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CA0-001 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:

Options:

A.

Hierarchal

B.

Authoritarian

C.

Charismatic

D.

Associative

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Questions 5

Which process group is for detailed resource assignments and responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Human resources management plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Aplan

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 6

PMI discusses procurement focusing on the ______ relationship.

Options:

A.

Buyer or seller

B.

Vendor or seller

C.

Purchasing

D.

Sellino-

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Questions 7

Which of the following correctly explains the term " progressive elaboration " ?

Options:

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Questions 8

The Project Integration Management knowledge area includes which of the following set of processes?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or Phase

C.

Develop Project Charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate Costs

D.

Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Develop Project Management Plan

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Questions 9

In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1.

For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:

Options:

A.

is under control.

B.

is out of control.

C.

has an increasing trend.

D.

has a decreasing trend.

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Questions 10

When should a project manager be assigned to a project?

Options:

A.

As early in the project as feasible.

B.

Preferably before much project planning has been done.

C.

At least prior to the start of project plan execution.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 11

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 12

Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.

Options:

A.

Has become part of the business processes

B.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

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Questions 13

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

Options:

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

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Questions 14

A contract change control system defines which of the following?

Options:

A.

Process by which the procurement is being satisfied

B.

Process by which the procurement can be modified

C.

Process by which the procurement can be obtained

D.

Process by which the procurement can be disposed

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Questions 15

Create Procurement document is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 16

Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Foimal

D.

Coercive

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Questions 17

Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

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Questions 18

Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?

Options:

A.

Scope Statement

B.

Quality Plan

C.

WBS

D.

Development Plan

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Questions 19

The work breakdown structure is ________.

Options:

A.

Used to break down the project into manageable pieces

B.

Set and does not change throughout the project

C.

Needed as part of the project charter

D.

[Needed as part of the project scope statement

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Questions 20

Administrative Closure should occur ___________.

Options:

A.

At the end of each phase of the project

B.

At the end of the whole project

C.

At the end of 50% of the project

D.

At the end of 100% of the project

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Questions 21

A complete set of indexed project records is called __________.

Options:

A.

Project archives

B.

Index

C.

sow

D.

Project History

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Questions 22

At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?

Options:

A.

The beginning of the project

B.

^ust before the end of the project

C.

QA Phase

D.

Execution phase

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Questions 23

Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?

Options:

A.

Rough order of magnitude

B.

Budget estimate

C.

WBS estimate

D.

Definitive estimate

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Questions 24

The project baseline is _______.

Options:

A.

Original plans plus the approved changes

B.

Important in the project initiation phase

C.

Initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization

D.

Original plans and the approved major changes

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Questions 25

Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Funding limit reconciliation

C.

Reserves analysis

D.

None of the above

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Questions 26

Which statement is true about Bottom-up estimating?

Options:

A.

Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up the costs to arrive at a project total.

B.

Uses the actual cost of a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.

C.

Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict costs.

D.

Cost of quality can also be used to prepare the schedule activity cost estimate.

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Questions 27

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

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Questions 28

Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?

Options:

A.

Project justification

B.

Project product

C.

Project manager authority

D.

Project objective

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Questions 29

Project success can be achieved only if:

Options:

A.

There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.

B.

The project sponsor leads the initiatives.

C.

The project manager is an expert in managing resources.

D.

Team members like project manager.

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Questions 30

You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP (Request for proposal) is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 31

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates for the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 32

______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

Options:

A.

Control Scope system

B.

VeiirV Scope

C.

Scope Charter

D.

Scope Management plan

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Questions 33

You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has ended before its stated objective

B.

' s st ' " cunning but missing resources

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

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Questions 34

_________ is the international organization that controls the standards for quality.

Options:

A.

ISO

B.

CAPM

C.

PMI

D.

iscn

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Questions 35

Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Contract documentation

C.

Deliverables

D.

WBS

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Questions 36

Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution and Control phase?

Options:

A.

Information management

B.

Maintain scope statement

C.

Maintain Charter

D.

Maintain Closing document

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Questions 37

Which of the following are parts of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Control Scope

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 38

Which is the most risky phase of a project?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Execution

D.

Control

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Questions 39

If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

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Questions 40

What are the outputs of Initiation process?

Options:

A.

Project charter and PM assigned

B.

Constraints

C.

Assumptions

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 41

A Project Scope Management includes :

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Project Plan Execution

C.

Overall Change Control

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 42

You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

B.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

C.

Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business

D.

