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ASIS-CPP Certified Protection Professional (CPP) Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The first step in security planning is:

Options:

A.

determining what can be accomplished with available resources.

B.

performing an analysis of potential areas of loss, their probability, and their gravity.

C.

laying out a plan for internal and external security.

D.

maintaining an appropriate budget.

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Questions 5

Which of the following is one step in the risk assessment process for use in protecting information?

Options:

A.

Securing physical trade secret information

B.

Providing ongoing security training information to employees

C.

Identifying information assets

D.

Confining intellectual knowledge of information

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Questions 6

An organization ' s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) wants to expand surveillance technology at their main distribution center as part of an employee theft and misconduct reduction initiative. Which of the following should the security management team advise the CEO of regarding privacy considerations?

Options:

A.

The additional cameras should be hidden so that employees do not know that they are under surveillance.

B.

The CEO should invest in other types of technology to deter crime and misconduct due to privacy considerations

C.

The new surveillance system should utilize IP cameras that are capable of recording audio as well as video.

D.

Consult with HR and legal to ensure no cameras are recording in areas where employees have a reasonable expectation of privacy.

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Questions 7

Performing a vulnerability analysis, selecting and installing countermeasures, and testing the operating program are three general steps in the:

Options:

A.

conducting of a security survey.

B.

design of a fully integrated security system.

C.

selection of a comprehensive security system.

D.

systems approach to an asset protection program.

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Questions 8

The term that best describes the ultimate goal of a supervisor’s job is:

Options:

A.

performance of the unit.

B.

effective staffing.

C.

goal-setting tor the unit.

D.

timely decision-making.

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Questions 9

In order to perform a logical risk analysis, it is first necessary to identify the assets in need of being protected, identify the kinds of risks that may affect the involved assets, determine the probability of the risk occurrence, and determine the;

Options:

A.

protection staffing levels.

B.

impact if loss occurs.

C.

countermeasures.

D.

budgetary constraints.

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Questions 10

Which of the following provides the basis in a contract to evaluate return on investment?

Options:

A.

Itemized cost breakdown

B.

Significant penalty clauses

C.

Key performance indicators

D.

Detailed and specified requirements

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Questions 11

Post orders should be developed with which of the following criteria in mind?

Options:

A.

Each order is indexed

B.

Each order is detailed

C.

Each order is written in third party language

D.

Each order deals with one subject

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Questions 12

The two reasons for testing the security operating program are:

Options:

A.

identification of residual risks or deficiencies and identification of system changes needed to accommodate organizational changes.

B.

identification of new system requirements and resource justification.

C.

determination of further changes needed in the software and identification of operational problems.

D.

training of personnel and development of new identification procedures as required.

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Questions 13

When managing an investigative unit, the best way to obtain favorable support for budget requests is to:

Options:

A.

cut education and training expenses for the unit

B.

provide estimates of overall investigative costs.

C.

utilize investigators in roles outside of the unit.

D.

demonstrate restitution and recovery benefits.

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Questions 14

Which security program emphasizes a continuing attitude that can move an individual to take specific actions to report or decrease security risks?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Sustainment

C.

Education

D.

Awareness

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Questions 15

A policy for the protection of company-sensitive information must:

Options:

A.

require employees to sign a nondisclosure agreement.

B.

identify at least three distinct levels of sensitive information.

C.

require employees to sign a noncompetitive statement.

D.

provide guidelines that specifically identify the protected information.

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Questions 16

An indication of deception by a suspect during the interviewing process would be:

Options:

A.

giving direct, spontaneous responses to questions.

B.

asking clarifying questions

C.

casually changing position.

D.

engaging in a variety of tension-relieving gestures.

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Questions 17

Capacitance alarm systems are sometimes referred to as:

Options:

A.

sonic alarms.

B.

proximity alarms.

C.

vibration detector alarms.

D.

ultrasonic alarms

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Questions 18

Which type of alarm sensor detects heat from a human body?

Options:

A.

Microwave

B.

Passive infrared

C.

Temperature

D.

Ultrasonic

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Questions 19

To motivate employees, supervisors should:

Options:

A.

get to know the employees.

B.

hold on to good employees.

C.

display operational prowess.

D.

maintain high personal standards.

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Questions 20

Which of the following surveys should be conducted to determine the effectiveness of risk controls and justify their placement within the security budget?

Options:

A.

Probability analysis

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Cyber risk assessment

D.

