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CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An AML analyst at a financial institution is examining an alert generated by the automated transaction monitoring system to determine whether the alert should be escalated to the AML unit for further investigation or whether it can be archived as a false positive.

Which action might be reasonable for the AML analyst to take?

Options:

A.

Restrict the client's access to the account

B.

Request information from the relationship manager assigned to the account that caused the alert

C.

Perform below-the-line testing to ensure the automated monitoring system is operating effectively

D.

Send a request for information to the counterparty bank involved in the transaction that caused the alert

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Questions 5

Perpetual KYC includes: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

triggers identifying static data changes and data based on client's behaviors in real time.

B.

periodic refreshing at one-, three- and five-year cycles.

C.

ability to prioritize better based on client data rather than driven by schedules alone.

D.

classification of clients into categories of risk.

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Questions 6

When considering purchasing AFC tools from a vendor to implement into the customer lifecycle, which of the following measures should be taken during the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Ensuring the tools are compatible and integration with current systems is possible

B.

Assessing whether internal staff members can provide training on the tools

C.

Assessing the cost of implementation and cost of maintaining the tools

D.

Basing business requirements on the features offered by the vendor's tools

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Questions 7

When a government imposes economic sanctions on a target the purpose is to:

Options:

A.

protect the rights of the citizens of the state target against their own government and improve financial stability in the region.

B.

indicate that the use of military force is likely unless the state or non-state target complies with the government's

C.

interests encourage non-governmental organizations to increase the provision of humanitarian and charitable aid to the target

D.

alter the behavior of the state or non-state target that threatens the interests of that government or violates international norms

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Questions 8

What are the rules imposed by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) for legal entities and persons related to the US? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The head office of a foreign legal entity which has a branch in the US does not need to comply with OFAC rules.

B.

A foreign individual visiting the US for a short vacation is obligated to follow OFAC rules.

C.

Nationals of the US must comply with OFAC rules, regardless of where they are located in the world.

D.

Any foreign corporation is also penalized if it conducts transactions with sanctioned countries under OFAC rules.

E.

A subsidiary of a legal entity of the US, which is formally registered in a foreign country, is exempt from OFAC rules.

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Questions 9

An adequate organizational policy is: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

up to date and reflects all relevant regulatory developments

B.

signed off by the board of directors and regulators

C.

approved by the clients and third parties

D.

clearly communicated and understood by staff

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Questions 10

How does the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) measure the effectiveness of a country's efforts to combat money laundering and terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

FATF Evaluation Committee

B.

Series of internal audits followed by reporting to FATF

C.

Basel Committee

D.

Mutual evaluation

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Questions 11

A subset of financial technology (FinTech) that focuses on technologies designed to facilitate the delivery of regulatory requirements more efficiently and effectively than existing capabilities is known as:

Options:

A.

SupTech

B.

SubTech

C.

RegTech

D.

BlueTech

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Questions 12

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

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Questions 13

A large international bank's chief compliance officer (CCO) is exploring ways to enhance the bank's ability to identify suspicious activities by using intelligence data more effectively. One potential solution is to engage in public-private partnerships (PPPs) to leverage shared intelligence and enhance collaboration with government agencies.

The bank considers joining a PPP initiative with the local Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) and other financial institutions to improve its access to relevant data and intelligence. The CCO understands that while PPPs can provide significant benefits, such as improved risk detection and enhanced information sharing, there are also potential limitations, including data privacy concerns and differing priorities between public and private sector partners.

Which approach would best maximize the benefits of PPPs for the bank while mitigating the limitations associated with data sharing and intelligence?

Options:

A.

Engage in the PPP without strict data sharing protocols, allowing for open and unrestricted flow of information between the bank, FIUs, and other financial institutions

B.

Rely solely on the intelligence provided by government agencies through the PPP because they have the most comprehensive data on suspicious activities

C.

Establish a clear framework within the PPP that outlines data privacy protections and ensures that information sharing complies with legal and regulatory requirements in all jurisdictions involved

D.

Prioritize the bank’s internal data sources over external intelligence from PPPs, as internal data is easier to control and does not present data privacy challenges

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Questions 14

Technology has the potential to increase the efficiency and effectiveness of AML/CFT workflows by: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating backlogs through the ability to process large volumes of data

B.

Minimizing privacy concerns through minimized human intervention

C.

Minimizing human intervention in repetitive tasks, increasing data accuracy

D.

Allowing for automatic one-stop searches at the front end by analysts

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Questions 15

The manager of a bank's KYC team discovers that a high-risk customer's activity was not reviewed last quarter as the bank's internal schedule required.

What should the KYC team manager do?

Options:

A.

Submit a referral to file a suspicious activity report (SAR)

B.

Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary

C.

Contact the customer's relationship manager to suspend account access until the periodic KYC review is completed

D.

