:Behavioral Control(degree of controlover work results),Financial Control(control over finances, e.g., payment terms, investment in tools), andType of Relationship(contract terms, permanency). Thejob titleassigned is not a factor, as status depends on actual work arrangements, not labels.
Option A (The degree of control the employer exercises over the worker’s work results): Part of Behavioral Control, assessing how much the employer directs the worker’s tasks. This is a valid category.
Option B (The amount of control the employer has over the worker’s finances): Part of Financial Control, evaluating payment methods, expense reimbursement, and worker investment. This is a valid category.
Option C (The job title assigned to the worker): Not a factor. The IRS focuses on the nature of the work relationship, not the title (e.g., “contractor” vs. “employee”). Correct answer.
Option D (The type of relationship established between the parties): Part of Type of Relationship, considering contracts, benefits, and permanency. This is a valid category.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “IRS independent contractor status is determined by Behavioral Control, Financial Control, and Type of Relationship, not by job titles, which are irrelevant to actual work arrangements.” The training video explains, “Job titles don’t determine contractor status; the IRS looks at control and relationship factors.”
Payments by U.S. companies to U.S. unincorporated service providers must be reported to the IRS if they equal or exceed which of the following dollar amounts?
$600
$1,000
$500
$300
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers IRS Form 1099 reporting requirements for payments to U.S. unincorporated service providers (e.g., independent contractors, freelancers). Payments for services totaling$600 or morein a calendar year must be reported on Form 1099-NEC (Nonemployee Compensation), ensuring the IRS can track income for tax purposes.
Option A ($600): Correct. The IRS requires Form 1099-NEC for payments of $600 or more to unincorporated U.S. service providers, such as individuals or partnerships, for services rendered.
Option B ($1,000): Incorrect. The $600 threshold applies, not $1,000.
Option C ($500): Incorrect. The threshold is $600, not $500.
Option D ($300): Incorrect. The threshold is $600, not $300.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “Payments of $600 or more to U.S. unincorporated service providers must be reported on Form 1099-NEC, per IRS regulations.” TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliancespecifies, “The $600 threshold applies to nonemployee compensation paid to individuals, sole proprietors, or partnerships, requiring a 1099-NEC filing.” The training video reinforces this, noting, “AP ensures 1099-NEC forms are issued for payments of $600 or more to track contractor income.”
Which of the following techniques is NOT recommended to help protect confidential data?
When leaving your work area even briefly, lock your computer down
Save reports to a portable USB drive and give that to the requestor instead of emailing them
When approached at your desk, turn off your monitor and turn papers face down
Shred unneeded paper documents or put them in a secure disposal container
Protecting confidential data in accounts payable requires secure practices to prevent unauthorized access. Locking your computer when leaving your work area (Option A), turning off your monitor and securing papers when approached (Option C), and shredding or securely disposing of unneeded documents (Option D) are recommended techniques to safeguard sensitive information. However, saving reports to a portable USB drive and giving it to a requestor (Option B) is not recommended, as USB drives are easily lost, stolen, or compromised, posing a significant security risk compared to secure email or file-sharing systems.
The web source from Esker states: “To protect confidential AP data, lock computers when unattended, secure physical documents, and use secure disposal methods. Avoid using portable devices like USB drives for data transfer due to security risks.” This directly supports Options A, C, and D, while identifying Option B as an insecure practice.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including data security practices. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with secure data handling, ruling out the use of USB drives for sensitive reports.
For a VAT invoice that contains what you believe to be a billing error, what is the only recommended solution?
Do not pay the invoice and report the transaction to the VAT administration
Pay the incorrect amount and then send a formal written request for an adjustment
Do not pay the invoice and return it to the vendor for correction
Short pay or overpay as necessary and include an explanation of why you did so
Value Added Tax (VAT) invoices are subject to strict regulatory requirements, as they impact taxreporting and compliance. When a VAT invoice contains a billing error (e.g., incorrect amount, tax rate, or details), the recommended solution is to withhold payment and return the invoice to the vendor for correction. This ensures that the corrected invoice complies with VAT regulations, allowing accurate tax reporting and reclaiming of input VAT. Paying an incorrect invoice or reporting the error to the VAT administration without correction risks non-compliance and audit issues.