None of the above

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Questions 43

Another term for top down estimating is:.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

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Questions 44

Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?

Options:

A.

Contract negotiation

B.

Weighting system

C.

Payment system

D.

Screening system

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Questions 45

Which of the following is not part of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

None of the above

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Questions 46

A change requests can occur due to:

Options:

A.

An external event such as a change in government regulation.

B.

An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.

C.

An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.

D.

all of the above

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Questions 47

Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :

Options:

A.

Start-to-Finish

B.

Finish-to-Start

C.

Start-to-Start

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Questions 48

Which document formally authorizes a project?

Options:

A.

The project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

The P ' oject contract

D.

Project closing document

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Questions 49

Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Develop Schedule

C.

Define Activities

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

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Questions 50

Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?

Options:

A.

Unknown Unknowns

B.

Project Budget

C.

Known Unknowns

D.

Amount of work completed

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Questions 51

Purchasing insurance is an example of __________.

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Acceptances

C.

Mitigation

D.

Contingency

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Questions 52

A project plan is:

Options:

A.

A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.

B.

A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

C.

A narrative description of products or services to be supplie

D.

A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.

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Questions 53

A contract cannot contain _____________.

Options:

A.

Illegal activities

B.

deadline for the completion of the work

C.

Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 54

If a project with a CPI of 0.8, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming more resources than anticipated.

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

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Questions 55

When the version control numbers should change?

Options:

A.

Any change occurs

B.

Major changes are made

C.

Any change related to scope only

D.

Only if minor changes are made

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Questions 56

__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modelling

D.

Bottom up estimating

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Questions 57

Your company create software products, and introducing a new product. To determine the characteristics and features of the new product line, you will have to perform ________.

Options:

A.

Progressive elaboration

B.

Stake holder ' s review

C.

p ' an project life cycle

D.

Fast backing

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Questions 58

Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Formal acceptance

B.

WBStemplate

C.

SOW acceptance

D.

Rework

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Questions 59

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

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Questions 60

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements Process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

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Questions 61

Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance?

Options:

A.

EV/PV

B.

PV/EV

C.

EV-PV

D.

PV-EV

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Questions 62

Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations process?

Options:

A.

Issue log

B.

Change register

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Interpersonal skills

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Questions 63

What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed?

Options:

A.

Work product

B.

Work package

C.

Project deliverable

D.

Scope baseline

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Questions 64

A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of the management process groups to formally complete the project?

Options:

A.

Closing

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

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Questions 65

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 66

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called:

Options:

A.

process groups.

B.

phase gates.

C.

knowledge areas.

D.

project phases.

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Questions 67

Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-$8,000

B.

-$2,000

C.

$2,000

D.

$8,000

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Questions 68

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

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Questions 69

Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT?

CO = $7,000

CM = $10,500

CP = $11,000

Options:

A.

$ 4,750

B.

$ 9,500

C.

$10,000

D.

$11,500

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Questions 70

Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Project manager

C.

Project management office

D.

Customer or sponsor

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Questions 71

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Questions 72

Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications?

Options:

A.

Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors

B.

Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base

C.

Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors

D.

Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 73

A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?

Options:

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

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Questions 74

Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Project charter

C.

Preliminary project scope statement

D.

Communications management plan

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Questions 75

The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new risk has been identified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur.

This is an example of which type of risk response strategy?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Avoid

D.

Transfer

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Questions 76

Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure

B.

Activity list and Arrow Diagram

C.

Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets

D.

Project Management Plan and Resource Availability

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Questions 77

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource Leveling

C.

Resource Planning

D.

Resource Conflict Management

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Questions 78

Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Control

D.

Closing

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Questions 79

What is the minimum a project schedule must include?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity

C.

A critical path diagram

D.

Critical chain analysis

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Questions 80

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

Options:

A.

Performance Measure

B.

Baseline Schedule

C.

Schedule Comparison

D.

Variance Analysis

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Questions 81

Which process group can be performed outside the project ' s scope of control?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Monitoring and Control

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 82

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

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Questions 83

In the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely estimate for an activity to complete is 100 days, the optimistic estimate is 60 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 200 days, what is the expected duration in which the activity will be completed?

Options:

A.

90 days

B.

100 days

C.

110 days

D.

660 days

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Questions 84

Which of the following is a strategy for positive risks?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Transfer

C.

Accept

D.

Mitigate

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Questions 85

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?

Options:

A.

Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B.

Force of nature, such as a flood

C.

Risk threshold target

D.