Remove the customer from the bank's high-risk list

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Questions 16

At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:

Options:

A.

comparing these risks with industry benchmarks to determine the residual risk.

B.

implementing new controls to eliminate all risks

C.

rating the effectiveness of the related controls in order to calculate the residual risk.

D.

documenting the historical risk incidents for future reference.

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Questions 17

Which key metric would provide the most valuable data to the senior management of a financial institution about the effectiveness of its AML controls?

Options:

A.

The ratio of true positives to false positives generated by the automated monitoring system

B.

The number of money laundering alerts generated by the watchlist screening system

C.

The number of high-risk customers onboarded each month

D.

The number of clients exited for commercial reasons

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Questions 18

What key element contributes to the effectiveness of AML training programs'?

Options:

A.

In-person training sessions

B.

Comprehensive curriculum delivered by senior management

C.

Comprehensive content with engaging delivery methods

D.

Generalized content designed to apply to a broad audience

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Questions 19

Professional service providers—including lawyers, accountants, investment brokers, and other third parties—may abuse their positions to facilitate money laundering.

Which financial crime risks are associated with this type of abuse? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Opening an account to settle an estate on behalf of a client

B.

Establishing shell companies to enable money laundering activities, including placement or layering

C.

Opening third-party accounts for the primary purpose of masking the underlying client’s identity

D.

Opening a trust account to facilitate a legitimate real estate transaction

E.

Directing or facilitating the laundering of illicit funds, including structuring transactions

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Questions 20

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

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Questions 21

Which is a key goal of the EU's Directives on money laundering?

Options:

A.

Address control of payments in EU countries to reduce money laundering.

B.

Build a network of financial institutions that work together to prevent money laundering across the EU.

C.

Establish a consistent regulatory environment across the EU to prevent money laundering.

D.

Allow member states to discuss the draft legislation with the cooperation of the EU financial intelligence units.

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Questions 22

According to PinCEN. when a financial institution (PI) identities a suspicious activity that necessitates suspicious activity report (SAR) filing, the SAR supporting documentation should (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

include all documents or records that assisted the Fl in making the determination that the activity required a filing.

B.

always be limited to account name, account details, and transaction records.

C.

have written policies and procedures to maintain supporting documentation.

D.

be saved in a single separate file with hard copies stored in a fireproof cabinet.

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Questions 23

Which key financial crime risks relate to the remote gambling sector specifically? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Customers not being physically present for identification purposes

B.

Customers depositing large amounts of cash

C.

Customers using anonymous prepaid cards

D.

Customers betting more than they can afford

E.

Customers making numerous low-level transactions to avoid enhanced due diligence

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Questions 24

One of the basic elements of an effective AML/CFT compliance program is:

Options:

A.

A system of enterprise risk management

B.

An artificial intelligence-based transaction monitoring system

C.

An independent and skilled audit function

D.

An artificial intelligence-based enhanced due diligence system

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Questions 25

What are the main benefits of implementing explainable artificial intelligence (AI) or machine learning (ML) technologies to improve operational effectiveness within AML/CFT compliance? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Identifies AML/CFT risks without the need for human involvement

B.

Reduces the need for human resources

C.

Processes and analyzes large data sets more quickly and accurately

D.

Increases auditability, accountability, and overall good governance

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Questions 26

Which of the following best describes AML/CFT risk identification and assessment for accountants? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Accountants are not required to keep records of business relationships for more than two years

B.

Drafting a customer acceptance policy can help accountants define customers outside their risk appetite

C.

When determining transaction and service risk, the jurisdiction where the accountant provides the service is not important

D.

Due to their small size and limited resources, accountants are allowed to organize AML/CFT risk only as customer risk or transaction/service risk

E.

Due to the nature of services accountants provide, automated transaction monitoring systems used by financial institutions may not be appropriate

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Questions 27

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

B.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

C.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

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Questions 28

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

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Questions 29

A key factor in the independence of an AML audit is that the auditor should.

Options:

A.

have never worked in previous assignments within the AMUCFT departments.

B.

have no involvement with the organization's AML/CP T compliance staff.

C.

have been screened by the board of directors before the audit starts

D.

be sufficiently trained in AML to be able to provide an independent review.

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Questions 30

Interactions between the compliance department and other functions or departments within an organization contribute to making the anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program more robust by addressing specific risk areas.

Which departments play a crucial role in enhancing the AFC compliance program of an organization? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Information security office (ISO)

B.

Marketing and sales

C.

Human resources (HR)

D.

Data privacy office (DPO)

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Questions 31

The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in a country has received a suspicious activity report (SAR) which involves significant suspicious fund transfers, not only within its jurisdiction but also in a foreign country. Further information is required from the foreign country to determine whether the matter needs to be referred for prosecution locally.

Which of the following statements is true in this scenario?

Options:

A.

It is against international laws on data protection to access information from foreign countries

B.