The web source from Avalara explains: “If a VAT invoice is incorrect, it must be corrected by the supplier issuing a new invoice or a credit note, depending on the nature of the error.” This aligns with the option to return the invoice to the vendor for correction. Paying the incorrect amount (Option B) or short/overpaying with an explanation (Option D) can complicate VAT reconciliation and may not be accepted by tax authorities, as the invoice must accurately reflect the transaction. Reporting the transaction to the VAT administration (Option A) is unnecessary unless the error involves fraud or persistent issues, and it does not resolve the invoice discrepancy.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including VAT compliance and invoice handling. While the specific question is not directly quoted in the provided sources, IOFM’s curriculum emphasizes compliance with tax regulations, as noted in the program description: “Review peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process – from receipt of invoice, through processing and payment.” The focus on accurate invoice processing supports returning the invoice for correction as the standard practice.
According to the IRS definition of an accountable plan, how much time is given an employee to adequately account for business expenses after they are incurred?
120 days
60 days
30 days
90 days
An accountable plan, as defined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), is a reimbursement or allowance arrangement that meets specific requirements to ensure business expenses are properly documented and not treated as taxable income. One key requirement is that employees must adequately account for their expenses within a reasonable period. According to IRS guidelines, employees must submit expense reports or other documentation within 60 days after the expenses are incurred to meet the "reasonable period" standard.
The web source from the IRS states: “Under an accountable plan, employees must adequately account to the employer for their expenses within a reasonable period of time. The IRS considers 60 days after the expense was paid or incurred to be a reasonable period for accounting.” This directly supports Option B (60 days). The other options (120 days, 30 days, 90 days) do not align with the IRS’s specific timeframe for accounting under an accountable plan.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS regulations related to expense reimbursements. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” and compliance with federal tax laws includes understanding the requirements of an accountable plan, such as the 60-day rule for expense accounting.
Which party is responsible for providing 1099 information for P-card transactions to the IRS?
Merchant
Card issuer
Card user
Accounts payable
For procurement card (P-card) transactions, themerchantis responsible for providing 1099 information to the IRS, as they are the party receiving payment for goods or services. IRS Form 1099-MISC or 1099-NEC is required for certain payments to non-employee vendors (e.g., independent contractors) exceeding $600 annually, and merchants report these payments directly to the IRS when paid via P-card, just as they would for other payment methods.
The web source from Tipalti states: “For P-card transactions, the merchant is responsible for reporting 1099 information to the IRS, as they receive the payment and must comply with tax reporting requirements.” This directly supports Option A. The card issuer (Option B) facilitates thetransaction but does not report 1099s, the card user (Option C) is typically an employee making purchases, and accounts payable (Option D) manages payments but does not report 1099s for P-card transactions.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS reporting requirements like Form 1099. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the merchant’s responsibility for 1099 reporting in P-card transactions.
When maintaining an audit trail of changes to the vendor master file, which of the following should be recorded? I. Who requested the change; II. Who actually made the change; III. The date the change was made.
I, II, and III
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of maintaining an audit trail for changes to the vendor master file (VMF) to ensure transparency, accountability, and fraud prevention. An effective audit trail should recordwho requested the change(to verify authorization),who actually made the change(to track accountability), andthe date the change was made(to establish a timeline), ensuring a complete record for compliance and audits.
Item I (Who requested the change): Essential to verify that the request came from an authorized individual, supporting internal controls and fraud prevention.
Item II (Who actually made the change): Critical to track the individual who modified the VMF, ensuring accountability and traceability.
Item III (The date the change was made): Necessary to document when the change occurred, aiding in audits and fraud investigations.
Option A (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items are essential components of a VMF audit trail.
Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III (date) is also essential.
Option C (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item I (requester) is also essential.