Vulnerability assessment

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Questions 21

The key difference between an interview and an interrogation is in the:

Options:

A.

number of questions asked.

B.

person being questioned.

C.

seriousness of the matter under investigation.

D.

person asking the questions.

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Questions 22

In addition to utilizing state-of-the-art locking devices, electronic surveillance, and spaces designed to maximize effective use by intended users, what other CPTED strategies can be used to enhance a security system?

Options:

A.

A focus on policies and activities that encourage observation, reporting, and intervention

B.

The implementation of access control and identification badge programs.

C.

The construction of a perimeter fencing and barriers that deters potential intrusion.

D.

The implementation of vehicular bollards at the dock entrance.

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Questions 23

During an investigation of embezzlement, there is a need to review the accounts payable ledger This accounting record should contain the;

Options:

A.

names and addresses of company suppliers.

B.

amounts paid to company suppliers and vendors, together with dates of payment.

C.

amount, kinds, and shipment dates of finished goods sent to customers.

D.

company financial operating results for the most recent fiscal period.

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Questions 24

A major objective of a business impact analysis is to:

Options:

A.

quantify the value of the security program and the proper staffing levels.

B.

identify which processes and computer applications are critical to the survival of the organization.

C.

justify the expenditure for an integrated system and identify the best vendor.

D.

place a value on all assets and calculate the total loss potential.

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Questions 25

In which of the following areas are traditional police responsibilities increasingly shared with private security?

Options:

A.

Federal properties

B.

Urban and suburban

C.

Large corporations

D.

Public parks

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Questions 26

When all risks have been identified and specific points established for each, what must be developed next?

Options:

A.

Countermeasures

B.

Vulnerabilities

C.

Inspection report

D.

Site security plan

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Questions 27

Ideally, background interviews should be conducted:

Options:

A.

in person.

B.

in writing.

C.

as quickly as possible.

D.

over the telephone.

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Questions 28

A security professional is designing a CCTV system to monitor activity in an employee parking lot that is 2,200 feet from the monitoring station. Which type of cable will best transmit the signal?

Options:

A.

Coaxial

B.

Fiber optic

C.

Twisted pair

D.

Network

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Questions 29

The most important written instructions for a security force are known as:

Options:

A.

policies.

B.

procedures

C.

post orders.

D.

operational orders.

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Questions 30

A common misconception about Enterprise Security Risk Management (ESRM) is that it is the same as Enterprise Risk Management (ERM). which covers all risk for the business. What is the other misconception?

Options:

A.

Attempts to assign a risk to a specific program

B.

A program or an element of an existing security program

C.

Built around a security program with numerous sub-programs

D.

The convergence of IT and physical security programs under single leadership

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Questions 31

Which security program emphasizes a continuing attitude that can move an individual to take specific actions to report or decrease security risks?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Sustainment

C.

Education

D.

Awareness

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Questions 32

Establishing an in-house guard service requires:

Options:

A.

a separate budget.

B.

a qualified manager.

C.

a recruitment program, personnel screening procedures, and training programs.

D.

flexibility in identifying staffing qualifications, selection of expertise, and training.

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Questions 33

A newly hired corporate investigator is conducting interviews to collect information and determine who is responsible for the loss of a missing company laptop from a desk in the shipping and receiving department. At what point must the investigator start observing non-verbal responses?

Options:

A.

The investigator must start observing non-vernal responses when the investigator moves the interview into the accusatory stage and the interview becomes an interrogation.

B.

Observation of non-verbal response are only important if the investigator must re-interview someone to nave a comparative in the person posture between the two interviews

C.

The investigator must only observe nonverbal responses if the investigator finds the person to be lying and become defensive in the responses to the investigator ' s questions.

D.

The investigator must observe non-verbal from the onset of the interview process and continue to observe the interviewee throughout the interview process.

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Questions 34

All policies and procedures for drug testing should be:

Options:

A.

require mandatory testing of all managers.

B.

applied on an " as needed " basis.

C.

separate from any collective bargaining agreement.

D.

administered consistently.

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Questions 35

Which of the following can be used to authenticate and authorize computer access?

Options:

A.

What a person has/what a person knows/who a person is

B.

What a person has/what a person transfers/what a person is

C.

Who a person knows/what a person has/what a person inserts

D.

What a person presents/what a person inserts/what a person has

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Questions 36

" Security in depth " refers to a:

Options:

A.

method used to determine the extent of physical penetration.

B.

series of barriers in a protection plan.

C.

redundancy in security systems.