Sovereignty of nations means that information cannot be accessed from foreign countries

C.

Any information related to money laundering can be received from any organization at any time regardless of jurisdiction

D.

Countries that are members of the Egmont Group can request assistance for information from each other

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Questions 32

Which of the following are included in the 11 Immediate Outcomes outlined in the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) methodology for assessing technical compliance with the FATF Recommendations and the effectiveness of AML/CFT/CPF systems during mutual evaluations? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

International cooperation provides actionable information to use against criminals

B.

Those convicted of money laundering offenses are denied access to basic banking services

C.

Money laundering offenses are investigated and criminally prosecuted

D.

Financial intelligence information is collected by authorities and shared with the FATF for further investigation

E.

Supervisors regulate financial institutions and non-bank financial institutions and their risk-based AML/CFT programs

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Questions 33

Which of the following corporate structures present a higher money laundering risk because of reduced transparency? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A limited liability company incorporated in a foreign jurisdiction

B.

A private company that has no activity in a tax haven jurisdiction

C.

A company with nominee shareholders and directors in a local jurisdiction

D.

A company with bearer shares incorporated in a tax haven jurisdiction

E.

A private investment company incorporated in a tax haven jurisdiction with strict secrecy laws

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Questions 34

The Wolfsberg Group's 2012 "Principles (or Private Banking" established that.

Options:

A.

private banks agree that transparency of client beneficial ownership Is necessary and appropriate.

B.

due diligence requirements tor private banking customers are necessary to prevent predicate offenses.

C.

risk based approaches are insufficient to address the heightened risk presented through private banking

D.

private banks need to better coordinate and align their global AML control environment strategies.

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Questions 35

The purpose of a risk appetite statement is to:

Options:

A.

clearly define the level of risk exposure to financial crime which a financial institution is willing to take.

B.

help investors understand the risk a financial institution is willing to take.

C.

help customers understand which financial institutions may be willing to bank their business.

D.

eliminate high-risk business types from a financial institution.

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Questions 36

What are the primary advantages of using open-source tools in financial crime investigations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Partial automation of data collection and analysis

B.

Cost-effective access to a wide range of data

C.

Real-time monitoring of selected transactions and data sources

D.

Ability to conduct investigations with minimal human oversight

E.

Enhanced ability to identity connections across various data sets

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Questions 37

How do national risk assessments (NRAs) and sectoral risk assessments influence a financial institution’s (FI’s) internal AML/CFT risk assessment?

Options:

A.

An FI must demonstrate that the risks identified in its AML/CFT risk assessment are aligned with the NRA and sectoral risk assessments and that these risks are managed effectively

B.

If a sectoral risk assessment is published, the FI must implement it directly across all subsidiaries and branches without modification

C.

An FI’s AML/CFT risk assessment must be written and approved by the board of directors exactly as specified in the NRA and sectoral risk assessment

D.

An FI must strictly adopt the exact risk factors, weightings, and methodologies from the NRA and sectoral risk assessment without adjustment

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Questions 38

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

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Questions 39

Which o! the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

B.

Mandatory attendance and review of alt financial crime trainings

C.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

D.

Setting tone from the top

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Questions 40

An employee at a financial institution (FI) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate.

Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?

Options:

A.

Conduct an open-source intelligence investigation using artificial intelligence tools to gain more information on the activities of the suspected employee

B.

Use the FI's whistleblowing channel to report the suspected employee

C.

Question their co-worker to determine if their suspicions are correct before reporting to the FI's Human Resources department

D.

Warn colleagues and customers of the FI that the employee's suspicious financial investment proposals could be a scam

E.

Report the suspected employee to the line manager of the FI to take the required action

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Questions 41

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Questions 42

In which of the following situations would it be most crucial for the designated AML compliance officer of a company to perform a complete review of the company's AML program, including identifying the risks and commensurate controls?

Options:

A.

An external audit highlights several deficiencies

B.

The company is merging with or acquiring another entity

C.

Extensive AML legislation is proposed by a legislative body in the company's jurisdiction

D.

A high-profile money laundering case involving another industry is publicized

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Questions 43

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

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Questions 44

Which collective body of Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) was formed with an objective to improve Information exchange and sharing mechanisms among member FlUs as well as to support its members by enhancing their capabilities'?

Options:

A.

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

B.

The Egmont Group

C.

The Wolfsberg Group

D.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF)

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Questions 45

Which of the following describes a formal method of information sharing and cooperation between Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering investigations?

Options:

A.

FATF, MONEYVAL, and other regional bodies acting as a contact point for FIUs

B.

The Wolfsberg Group serving as a communication platform for FIUs

C.

Memoranda of Understanding (MOUs) between FIUs establishing structured information sharing

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLATs) allowing FIUs to request arrests and evidence

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Questions 46

A client advisor at a bank contacts a member of the compliance team for guidance on how to proceed with a client who wants to transfer US$250,000 from the sale of cryptoassets into their savings account at the bank.