Option D (I and III only): Incorrect, as Item II (changer) is also essential.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “An audit trail for VMF changes must include who requested the change, who made the change, and the date of the change to ensure transparency and compliance.” The training video reinforces, “Recording the requester, the person making the change, and the date in the VMF audit trail is critical for fraud prevention and audit readiness.”
What is the current thinking regarding automation of T&E expense handling, reporting, and reimbursement?
While automation can be helpful, T&E processing still requires a lot of manual work
It opens too many loopholes for unauthorized expenses to sneak through
T&E automation solutions are still too new to evaluate accurately
It reduces processing costs, thereby increasing efficiency in handling T&E data
The current thinking on automation of Travel and Entertainment (T&E) expense handling, reporting, and reimbursement is that itreduces processing costs, thereby increasing efficiency in handling T&E data. Automation streamlines tasks like receipt capture, expense report submission,approval workflows, and reimbursement, reducing manual effort and errors while improving compliance and visibility.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “T&E automation significantly reduces processing costs by streamlining expense reporting, improving accuracy, and increasing efficiency in handling T&E data.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are incorrect:
Option A: Automation minimizes, not perpetuates, manual work in modern T&E systems.
Option B: Automation strengthens controls, reducing loopholes through features like policy checks.
Option C: T&E automation is well-established, not too new to evaluate.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing the benefits of automation in expense management. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the efficiency and cost-saving benefits of T&E automation.
When applied to T&E, compliance requires which of the following processes?
II and III only (Secure record retention; Traveler location tracking)
III only (Traveler location tracking)
I and II only (Accurate recordkeeping; Secure record retention)
I only (Accurate recordkeeping)
Compliance in T&E processes requires robust systems to ensure financial accuracy and regulatory adherence.Accurate recordkeeping(Option I) is essential to document expenses, support financial reporting, and meet IRS and SOX requirements.Secure record retention(Option II) ensures that records are stored safely to protect sensitive data and comply with retention policies (e.g., IRS rules requiring records for at least three years).Traveler location tracking(Option III) is not a standard compliance requirement for T&E, as it relates more to employee safety or logistics, not financial or regulatory compliance.
The web source from Tipalti states: “T&E compliance requires accurate recordkeeping to support expense reporting and audits, as well as secure record retention to protect data and meet regulatory retention periods.” This supports Options I and II. Traveler location tracking is not mentioned as a compliance requirement in T&E processes, per the SAP Concur source: “Compliance in T&E focuses on documentation, approvals, and data security, not employee tracking.”
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing compliance with financial and tax regulations. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with accurate recordkeeping and secure retention as key compliance processes.
Ways to minimize the number of rush checks that are requested include:
I only (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times)
I and II only (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times, Charge a rush check processing fee)
I, II, and III (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times, Charge a rush check processing fee, Publish the names of frequent rush check requestors)
II only (Charge a rush check processing fee)
Rush checks, issued outside the regular check run schedule, increase processing costs and disrupt workflows. Effective strategies to minimize rush check requests include distributing the check run schedule with clear cut-off dates and times to encourage timely submissions (Option I) and charging a rush check processing fee to deter unnecessary requests (Option II). Publishing the names of frequent requestors (Option III) is not a professional or recommended practice, as it may create workplace tension without addressing the root cause.
The web source from SAP Concur notes: “To reduce rush checks, organizations can communicate payment schedules clearly and impose fees for expedited processing to incentivize adherence to regular check runs.” This supports Options I and II. Option III is not mentioned in industry best practices and is considered inappropriate.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including strategies to optimize payment processes. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with proactive measures like scheduling communication and fee structures to control rush checks.
COSO identifies each of the following elements as necessary for an effective control environment, EXCEPT:
Internal controls are monitored and evaluated
Staff work in self-directed teams
Information is distributed in a timely way
People know their responsibilities and limits of authority
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program details the COSO framework’s Control Environment component, which establishes the foundation for effective internal controls. Key elements include clear roles and responsibilities, timely information distribution, and ongoing monitoring of controls. However,staff working in self-directed teamsis not a COSO requirement, as the framework focuses on structure and accountability rather than specific team management styles.