Crashing front loading or fast tracking

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Questions 86

Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and techniques of what process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Quality Planning

D.

Performance Reporting

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Questions 87

Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the project management plan are part of which process?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Risk

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 88

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Questions 89

What is Project Portfolio Management?

Options:

A.

Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.

C.

Management of all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

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Questions 90

What is the communication channel delta if the members in the communication plan are increased from 5 to 10?

Options:

A.

35

B.

5

C.

15

D.

75

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Questions 91

_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.

Options:

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

F ' xed P|ice

C.

Time and material

D.

" ' s^ ' s nc* ' elated to price

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Questions 92

Which monitoring or controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Manage project team

C.

Quality control

D.

Manage Scope statement

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Questions 93

What are the inputs for Initiation process?

Options:

A.

Product description and Strategic plan

B.

Selection criteria

C.

Historical information

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 94

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

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Questions 95

You have been with the organization; you constantly hear rumours about a certain CAPM failing to live up to the CAPM Code. What you should do?

Options:

A.

You can gather as much information as you can before proceeding

B.

Confront the person immediately

C.

Ignore the rumours

D.

^ass the rumours along

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Questions 96

You are the project manager of a project. If there are approved changes to the original scope, what you do with the old original scope?

Options:

A.

Save the old versions

B.

No need to save old version

C.

Scrap the old version

D.

Old version is not required

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Questions 97

Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Quality audits

C.

Project audits

D.

Risk audits

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Questions 98

Which of the following project document is best suited for tracking costs of resources?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

P ' sk breakdown structure

C.

Organizational breakdown structure

D.

Resource breakdown structure

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Questions 99

___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

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Questions 100

Which is not part of Project Plan?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management Plan

B.

Schedule Management Plan

C.

Cost Management Plan

D.

Project Charter

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Questions 101

The end of the project comes after which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Final deliverable

C.

Schedule

D.

QA activities are done

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Questions 102

You are project manager of a project and as part of the team acquisition process; you hire a new employee and assigns him to your project team. According to Maslow ' s hierarchy of needs, what needs level he most likely is at?

Options:

A.

Social need

B.

Physical need

C.

Safety and security

D.

Security

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Questions 103

Assumptions in the project plan should be _________.

Options:

A.

Written down

B.

Understandable

C.

Not understandable

D.

No need to write

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Questions 104

The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project

B.

Announce project risks

C.

Not consider risks affecting the company

D.

Announce project deliverables

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Questions 105

Function of the __________ is to make sure that changes to anything in the project are recorded and agreed to by the stakeholders.

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Sponsor

C.

Team Lead

D.

Management

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Questions 106

If a project with a SPI of 0.8, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is running ahead of the schedule

B.

The project is running behind of the schedule

C.

Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D.

None

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Questions 107

Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Updating risk register

B.

Determining risk roles and responsibilities

C.

Identifying risk categories

D.

Developing a risk management plan

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Questions 108

In which phase project manager is assigned to a project?

Options:

A.

During the initiation stage

B.

During the planning stage

C.

After approval of budget

D.

After the project is proven feasible

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Questions 109

Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?

Options:

A.

The project manager

B.

The project sponsor

C.

The Team lead

D.

The nianagement

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Questions 110

Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?

Options:

A.

Direct ar|d Indirect

B.

Tactical and Strategic

C.

Management and Project

D.

0n|y Tactical

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Questions 111

Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.

Options:

A.

Initiation Process

B.

Project closer Process

C.

Estimation Process

D.

Closing process

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Questions 112

Which of the following statement is true about project charter?

Options:

A.

Provides a high level definition of the effort and its stakeholders

B.

Announces who is the project engineer

C.

Tells the newspapers and media when the project will end

D.

Announces who is the project sponsor

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Questions 113

In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team.

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Outside

D.

Assigned

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Questions 114

Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

shaie

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Questions 115

What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

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Questions 116

When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most effectively?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Interactive

C.

Parallel

D.

Pull

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Questions 117

Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Change control process

D.

Team performance assessment

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Questions 118

In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues smoothly and effectively?

Options:

A.

Norming

B.

Forming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

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Questions 119

Which of the following is defined by a project ' s life cycle and varies by application area?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Product-oriented processes

C.

Project management process groups

D.

Project-oriented processes

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Questions 120

What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a future project?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up estimating

B.

Analogous estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Three-point estimates

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Questions 121

Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?

Options:

A.

Project risk management

B.

Project scope management

C.

Project time management

D.