What guidance should the compliance team provide?

Options:

A.

Advise further clarification is necessary, including which coins or tokens were sold and whether the crypto exchange conducts due diligence on its clients

B.

Advise that the transaction should be stopped because cryptoassets in general are not regulated and by definition pose an unacceptable AML risk for the bank

C.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction if the client's KYC is up to date and a search on a public blockchain explorer does not provide any adverse media hits

D.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction because clients are already correctly onboarded KYC is complete and the source of funds is transparent

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Questions 47

When implementing a customer screening system to detect possible sanctions evasion at a financial institution (FI), which of the following requirements should be considered to ensure effective list management? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Only specific individuals should be allowed to modify the lists

B.

Only regulatory lists should be used, including those of the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) and the EU

C.

Lists can be created internally or purchased from a vendor

D.

All lists should be used for screening in all jurisdictions

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Questions 48

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

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Questions 49

What is the primary advantage of using a risk-based approach in allocating compliance resources?

Options:

A.

It reduces the overall cost of compliance programs.

B.

It eliminates the need for periodic audits of low-risk customers.

C.

It ensures focus on high-risk areas while maintaining operational efficiency.

D.

It standardizes compliance processes across all regions.

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Questions 50

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities, Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

B.

Exchange strategic information between FIUs and obliged entities

C.

Exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

Create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

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Questions 51

An AML analyst at a bank is investigating cases triggered by transaction monitoring alerts.

Which circumstances might cause the analyst to suspect a case involves terrorist financing? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Transactions involving non-profit organizations with no internet presence

B.

Small dollar payments sent to crowdfunding initiatives with detailed descriptions of the project being financed

C.

Transactions involving structured currency deposits below the reporting threshold to avoid paying taxes

D.

Small dollar payments sent to higher-risk jurisdictions with no prior history

E.

Transactions involving domestic non-profit organizations providing charitable aid to refugees from higher-risk countries

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Questions 52

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

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Questions 53

What areas of laws and regulations have the greatest impact on AML/CFT applications? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Information security, data privacy, and cybersecurity

B.

Foreign exchange control, and precious gemstone and metal dealing

C.

Ombudsman and anti-competition authority

D.

Electronic contract and biological signature acceptance

E.

Consumer protection, financial inclusion, and environmental, social and governance

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Questions 54

Which of the following is a benefit of public-private partnerships (PPP)?

Options:

A.

Sourcing of key resources

B.

Rapid exchange of information on risks and high-risk activities or persons

C.

Ensuring understanding of politically exposed persons (PEPs)

D.

Obtaining salaries in the financial industry

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Questions 55

Potential risk indicators for a trade counterparty in trade-based money laundering include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Irregular or inconsistent trade volume and frequency that does not align with the historical trading behavior of the counterparty

B.

Contracts, invoices, or other trade documents containing detailed descriptions of the traded commodities

C.

Cash deposits or other transactions consistently below the relevant reporting thresholds

D.

Engaging in transactions and shipping routes or methods that are not in line with standard business practices

E.

Transparent pricing structures with additional information provided to the receiving bank when pricing fluctuates by ±10%

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Questions 56

Which situation involving a vendor presents increased AML and/or sanctions risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The vendor provides services to end users located in an area subject to economic sanctions

B.

The vendor's sales representative was a refugee from a sanctioned jurisdiction as a child

C.

The vendor is organized as a privately held company

D.

The vendor has no individuals that own or control more than 10% of the company

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Questions 57

Which of the following measures can help maintain the independence of BSA/AML compliance staff to ensure effective compliance controls?

Options:

A.

Establishing BSA/AML compliance staff reporting to the management of the business line in the first line of defense

B.

Ensuring BSA/AML compliance staff is primarily outsourced

C.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff a reporting line to compliance or other second line of defense internal control function

D.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff with a reporting line to the chief financial officer

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Questions 58

Which of the following are considered best practices for effective AML/CFT training programs? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Training should cover practical examples, use case studies, and provide information on how to comply with policies.

B.

Up-to-date records including logs of training and completion dates should be maintained.

C.

Training should be broad, high level, and not role-specific in order to reach the largest audience.

D.

Training should cover the consequences of not complying with policies and procedures.

E.

Training should always be provided by an independent third party.

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Questions 59

Which of the following actions is specifically permitted or required under FinCEN section 314(b) for financial institutions (FIs) to enhance their efforts in combating money laundering and terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

FIs may disclose customer information to any third party

B.

FIs may provide information about their internal compliance programs to law enforcement agencies without any limitations

C.

FIs are required to report all transactions involving foreign entities to FinCEN so that FinCEN can share this information with other financial institutions

D.