Option A (Internal controls are monitored and evaluated): This aligns with COSO’s Monitoring Activities component but also supports the Control Environment by ensuring controls are enforced. It is a necessary element.
Option B (Staff work in self-directed teams): COSO does not mandate self-directed teams. While teamwork may be beneficial, the Control Environment emphasizes defined roles and oversight, not specific team structures. This is the correct answer.
Option C (Information is distributed in a timely way): This supports the Control Environment by ensuring employees have the information needed to perform their duties, aligning with COSO’s Information and Communication component. It is a necessary element.
Option D (People know their responsibilities and limits of authority): This is a core element of the Control Environment, ensuring clear accountability and authority structures. It is a necessary element.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsexplains, “The COSO Control Environment requires clear responsibilities, timely information flow, and ongoing monitoring to establish effective controls.” It lists elements like “defined roles and authority limits” and “effective communication” but does not mention self-directed teams as a requirement. The training video emphasizes COSO’s focus on accountability and structure, noting that team configurations are organizational choices, not COSO mandates.
Which of the following is a part of a successful ERS (Evaluated Receipt Settlement) program?
Billing of miscellaneous charges separately
Receiving a complete invoice with the shipment
Exclusion of early pay discounts
Use of pro forma purchase orders
Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a payment process where invoices are not required from the vendor. Instead, payment is triggered based on the purchase order (PO) and receiving documents, streamlining the accounts payable process by eliminating invoice processing. A successful ERS program relies on accurate POs and receiving data, standardized pricing, and clear terms with vendors. The exclusion of early pay discounts is a key feature, as ERS payments are typically made on a fixed schedule based on receipt of goods, not invoice terms that include discount incentives.
The web source from Esker explains: “Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a procedure for paying suppliers without requiring a paper invoice from the supplier… Payments are triggered by the receipt of goods or services against a purchase order. ERS eliminates the need for supplier invoices, reducing errors and costs.” The source from Corcentric adds: “ERS is designed to streamline payments by using PO and receipt data, typically without early payment discounts, as payments are made on a predictable schedule.” Early pay discounts are excluded because ERS prioritizes automation and predictability over negotiating variable payment terms.
The other options are incorrect:
Billing of miscellaneous charges separately(Option A) complicates ERS, as it requires additional reconciliation outside the PO and receipt data.
Receiving a complete invoice with the shipment(Option B) contradicts the ERS model, which eliminates the need for invoices.
Use of pro forma purchase orders(Option D) is not standard, as ERS relies on firm POs, not provisional ones like pro forma POs.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including advanced payment methods like ERS. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the industry standard that ERS programs exclude early pay discounts to ensure streamlined, predictable payments.
Which of the following is the purpose of FATCA?
To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.
To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent
To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.
To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA), enacted in 2010 to combat tax evasion by U.S. taxpayers using foreign accounts. FATCA requires foreign financial institutions (FFIs) to report U.S. account holders’ information to the IRS, making it harder for individuals and organizations to hide income offshore and avoid U.S. taxes.
Option A (To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.): Incorrect. FATCA reduces privacy by requiring FFIs to report account details to the IRS, not protect it.
Option B (To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent): Incorrect. FATCA focuses on reporting foreign accounts of U.S. taxpayers, not harmonizing payment reporting rules for U.S. and non-U.S. persons.
Option C (To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.): Correct. FATCA’s primary purpose is to prevent tax evasion by requiring FFIs and certain non-financial foreign entities to report U.S. account holders’ financial information, ensuring taxable income is reported.
Option D (To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries): Incorrect. FATCA addresses U.S. tax compliance, not foreign governments’ tax policies.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “FATCA was enacted to combat tax evasion by requiring foreign financial institutions to report U.S. account holders’ information, making it difficult to avoid taxes through offshore accounts.” TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliance, a recommended IOFM resource, explains, “FATCA ensures compliance by imposing withholding on payments to non-compliant FFIs, targeting U.S. taxpayers hiding income abroad.” The training video reinforces this, noting FATCA’s role in “closing loopholes for offshore tax evasion.”