Project integration management

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Questions 122

What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 123

Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and the project ' s critical path schedule activities with activity date information?

Options:

A.

Schedule table

B.

Schedule network diagram

C.

Bar chart

D.

Milestone chart

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Questions 124

In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the project and their formal roles and responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Questions 125

Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.

Resource B ' s role is that of a:

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Portfolio manager

C.

Work breakdown manager

D.

Program manager

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Questions 126

The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Project scope document

D.

Project charter

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Questions 127

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 128

Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

EV = $500

PV= $750

AC= $1000

BAC= $1200

Options:

A.

0.67

B.

1.50

C.

0.75

D.

0.50

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Questions 129

Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method?

Options:

A.

End-to-end

B.

Finish-to-end

C.

Start-to-end

D.

Start-to-start

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Questions 130

What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

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Questions 131

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Contract administration

B.

Direction and management of project execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Qualitative risk analysis

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Questions 132

The buyer and seller are bound by the ________.

Options:

A.

Contract

B.

Responsibilities

C.

WBS

D.

Identification

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Questions 133

Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average?

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

6.3

D.

6.1

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Questions 134

An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists between two activities is called:

Options:

A.

A milestone

B.

A hammock

C.

A dummy activity

D.

a and c

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Questions 135

The project management plan:

Options:

A.

Identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated

B.

Steps needed to complete a project task

C.

Prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the project

D.

Includes project charter

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Questions 136

The scope management provides:

Options:

A.

A basis for future decisions about the project.

B.

A baseline to accomplish verification measures.

C.

A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 137

Which is not included in Performance improvements :

Options:

A.

Improvements in amount of overtime worked

B.

Improvements in individual skills

C.

Improvements in team behaviours

D.

Improvements in team capabilities

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Questions 138

What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

Options:

A.

CPF

B.

CPFF

C.

CPIF

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 139

You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

Options:

A.

Bad practice

B.

Unprofessional practice

C.

Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 140

Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

Options:

A.

Executive Communication

B.

Risk Management

C.

Quality Management

D.

Scope Statement

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Questions 141

Which type of network diagram allows you to depict four types of dependencies (finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, and start-to-finish)?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

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Questions 142

With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.

Options:

A.

30.0

B.

22.5

C.

25.0

D.

27.5

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Questions 143

You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working from US and some are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than $12 million. Because of the global concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internationalization

B.

Budget constraint

C.

Management constraint

D.

Quality constraint

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Questions 144

Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of:

Options:

A.

Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project

B.

Integral parts of the SOW

C.

Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment

D.

Project selection methods

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Questions 145

In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Dedicated project team

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Questions 146

Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or service

Options:

A.

Project scope

B.

Project verification

C.

Project control

D.

Product scope

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Questions 147

Define Scope involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to __________.

Options:

A.

Improve the accuracy of cost, time and resource estimates

B.

Define a baseline for performance measurement and control

C.

Facilitate clear responsibility assignments

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 148

If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?

Options:

A.

Historical information

B.

WBS

C.

Business plans

D.

RBS

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Questions 149

A Change Control Board should be _______?

Options:

A.

flexible

B.

Include the project manager

C.

appropriate authority

D.

al1 of the above

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Questions 150

You are the project manager of a project and the project is a month into the executing phase. There are some cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style you follow for best outcome?

Options:

A.

Supporting

B.

Delegating

C.

Coaching

D.

Directing

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Questions 151

A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is:

Options:

A.

Identification

B.

Solicitation

C.

Quantification

D.

Response Development

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Questions 152

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose in a mathematical model to predict estimate. What type of estimation method are you using?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 153

Which of the following is NOT an input of Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.

Earn Value Analysis

B.

Scope Baseline

C.

P ' sk Register

D.

Human Resource Plan

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Questions 154

Project scope is:

Options:

A.

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.

B.

The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.

C.

A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.

D.

a and b

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Questions 155

A Trend Analysis is best described as:

Options:

A.

Examining project performance over time

B.

Calculating Earned Value

C.

Calculating Cost Variance

D.

Analyzing performance of similar projects over time

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Questions 156

Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?

Options:

A.

Management Contingency Reserve

B.

Management Overheads

C.

Project Management Planing

D.

Activity Cost Contingency Reserve

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Questions 157

The primary output of the project closing process ____________.

Options:

A.

To formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing

B.

Lessons learned

C.

To get customer and sponsor approval

D.

Milestone list

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Exam Code: CA0-001
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 525

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