FIs may share information about suspected money laundering activities with other FIs to aid in identifying and reporting suspicious transactions

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Questions 60

A financial institution's transaction monitoring system flags an unusually high volume of international wire transfers originating from a small business account. The transfers are being sent to multiple jurisdictions known for limited regulatory oversight. Additionally, an employee reports suspicious behavior from the account holder during an in-person visit, where they requested a large cash withdrawal without providing a clear business justification. As part of the investigation, the compliance team must assess whether this activity is suspicious and determine the appropriate next steps.

Which of the following steps should be taken first in the investigation process to properly gather information and assess whether the transactions are suspicious?

Options:

A.

Review the transaction history of the account to identify patterns, including the frequency, destination, and purpose of the wire transfers

B.

Notify senior management and suggest account closure due to potential risks

C.

Immediately file a suspicious activity report (SAR) based on the employee's report of suspicious behavior

D.

Contact the customer directly to ask for clarification on the reason for the large cash withdrawal

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Questions 61

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

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Questions 62

Reference data screening includes the screening of which types of datasets? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Types of payment messages

B.

Customers

C.

Third-party service providers

D.

Customer spouses

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Questions 63

A committee should have a clear and precise definition of its mandate to ensure effective function and governance, set out in a document often referred to as the Terms of Reference (ToR).

Which key features are generally included in the Terms of Reference? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Organization chart of the attendees

B.

Extent of power and decision-making abilities

C.

Company culture and values

D.

Composition and structure

E.

Delegation of authority

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Questions 64

While there are legitimate reasons for trust and company service providers (TCSPs) to appoint a nominee shareholder, which feature of a nominee shareholder presents the greatest financial crime risk?

Options:

A.

Supporting company liquidity and ease of exit strategies

B.

Providing anonymity for the beneficial owner by keeping their identity hidden from the public register

C.

Simplifying administrative tasks associated with shareholding

D.

Helping non-residents comply with local ownership laws

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Questions 65

Money services business (MSB) customers present the greatest financial crime risks to mitigate if they: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Process the activity of a customer’s customer

B.

Conduct a large volume of low-value transactions

C.

Require registration

D.

Often send cross-border transfers

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Questions 66

An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.

Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?

Options:

A.

Consistency of approach

B.

Periodic training of the function

C.

Qualification of the team

D.

Independent testing

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Questions 67

Tax evasion is:

Options:

A.

The practice of minimizing tax liability by exploiting loopholes or unintended interpretations of tax law

B.

A provision that reduces taxable income as an itemized or standard deduction

C.

A specialized accounting discipline focused on lawful tax planning

D.

The non-payment or under-payment of taxes, usually by deliberately making a false declaration or no declaration to tax authorities

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Questions 68

Which services provided by an accounting firm could be considered as higher risk from a financial crime perspective? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Forming a trust on behalf of a customer with a complex setup and acting as a nominee director

B.

Auditing a firm that provides payroll software to large corporate customers

C.

Preparing financial statements for a listed or a privately owned firm

D.

Providing tax advice to an international customer hoping to move their assets out of their home country

E.

Assisting an offshore corporation from a jurisdiction with no available beneficial owner information to buy property in the UK

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Questions 69

Which of the following is a critical consideration for private sector firms when sharing data and intelligence to combat financial crime?

Options:

A.

The preference of upper management regarding which teams should participate in the data-sharing initiative

B.

The cost of the data-sharing system and whether it its within the existing IT budget

C.

The potential return on investment (ROI) from the data shared versus the financial crime prevention effort

D.

Ensuring that the shared data complies with applicable data protection regulations while maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the information

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Questions 70

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

Options:

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

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Questions 71

Which of the following indicators of potentially suspicious activity are commonly associated with high-risk business sectors and structures such as shell companies? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Knowing the goods or services, if identified, do not match the profile of the company or the nature of the financial activity

B.

All payments are in smaller amounts below reporting thresholds but are high when aggregated while still being consistent with standard business practices

C.

A company regularly conducts large-volume transactions in a medium-risk jurisdiction with longstanding business partners and provides complete documentation and audit trails

D.

Insufficient or no information is available to identify originators or beneficiaries of funds transfers through searches or direct inquiries

E.

Payments have no stated purpose, do not reference goods or services, or only reference a contract or invoice number

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Questions 72

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation 22. when involved in customer transactions that include the buying and selling of real estate, real estate professionals are required to apply which customer due diligence (CDD) measures? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Obtaining prior senior manager approval for all related transactions

B.

Understanding the purpose of the business relationship

C.

Performing adverse media searches on the customer

D.

Identifying and verifying the customer's identity

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Questions 73

A recruitment manager in the human resources department of a bank has shortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division. The compliance policy of the bank stipulates that proper background checks on new employees

must be completed by the recruiting team to protect the bank against potential risks, including fraud and money laundering.

Which resources would be most useful for identifying any potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Criminal history searches

B.

Personal resume

C.