What is a good strategy for dealing with the change that typically accompanies automation?
Request that you be reassigned to a role that is unaffected by automation
If you feel the change won’t be for the best, try to convince management to delay
Don’t worry about it until you must actually implement the changes
Understand and accept that it will take time to learn a new system
Automation in accounts payable often introduces significant changes, such as new systems or workflows. A good strategy is tounderstand and accept that it will take time to learn a new system(Option D), which involves embracing training, adapting to new processes, and recognizing the learning curve. This proactive approach supports successful implementation and long-term efficiency. Requesting reassignment (Option A), delaying implementation (Option B), or ignoring the change (Option C) are not constructive strategies, as they resist adaptation and hinder organizational progress.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “To manage change from AP automation, employees should embrace the learning process, understanding that mastering new systems takes time and training.” This directly supports Option D.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including strategies for managing change during automation. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes proactive adaptation to new technologies.
Ways to reduce the cost of processing an invoice include:
III only (Reducing the amount of manual data entry)
I, II, and III (Eliminating the approval process, Reducing the amount of paper handling, Reducing the amount of manual data entry)
II and III only (Reducing the amount of paper handling, Reducing the amount of manual data entry)
I and II only (Eliminating the approval process, Reducing the amount of paper handling)
Reducing the cost of invoice processing involves streamlining workflows and minimizing labor-intensive tasks. Reducing paper handling (e.g., through e-invoicing or digital workflows) and manual data entry (e.g., through optical character recognition or automation) are proven methods to lower costs. Eliminating the approval process entirely (Option I) is not a recommended practice, as it increases the risk of errors and fraud, undermining internal controls.
The web source from NetSuite states: “Automation and digitization can significantly reduce invoice processing costs by minimizing manual data entry and paper-based processes… Technologies like OCR and e-invoicing reduce the need for physical handling and manual input.” The Esker source adds: “Reducing paper handling and manual data entry are key to lowering AP processing costs, as they eliminate time-consuming tasks.” These sources confirm that Options II and III are effective cost-reduction strategies, while Option I is not supported, as approvals are a critical control.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Invoices” and “Technology and Automation,” emphasizing efficient invoice processing. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” includes adopting automation to reduce manual tasks, aligning with Options II and III.
Good vendor master file practices include each of the following, EXCEPT:
Having a vendor verification program
Blocking inactive vendors after a certain period
Finding and consolidating duplicate vendors
Deleting and re-entering vendors that move
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program outlines best practices for maintaining an accurate and efficient VMF. These include verifying vendor data, blocking inactive vendors, and consolidating duplicates to prevent errors and fraud.Deleting and re-entering vendors that moveis not a good practice, as it disrupts historical data and audit trails; instead, the VMF should be updated with the new address.
Option A (Having a vendor verification program): A good practice, ensuring vendors are legitimate through TIN matches, address verification, and sanction list checks.
Option B (Blocking inactive vendors after a certain period): A good practice, preventing accidental payments to dormant vendors while retaining their data for records.
Option C (Finding and consolidating duplicate vendors): A good practice, reducing errors like duplicate payments by merging redundant vendor records.
Option D (Deleting and re-entering vendors that move): Not a good practice. Deleting and re-entering disrupts transaction history; updating the address is the correct approach. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Best practices include vendor verification, blocking inactive vendors, and consolidating duplicates,but deleting and re-entering vendors for address changes is inefficient and risks data loss.” The training video emphasizes, “Update vendor addresses in the VMF rather than deleting records to maintain audit trails.”
The acronym “VAT” stands for:
Value assessed tax
Variable added tax
Variable assessed tax
Value added tax
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers value-added tax (VAT), a consumption tax levied on the value added at each stage of production or distribution, common in many countries (e.g., EU, Canada). The acronymVATstands forValue Added Tax, a standard term in tax compliance.