D.

security plan that uses crime prevention through environmental design (CPTED) concepts.

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Questions 37

A major Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) strategy is to:

Options:

A.

replace security personnel and security systems.

B.

provide clear border definition of controlled spaces.

C.

install electronic surveillance equipment compatible with the terrain.

D.

eliminate transitional zones between public and private spaces.

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Questions 38

Which type of sensor creates an electrical field around metallic objects that signals an alarm when activated?

Options:

A.

Ultrasonic motion

B.

Grid wire electrolytic

C.

Capacitance

D.

Balance magnetic

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Questions 39

Which of the following terms best describes when a person ' s tissue cells have adjusted to the presence of a drug?

Options:

A.

Habituation

B.

Physical addiction

C.

Tolerance

D.

Dependence

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Questions 40

Opium, morphine, and codeine are all classified as:

Options:

A.

depressants.

B.

narcotics.

C.

stimulants.

D.

hallucinogens.

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Questions 41

Passive infrared sensors detect intruders by sensing:

Options:

A.

the contrast between the Thermal energy of an intruder ' s body and the energy of the surrounding area.

B.

an intruder passing through a pulsed light beam emitted by the detector.

C.

the air shift that occurs when an intruder passes through the sensor ' s field.

D.

the contrast between an intruder ' s clothing and the stationary objects the intruder passes in front of.

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Questions 42

While conducting an executive protection risk assessment, the executive protection specialist should focus on what two areas in order to rate the risks?

Options:

A.

Threat transfer and threat spreading

B.

Threat avoidance and threat mitigation

C.

Threat analysis and threat likelihood

D.

Threat control and threat hazards

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Questions 43

The most effective way to maintain acceptable levels of vigilance is to:

Options:

A.

systematically rotate the security officer ' s duties between fixed post and roving patrol.

B.

limit assignment duration to a maximum of six hours.

C.

incorporate non-security duties into each shift assignment.

D.

randomly assign security officers to a fixed post or a roving patrol according to their preferences.

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Questions 44

The criterion that serves as the basis for rating fire-resistant document containers exposed to heat for varying periods of time is the:

Options:

A.

percentage of internal water absorption from exposure to a simulated fire hose.

B.

percentage of internal documents that are charred.

C.

maximum allowable interior temperature.

D.

rate of internal temperature rise.

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Questions 45

To be considered a trade secret, information must meet all of the following criteria EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

the owner must take steps to prevent its unauthorized disclosure.

B.

persons to whom it is disclosed must know that it is secret.

C.

it must not be identifiable-

D.

it must not be available already in the public domain.

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Questions 46

For access control purposes, it is helpful to divide the high-rise structure into which three classes or types of interior spaces?

Options:

A.

Lobbies and stairwells, communications and utility points, and mechanical rooms and floors

B.

Lower-level, mid-level, and upper-level floors

C.

Retail and restaurants, leased or owner-occupied, and public or common areas

D.

Public access or common areas, rented or assigned occupancies, and maintenance spaces

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Questions 47

Which is most true of corporate misconduct such as workplace violence, substance abuse, and employee theft?

Options:

A.

It violates corporate policy as won as criminal law.

B.

It should be referred immediately lo law enforcement.

C.

It is usually preceded by warning signs.

D.

It results in the civil lawsuit or criminal prosecution against the perpetrator.

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Questions 48

In the management of an incident, which group has the capability to make informed decisions using available information?

Options:

A.

Bomb evaluation and assessment response (BEAR) team

B.

Bomb assessment team (BAT)

C.

Bomb threat response team (BTRT)

D.

Threat evaluation team (TET)

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Questions 49

What two areas are the most likely forms of dishonesty a security professional will most likely encounter?

Options:

A.

Theft and fraud

B.

Worker ' s compensation and unemployment claims

C.

Vendor and contractor abuses

D.

Wage and overtime violations

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Questions 50

To conduct the job analysis, it is necessary to define the positions within the security department and identify the:

Options:

A.

compensation and benefits for each position.

B.

minimum required staffing levels.

C.

behaviors necessary to perform those jobs.

D.

number of positions by category.

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Questions 51

For large commercial and industrial enterprises, the need to resume normal operations as quickly as possible after a disaster is:

Options:

A.

as great as the need to control damage

B.

more important than the need to control damage.

C.

only a secondary concern during recovery.

D.

less important than the need to control damage

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Questions 52

The trend for the future in private security is toward:

Options:

A.

hybrid systems with proprietary guard forces and contract supervision.