Internet and public media searches

D.

Past employment records

E.

Personal references from close associates

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Questions 74

An AML/CFT unit often compiles information about customer activity and product usage that might be of interest to other parts of the organization.

Before allowing the unit to communicate such information internally, the organization must review:

Options:

A.

Enterprise-wide risk assessments and the employee handbook for any limitations on sharing commercially sensitive customer data

B.

The risk rating of the customers to avoid sharing data relating to higher risk customers

C.

The organization's AML compliance policies to ensure that customer data can be easily shared internally and internationally

D.

Applicable data privacy laws in relevant jurisdictions and the organization's data security and privacy policies for any limitations

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Questions 75

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities. Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

B.

exchange strategic information between FlUs and obliged entities

C.

exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

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Questions 76

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

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Questions 77

Which of the options below is an indicator of potential insider activity that may warrant escalation For further investigation?

Options:

A.

A relationship manager advocates for overriding the results of the company's client risk rating model that resulted in a client's high-risk rating.

B.

An If employee shares information about a firm's risk management framework with employees of other firms at an industry convention.

C.

An investigator does not complete the automated transaction monitoring system alerts assigned to them before the time required by company procedures.

D.

A relationship manager makes an exception to company policy and proceeds with onboarding a customer without documenting a passport for customer identification

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Questions 78

Benefits of using artificial intelligence (AI) in conjunction with or in place of traditional rules-based transaction monitoring include that AI can: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Increase the number of false positive alerts

B.

Create unbiased scenarios during the machine training phase

C.

Identify changes in customer behavior to more accurately assess risk

D.

Generate customer risk scores to predict potential financial crime activity

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Questions 79

Which measures should be implemented to facilitate collaboration among different risk management functions to enhance an organization’s anti-financial crime (AFC) program? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Establish a robust framework for continuous threat intelligence sharing

B.

Have senior management accountability for AFC failures

C.

Establish a reward program among risk management functions to encourage proactive controls

D.

Develop cross-functional training programs on AFC risks, management strategies, and related technologies

E.

Develop common metrics and key performance indicators

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Questions 80

An international bank is headquartered in Madrid, Spain with an office in New York City (NYC), US. The Madrid office is investigating a transaction originating from a customer of the NYC office and inquires whether the NYC office can share any relevant further information on the individual. Upon further research, the NYC office finds that they have filed a suspicious activity report (SAR) on the individual in the previous year.

Which factors need to be considered before sharing the requested information? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The foreign bank must always request approval by its national anti-financial crime authority to share any information cross-border.

B.

The bank should report this to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) and receive formal guidance before sharing the information.

C.

The bank should consider jurisdictional privacy requirements and its own policies and procedures to determine what information to share.

D.

The information should only be shared on a need-to-know basis.

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Questions 81

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers

B.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

C.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system

E.

difficulty in tracking the originator recipient, and source of transactions.

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Questions 82

A bank received a subpoena regarding one of its clients. The financial intelligence unit of the bank should review the subpoena and:

Options:

A.

Close the client's account by informing the client of the subpoena.

B.

Perform a transaction review and respond fully to the subpoena.

C.

File a suspicious activity report (SAR), including the receipt of the subpoena in the SAR narrative.

D.

Adjust the client's risk score and close the case.

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Questions 83

Which of the following risk factors are considered by many supervisory authorities as representing a higher inherent risk associated with MSBs? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The use of new technologies to facilitate the onboarding of customers remotely

B.

The prevalence of international wire transfers

C.

Domestic business with small and medium-sized enterprises

D.

The cash-intensive nature of the services offered

E.

The use of digital channels and traceable payment methods

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Questions 84

Which of the following is a crucial step for a financial institution when leveraging regulatory reports to improve transaction monitoring? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Comparing internal data across all sectors and products referenced in the reports

B.

Systematically incorporating risks identified in the reports into the internal risk assessment

C.

Comparing regulatory reports with peer data

D.

Building or enhancing monitoring scenarios based on reported crime typologies

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Questions 85

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele's high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

B.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

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Questions 86

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

Options:

A.

Be proportionate to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

B.

Be created, approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense and reviewed annually

C.

Be completed by the business and validated by an external firm

D.

Include sophisticated and automated controls using the newest available technologies

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Questions 87

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence

B.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed Instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes Procedures are an overarching framework Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

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Questions 88

Which of the following are potential financial crime-related red flags when obtaining client data? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A client frequently submits financial statements much earlier than required appearing overly eager

B.

A client insists on using a personal bank account for business transactions despite being advised otherwise

C.

A new client shows a preference for minimal direct interaction and relies primarily on indirect communication methods, citing convenience or time constraints

D.

The client is a publicly listed company but very diversified

E.

The ultimate beneficial ownership is unclear

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Questions 89

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

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Questions 90

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

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Questions 91

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

Options:

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

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Questions 92

Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Model risk management

C.