Option A (Value assessed tax): Incorrect. This is not a recognized term in tax regulations.
Option B (Variable added tax): Incorrect. The term does not reflect the concept of value added at production stages.
Option C (Variable assessed tax): Incorrect. This is not a standard tax term.
Option D (Value added tax): Correct. VAT is universally known as Value Added Tax, as defined by tax authorities and IOFM materials.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancedefines VAT as “Value Added Tax, a tax on the value added at each stage of goods or services production.” The training video explains, “VAT, or Value Added Tax, is a key compliance area for AP in international transactions, requiring accurate invoicing and reporting.”
What is one benefit of entering a commodity code in a user-defined field when setting up a newvendor?
It prevents a duplicate vendor from being entered
It indicates which team member created the new record
It automatically generates a price comparison to other similar vendors
It enables procurement to use the data for spend analysis
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of structured data in the vendor master file (VMF) to support organizational processes. Entering acommodity code(a standardized code classifying goods or services) in a user-defined field allows procurement to categorize vendor offerings, enablingspend analysisto identify spending patterns, negotiate better terms, and optimize supplier selection.
Option A (It prevents a duplicate vendor from being entered): Incorrect. Commodity codes classify goods/services, not vendor identities; duplicate prevention relies on TIN or name checks.
Option B (It indicates which team member created the new record): Incorrect. Commodity codes are unrelated to record creation metadata, which is tracked separately.
Option C (It automatically generates a price comparison to other similar vendors): Incorrect. Commodity codes enable categorization but do not automatically generate price comparisons; additional tools are needed.
Option D (It enables procurement to use the data for spend analysis): Correct. Commodity codes allow procurement to group vendors by product/service type, facilitating spend analysis and strategic sourcing.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Entering commodity codes in the vendor master file enables procurement to perform spend analysis by categorizing vendor goods and services.” The training video notes, “Commodity codes support procurement’s ability to analyze spending patterns, a key benefit of structured VMF data.”
The acronym GAAP stands for which of the following?
Government Accounting Acceptance Principles
Government Accounting Actuarial Program
General Accounting Administration Program
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding foundational accounting standards, such asGenerally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), which govern financial reporting in the U.S. GAAP provides a standardized framework for recording and reporting financial transactions, ensuring consistency and transparency, which is critical for AP processes like invoice recording and financial statement preparation.
Option A (Government Accounting Acceptance Principles): Incorrect, as GAAP is not specific to government accounting and is not termed “acceptance principles.”
Option B (Government Accounting Actuarial Program): Incorrect, as GAAP is unrelated to actuarial programs or government-specific accounting.
Option C (General Accounting Administration Program): Incorrect, as GAAP is a set of principles, not an administrative program.
Option D (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles): Correct. GAAP is the standard framework for financial accounting, widely used by AP professionals to ensure accurate and compliant financial reporting.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) provide the rules and standards for financial reporting, ensuring that AP transactions are recorded consistently and transparently.” The training video mentions GAAP in the context of internal controls, noting its role in maintaining financial statement accuracy and compliance with regulations like the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
Sales and use taxes are levied by which of the following? I. Cities and towns; II. Federal government; III. States.
II and III only
III only
I and III only
I, II, and III
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers sales and use taxes, which are imposed on the sale or use of goods and services. In the U.S., sales and use taxes are levied bystatesand, in many cases,cities and towns(local jurisdictions). Thefederal governmentdoes not impose sales or use taxes, as this authority is reserved for state and local governments.
Item I (Cities and towns): Many cities and towns impose local sales taxes, often in addition to state taxes, to fund municipal services. This is a valid taxing authority.
Item II (Federal government): The federal government does not levy sales or use taxes; it imposes taxes like income or excise taxes. This is not a valid taxing authority for sales and use taxes.
Item III (States): States are the primary authorities for sales and use taxes, setting rates and rules for taxable transactions. This is a valid taxing authority.
Option A (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item II is not a valid taxing authority.