B.

primarily contract guard forces and supervision.

C.

hybrid systems with proprietary supervision and contract guards.

D.

primarily proprietary guard forces and supervision.

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Questions 53

During restoration of electrical power after a brief power outage, which of the following types of lighting takes the least time to attain full brilliance?

Options:

A.

Incandescent

B.

Metal halide

C.

High-pressure sodium vapor

D.

Mercury vapor

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Questions 54

Which of the following tools can greatly enhance the security of wireless communications?

Options:

A.

DRP

B.

VPN

C.

WAN

D.

DES

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Questions 55

The agreement prohibiting an employee from disclosing confidential information for a stated period of time after accepting employment with a defined competitor is called a:

Options:

A.

competitive agreement.

B.

noncompetitive covenant.

C.

nondisclosure agreement.

D.

disclosure agreement.

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Questions 56

The most important skill required of an effective security manager is:

Options:

A.

organization.

B.

employee development.

C.

delegation.

D.

communication.

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Questions 57

When planning for emergency situations, the best strategy to ensure adequate record recovery is to:

Options:

A.

store a duplicate set of vital records at an off-site location.

B.

maintain duplicate copies of all critical records.

C.

prescreen records for business continuity and criticality.

D.

utilize a fire proof enclosure for duplicate records.

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Questions 58

With special provisions and approvals from the authority having jurisdiction, it is acceptable for " delayed exit " devices to have which of the following maximum ranges of locking time?

Options:

A.

1-5 seconds

B.

5-15 seconds

C.

15-30 seconds

D.

30-45 seconds

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Questions 59

Insurance is a form of risk:

Options:

A.

spreading.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

reduction

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Questions 60

Which term describes a limited simu-lation used to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Tabletop

C.

Full scale

D.

Orientation

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Questions 61

A correct statement about technical security countermeasures (TSCM) is that they:

Options:

A.

can be performed by the average security supervisor.

B.

require government approval.

C.

are part of an overall protection strategy.

D.

should be conducted remotely.

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Questions 62

In terms of information systems security (ISS), " residual risk " is:

Options:

A.

the total remaining potential risk after all ISS countermeasures are applied across all threats.

B.

the remaining potential risk for each threat after all ISS countermeasures are applied.

C.

the product of the level of threat and the level of vulnerability

D.

equal to threats multiplied by countermeasures and divided by vulnerabilities.

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Questions 63

What are the three points of the theft triangle?

Options:

A.

Motive, desire, opportunity

B.

Opportunity, challenge, need

C.

Challenge, value, desire

D.

Value, motive, greed

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Questions 64

To reduce conflict between public law enforcement and private security, the two should work together to:

Options:

A.

reduce the crime rate.

B.

create mutual understanding.

C.

raise security awareness.

D.

formalize relationships.

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Questions 65

A major advantage of outsourcing investigative services is the ability to:

Options:

A.

expand or reduce the workforce according to actual needs

B.

maintain closer liaison relations with local agencies and internal contacts

C.

increase the control of investigation quality.

D.

easily manage the contractor.

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Questions 66

Risk acceptance is an informed decision to take a particular risk and:

Options:

A.

can occur without risk treatment, process of selection. or implementation of measures to modify risk.

B.

involves the process of identifying internal and external threats and vulnerabilities.

C.

generally includes coordinated activities to direct and control an organization in regard to risk.

D.

defines the controls in place necessary to reduce exposure and evaluate the cost of such controls.

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Questions 67

Losses avoided may be determined by:

Options:

A.

the net value of lost services billed minus the average billing rate.

B.

dividing total overhead costs by present cost of capita

C.

the difference between losses estimated without the security program and those with the program.

D.

multiplying loss frequency by the cost of events.

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Questions 68

Which factor about a risk would make it uninsurable?

Options:

A.

Losses would be expected but unintended by the insured.

B.

Losses could not be positively tied to an occurrence in an established amount.

C.

The risk is predictable through the law of large numbers.

D.

The risk would be worth the cost but not the effort to insure.

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Questions 69

The purpose of applicant screening is to:

Options:

A.

limit the liability exposure if the hired person assaults co-workers or customers.

B.

find the most appropriate person for a particular job.

C.

reduce reliance on interviewing and testing.

D.

make a choice with the minimum possible investment of personnel, money, and time.

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Exam Code: ASIS-CPP
Exam Name: Certified Protection Professional (CPP) Exam
Last Update: May 20, 2026
Questions: 230

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