Technology solutions and IT security

D.

Marketing

E.

Fraud risk management

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Questions 93

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

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Questions 94

A compliance officer is reviewing an institutional banking prospect proposal for a new foreign entity that is a multinational business but headquartered in a country where most businesses are state-owned.

Which risks should be prioritized in the review? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Politically exposed persons (PEPs)

B.

Capital flight risk

C.

Anti-bribery and corruption risk

D.

Tax evasion

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Questions 95

Which of the following best describes one of the principal threats of proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Adversary governments using sophisticated attacks to threaten critical infrastructure and sectors, including finance, health care and energy

B.

Networks of individuals and entities exploiting financial systems to move funds that will be used to acquire weapons of mass destruction or their components

C.

Transnational criminal organizations expanding their engagement into more varied types of illicit activities, including human trafficking and corruption

D.

Networks of individuals and entities raising funds to further proliferate their ideological goals wholly or in part through unlawful acts of force or violence

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Questions 96

According to FinCEN, which red flags within a bank account may, taken together, be indications of modern slavery, human trafficking, and exploitation? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Incoming fund transfers from third-party payment processors, with limited originator information

B.

Transactional activity with a registered virtual currency exchange

C.

Large amounts of cash payments to migrant agricultural workers

D.

Frequent payments for online advertisements or non-local classified ads

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Questions 97

Which ML/TF risks are associated with cryptoassets? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Devaluation

B.

Smart contract vulnerabilities

C.

Potential for anonymity

D.

Global reach

E.

High transaction fees

F.

Use to layer illicit funds

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Questions 98

When the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) places a jurisdiction on the list of "jurisdictions under increased monitoring," also known as the "grey list," the jurisdiction:

Options:

A.

Accepts to participate in an off-cycle FATF mutual evaluation to be held within the next 12 months.

B.

Must pay a fine to be removed from the list before the next FATF plenary.

C.

Has committed to swiftly resolving the deficiencies identified in a FATF mutual evaluation.

D.

Poses a high money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing risk and must be restricted from accessing the international financial system.

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Questions 99

A trust and company services provider that offers a variety of services to businesses is approached by a client interested in establishing a new company. The client requests assistance with the incorporation process, a local business address, annual maintenance services, and the designation of individuals to serve in official capacities for the new company.

Which of the following services involves a higher money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Appointing individuals to serve in official capacities of the company

B.

Annual maintenance services

C.

Provision of a local business address

D.

Company incorporation services

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Questions 100

A large international financial institution (FI) operates in both the United States and the European Union. A cross-border transaction involving a high-net-worth client with dual U.S. and French citizenship raises concerns due to a third-party intermediary in a high-risk jurisdiction.

Given that the transaction falls under the U.S. Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) and OFAC requirements, as well as the EU’s 6th Anti-Money Laundering Directive (6AMLD) and European Banking Authority (EBA) regulations, what is the best approach for the compliance team to ensure compliance?

Options:

A.

Follow EU regulations only, as the beneficiary is based in France

B.

Implement a dual-compliance approach satisfying both U.S. and EU AFC regulations

C.

Defer to the most stringent regulatory regime to streamline compliance

D.

Follow U.S. regulations only, as the transaction originates in the United States

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Questions 101

A National Risk Assessment (NRA) can impact a financial institution's (Fl's) risk-based approach to anti-money laundering and terrorism financing by:

Options:

A.

dictating what predicate offences must be considered in the Fl's risk assessment.

B.

providing guidance on the types of customers and transactions that pose the highest risk.

C.

defining exactly what policies and procedures must be implemented.

D.

determining the maximum fines that can be imposed for AML violations.

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Questions 102

A compliance officer at a U.S. financial institution receives a grand jury subpoena requesting customer records related to an ongoing money laundering investigation involving a politically exposed person (PEP).

What should the compliance officer do first?

Options:

A.

Notify the customer and seek consent

B.

Consult with the institution’s legal counsel to assess validity and determine the appropriate response

C.

Immediately provide records to the grand jury

D.

File a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) describing receipt of the subpoena

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Questions 103

A compliance officer is developing management reporting information to provide leadership with insights into the financial crime risk related to an institution's customer population.

Which of the following is a key risk indicator to include in the reporting to allow leadership to monitor whether there are any key changes to the inherent risk of the customer population? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Percentage of regulatory reports for high-risk customers not completed within the required regulatory deadlines

B.

Percentage change of transaction monitoring alerts escalated for investigation compared to the previous quarter

C.

Percentage of customers for whom onboarding verification was not completed within KYC policy service-level agreement (SLA) requirements

D.

Number and percentage of senior politically exposed persons (PEPs) who were onboarded in the past quarter compared to all active customers

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Questions 104

The EU's 6th Anti-Money Laundering Directive (6AMLD):

Options:

A.