Option B (III only): Incorrect, as Item I is also a valid taxing authority.
Option C (I and III only): Correct, as only states and local jurisdictions (cities and towns) levy sales and use taxes.
Option D (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item II is not a valid taxing authority.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “Sales and use taxes are levied by states and local jurisdictions, such as cities and towns, but not by the federal government.” The training video discusses AP’s role in managing sales tax compliance, noting that “states and local governments set sales tax rates, while the federal government does not impose such taxes.”
Which of the following best describes ERP systems?
They are popular methods of tracking continuous improvement
They provide a sophisticated means of fraud detection
They link together business functions with real-time data flow
They are payment systems designed exclusively for cryptocurrency
Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems are integrated software platforms that link various business functions—such as accounting, procurement, accounts payable, inventory, and human resources—through a centralized database, enabling real-time data flow and streamlined operations. ERP systems enhance efficiency by providing a unified view of business processes, but they are not primarily for tracking continuous improvement (Option A), fraud detection (Option B), or cryptocurrency payments (Option D).
The web source from NetSuite states: “ERP systems integrate business functions, such as finance, procurement, and HR, with real-time data flow to improve efficiency and decision-making.” This directly supports Option C, emphasizing the role of ERP in linking business functions with real-time data.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including the role of ERP systems in accounts payable processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the definition of ERP systems as integrative platforms for real-time data management.
Filing for a VAT refund is difficult because: I. Invoices must include the name and address of the company filing for the refund; II. Only authorized agents may apply for the refunds; III. An original invoice must be submitted.
II only
I only
I and III only
II and III only
TheInvoicestopic in the APS Certification Program covers the complexities of value-added tax (VAT) refunds, particularly for businesses operating in VAT jurisdictions (e.g., EU). VAT refund processes are stringent, requiring specific invoice details like the company’s name and address (Item I) and, in many cases, original invoices (Item III). However,only authorized agents applying for refunds (Item II)is not universally true, as businesses or their tax representatives can often file directly, depending on the jurisdiction.
Item I (Invoices must include the name and address of the company filing for the refund): True. VAT regulations (e.g., EU VAT Directive) require invoices to include the claimant’s name and address to verify eligibility. This contributes to refund difficulty.
Item II (Only authorized agents may apply for the refunds): Not universally true. While some jurisdictions allow or require agents, businesses can often file directly or designate representatives without mandating third-party agents. This does not consistently contribute to difficulty.
Item III (An original invoice must be submitted): True. Many VAT jurisdictions require original invoices (or certified copies) to validate claims, increasing administrative burden and difficulty.
Option A (II only): Incorrect, as Item II is not universally applicable, and Items I and III are valid.
Option B (I only): Incorrect, as Item III also contributes to refund difficulty.
Option C (I and III only): Correct, as Items I and III are standard requirements that make VAT refunds difficult.
Option D (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item II is not a universal requirement.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInvoicesstates, “VAT refund processes are complex due to requirements like including the claimant’s name and address on invoices and submitting original invoices.” It notes that “while agents may assist, direct filing bybusinesses is often permitted, depending on the jurisdiction.” The training video discusses VAT refunds, highlighting the need for “specific invoice details and original documents” as key challenges.
Which of the following is a key reason for careful management of your vendor master file?
Control the number of vendor calls
Reduce the potential for fraud
Monitor vendor quality
Gain visibility into payment status
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of managing the vendor master file to prevent errors and risks. A key reason is toreduce the potential for fraud, as accurate and validated vendor data (e.g., TINs, addresses) prevents payments to fraudulent vendors and ensures compliance with regulations like OFAC.
Option A (Control the number of vendor calls): Not a primary reason. While a clean vendor master file may reduce inquiries, this is a secondary benefit, not a key focus.
Option B (Reduce the potential for fraud): Correct. Careful management, including TIN verification and sanction list checks, prevents fraudulent vendor setups and payments.
Option C (Monitor vendor quality): Vendor quality is typically assessed by Procurement or Operations, not the vendor master file, which focuses on data accuracy. Incorrect.
Option D (Gain visibility into payment status): Payment status is tracked in AP systems, not the vendor master file, which stores static vendor data. Incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Careful management of the vendor master file reduces fraud risk by ensuring accurate vendor data and compliance with validation processes.” The training video emphasizes, “A well-maintained vendor master file prevents fraud through rigorous verification, such as TIN matches and address checks.”
What is one concern accounts payable should have regarding international travel?
International travel vendors are known to be unscrupulous so expenses must be scrutinized
Employees must collect appropriate VAT information to allow reclaiming the tax
Significant differences in time zones can make communication with travelers difficult
Fluctuations in exchange rates must be considered to optimally schedule travel
International travel introduces specific concerns for accounts payable, particularly in ensuring compliance with tax regulations. A key concern is that employees must collect appropriate Value Added Tax (VAT) information (e.g., VAT invoices or receipts) to enable the organization to reclaim VAT paid on eligible expenses in foreign jurisdictions. This is critical for cost recovery and compliance with international tax laws.
The web source from Avalara states: “For international travel, AP departments must ensure employees collect proper VAT invoices to reclaim taxes, as failure to do so can result in lost savings and compliance issues.” The other options are less directly relevant:
Option A(unscrupulous vendors) is a generalization and not a primary AP concern.
Option C(time zones) affects communication but is not an AP-specific issue.
Option D(exchange rates) is a consideration for budgeting, not AP’s primary responsibility.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E)” and “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including VAT compliance for international expenses. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” supports the importance of collecting VAT information for tax reclamation.
On a procurement card statement, which of the following levels of purchase detail is necessary in order to conduct spend analysis?
Level 1 detail
Level 2 detail
Level 3 detail
Level 4 detail
Procurement card (P-card) statements provide purchase data at different levels of detail. Level 3 detail includes comprehensive transaction information, such as itemized descriptions, quantities, unit prices, and merchant category codes, making it suitable for conducting spend analysis to track spending patterns and optimize procurement strategies. Level 1 provides basic data (e.g., merchant name, amount), and Level 2 includes additional data (e.g., tax amounts), but neither is sufficient for detailed analysis. Level 4 is not a standard term in P-card reporting.
The web source from Corcentric explains: “Level 3 data on P-card statements includes detailed transaction information, such as line-item details and quantities, enabling organizations to perform robust spend analysis.” This confirms that Level 3 detail (Option C) is necessary for spend analysis.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including P-card program management and reporting. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the use of Level 3 data for effective spend analysis in P-card programs.
All of the following items are typically addressed in an organization’s vendor setup guidelines except:
Validating that the person who requested the new vendor is authorized to do so
Whether or not the vendor outsources its order fulfillment process
The conventions for the way letters and abbreviations must be entered
Verification that the vendor is not already in the system
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program covers vendor setup guidelines, which ensure consistency, accuracy, and compliance when adding new vendors. Guidelines typically include validating requester authority, standardizing data entry, and checking for duplicates.Whether the vendor outsources its order fulfillment processis a procurement or operational concern, not typically part of VMF setup guidelines.
Option A (Validating that the person who requested the new vendor is authorized to doso): Included, to ensure only authorized personnel initiate vendor setups, reducing fraud risk.
Option B (Whether or not the vendor outsources its order fulfillment process): Not typically included, as this relates to vendor operations, not VMF data or setup compliance. Correct answer.
Option C (The conventions for the way letters and abbreviations must be entered): Included, to ensure consistent data formatting (e.g., “Inc.” vs. “Incorporated”) for accurate reporting.
Option D (Verification that the vendor is not already in the system): Included, to prevent duplicate vendor records, which can lead to errors like double payments.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Vendor setup guidelines include verifying requester authority, standardizing data entry, and checking for duplicates, but operational details like outsourcing fulfillment are handled by Procurement.” The training video notes, “Setup guidelines focus on data integrity and compliance, not vendor business processes like fulfillment.”
TESTED 14 May 2025