Extended AML oversight to crowdfunding platforms and professional football clubs

B.

Eliminated the requirement for the European Commission to conduct a risk assessment

C.

Created a central EU watchdog to combat money laundering

D.

Strengthened provisions relating to the accuracy of data submitted to central beneficial ownership registries

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Questions 105

Which attributes are typically used to assess the vulnerability to money laundering risk of products offered by an insurer? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Purpose and intended use

B.

Liquidity

C.

Age of the beneficiary

D.

Customer anonymity or third-party transactions

E.

Length of waiting period

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Questions 106

A law firm is involved in setting up complex offshore corporate structures for a client with minimal documentation of the source of funds. The firm does not question the client’s transactions or report any suspicious activity.

What is the primary money laundering risk associated with this behavior by the law firm?

Options:

A.

The law firm is avoiding fees by minimizing documentation for clients in high-risk jurisdictions

B.

The law firm is engaging in aggressive tax planning to help the client avoid legal taxes

C.

The law firm is providing routine legal services that include creating complex legal structures, and no further scrutiny is required

D.

The law firm is acting as a gatekeeper, facilitating the movement and concealment of illicit funds through complex corporate structures

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Questions 107

An insurance company receives an application for a high-value life insurance policy from a new non-resident client. The payout instruction is linked to an offshore trust in another jurisdiction to which the client has no obvious connection. The client insists on paying premiums via multiple transactions to “avoid bank charges.” The client is reportedly unemployed with minimal assets, which is inconsistent with the policy value.

Which financial crime risk should the insurance company be most concerned with?

Options:

A.

Sanctions evasion

B.

Money laundering

C.

Fraud

D.

Market abuse

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Questions 108

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

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Questions 109

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

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Questions 110

Artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) procedures help in applying a risk-based approach in AML compliance through: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Automatically generating Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) without the need for human review

B.

Advanced customer risk assessments that synthesize client background information with additional data

C.

Identification of links among apparently unrelated clients who have established complex networks for money laundering

D.

Automatically adapting risk thresholds for customers without any human intervention

E.

Detection of complex money laundering patterns in transactions

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Questions 111

One key aspect of promoting an enterprise-wide compliance culture within a financial institution is that the:

Options:

A.

Relevant information should be shared throughout the organization.

B.

Revenue-generating business sectors should have precedence over compliance.

C.

First line of defense should establish its own policies independently.

D.

Cost of compliance should increase proportionately to revenues.

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Questions 112

It is important to validate the “conceptual soundness” of an AML model in order to:

Options:

A.

Verify alignment with regulatory guidance and industry best practices

B.

Assess whether the model’s methodology and assumptions are logical and appropriate for detecting money laundering

C.

Validate the statistical significance of the model’s predictive capabilities

D.

Demonstrate compatibility with current technological infrastructure

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Questions 113

Which risk factors should a financial institution (FI) examine for a new corporate customer intending to open a new bank account? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

All the financial institutions where the new customer currently banks or banked previously

B.

The type of business the corporate customer is engaged in

C.

The employment profiles and information of all employees of the new customer

D.

The country or location where the customer is from or conducts business

E.

The identity of senior managing officials and all individuals authorized to operate the account

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Questions 114

Which transaction monitoring tool characteristic would best support financial institutions in rapidly responding to emerging financial crime risks and threats?

Options:

A.

Cloud-based deployment

B.

Configurable reporting

C.

Fully integrated artificial intelligence (AI)

D.

Ability to build, iterate, and test rules

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Questions 115

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

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Questions 116

An annual risk assessment includes inherent risk, effectiveness of controls, and residual risk. The inherent risk is assessed as “moderate,” and the effectiveness of controls is “less than satisfactory.”

What would the residual risk conclusion most likely be?

Options:

A.

“Medium,” because weak controls would result in the residual risk remaining unchanged

B.

“High,” because weak controls would result in increased residual risk

C.

“Moderate,” because the risk conclusions for specific areas may be increased

D.

“Low,” because controls would lower the risk

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Questions 117

The key strengths of public-private partnerships (PPP) in anti-financial crime efforts include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Improving the speed of action in identifying and mitigating financial crime risks

B.

Enhancing information-sharing capabilities between governments and financial institutions

C.

Providing a legal framework for financial institutions to avoid liability when sharing information

D.

Eliminating the need for organizations to conduct their own due diligence

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Questions 118

Which regulation is the cornerstone of AML/CFT legislation in the United States and requires financial institutions (FIs) to establish and maintain robust AML programs, including customer identification and due diligence procedures, as well as record-keeping and reporting of certain transactions to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)?

Options:

A.

USA PATRIOT Act

B.

Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)

C.

Money Laundering Control Act (MLCA)

D.

Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MiCA)

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Exam Code: CAMS
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition)
Last Update: Feb 16, 2026
Questions: 395

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