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CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Why is the prevention of financial crime so important?

Options:

A.

Financial crime does enormous damage to society, undermining market integrity and consumers' and market participants' confidence

B.

Financial crime risk incidents always result in fines and losses for the financial firm

C.

Financial crime prevention processes make the onboarding process for clients unnecessarily burdensome and complex but create work

D.

Financial crime prevention is important as it reduces costs and improves customer services.

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Questions 5

A key advantage of privacy enhancing technologies (PETs) in anti-money laundering is that they offer:

Options:

A.

simultaneous encryption and decryption for underlying data.

B.

full access to underlying data with full and uninterrupted calculations made on the data.

C.

secure processing of data while it remains encrypted.

D.

transfer, decryption and storage of data by the data processor.

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Questions 6

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

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Questions 7

Which strategies are most effective for prioritizing resources within an anti-financial crime (AFC) program using a risk-based approach (RBA)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Prioritizing resources towards lower-risk areas to reduce workload

B.

Regularly reassessing risks to adjust resource allocation

C.

Allocating more resources to areas with higher financial crime risk

D.

Providing equal resources to all departments to maintain consistency

E.

Using a fixed resource allocation plan without adjustments

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Questions 8

A compliance officer is reviewing an institutional banking prospect proposal for a new foreign entity that is a multinational business but headquartered in a country where most businesses are state-owned.

Which risks should be prioritized in the review? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Politically exposed persons (PEPs)

B.

Capital flight risk

C.

Anti-bribery and corruption risk

D.

Tax evasion

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Questions 9

News published in Country A reports that a politically exposed person (PEP) had received a bribe from a transnational company headquartered in a developing country of approximately USS1.5 million deposited into on account at a financial institution (Fl> located in Country B Both countries are members of the Egmont Group The account where the money was deposited belongs to the PEP's immediate family member. To corroborate the facts, the PIU of Country A sent a formal request via secure communication channels for further information from its counterpart FIU in Country B.

According to Egmont principles, the FIU of Country B can:

Options:

A.

provide the information available to them because the exchange is between two FlUs that are members of the Egmont Group, and the formal request was made using secure communication channels.

B.

provide the requested information only if a memorandum of understanding (MoU) is signed between Country A and Country

C.

direct the FIU of Country A to the Fl where the account was opened for further information.

D.

deny the request if the FIU of Country B has not received a suspicious activity report (SAR) from the Fl where the account was opened.

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Questions 10

Which of the following statements describe the strengths associated with public-private partnerships (PPPs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Public organizations can belter understand what the private sector experiences and inform policy and the enactment of laws

B.

Data-protection privacy policies provide an opportunity to develop information sharing protocols to prevent unauthorized access to information

C.

Data-protection privacy policies prohibit the evolution of PPPs due to restrictions based on legacy government legislation

D.

Small business owners can choose third-party providers or financial institutions to keep their private data safe which can easily be shared within a PPP

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Questions 11

In which of the following situations would it be most crucial for the designated AML compliance officer of a company to perform a complete review of the company's AML program, including identifying the risks and commensurate controls?

Options:

A.

An external audit highlights several deficiencies

B.

The company is merging with or acquiring another entity

C.

Extensive AML legislation is proposed by a legislative body in the company's jurisdiction

D.

A high-profile money laundering case involving another industry is publicized

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Questions 12

In the context of terrorist financing, which of the following are potential indicators of the abuse of non-profit organizations (NPOs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Involvement in community development and humanitarian aid projects

B.

Large and unaccounted cash donations from anonymous sources

C.

Operating in high-risk jurisdictions with limited oversight

D.

Frequent changes in leadership and mission statements

E.

Extensive transparency in financial reporting and governance practices

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Questions 13

Which financial crime risks are inherent to e-commerce platforms? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

E-commerce platforms exploited to move criminal proceeds

B.

Use of stolen bank cards for online purchases

C.

E-commerce platforms susceptible to fraud schemes

D.

E-commerce platforms used as a front for illicit transactions

E.

E-commerce platforms encouraging unregulated peer-to-peer lending

F.

Use of foreign currency to mask criminal proceeds

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Questions 14

An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.

Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?

Options:

A.

Consistency of approach

B.

Periodic training of the function

C.

Qualification of the team

D.

Independent testing

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Questions 15

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

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Questions 16

The supply of goods and services can be vulnerable to corruption within a company, particularly the solicitation and receipt of bribes and kickbacks, because: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

certain contractors may receive preferential treatment, allowing them opportunities to inflate margins during the tender process

B.

unsuccessful bidders are informed of decisions and provided detailed justifications for awarding the contracts

C.

procurement and contracting processes involve the management of the tender process, which may lack sufficient oversight

D.

bids are solicited and disseminated to a wide audience through advertising and other channels.

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Questions 17

The compliance officer at a casino in Taiwan discovers that the casino received multiple cash deposits from a customer just below the Large-Amount Transaction Report (LTR) limit on consecutive days. The customer used three different betting accounts.

What is the appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Make a note in the customer's account that the customer's gambling activities are frequently conducted below the reporting limit

B.

Follow internal reporting procedures to escalate the activity as suspicious and report to appropriate authorities

C.

Inform the customer their activity Is suspicious and request an explanation

D.

Contact law enforcement to launch an Investigation into the customer's financial activities

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Questions 18

Which of the following is a primary objective of public sector groups in the fight against money laundering?

Options:

A.

Advising private financial institutions on how to enhance their profitability through AML efforts

B.

Establishing and enforcing legal frameworks to detect, prevent, and punish money laundering and related financial crimes

C.

Providing funding to private and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) for the development of advanced compliance technologies

D.

Acting as intermediaries between private sector firms and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to streamline AML compliance programs

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Questions 19

Which ML/TF risks are associated with cryptoassets? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Devaluation

B.

Smart contract vulnerabilities

C.

Potential for anonymity

D.

Global reach

E.

High transaction fees

F.

Use to layer illicit funds

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Questions 20

A real estate buyer purchases multiple high-value properties in cash through a series of transactions in a short period of time and without any clear economic justification.

Which of the following is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the real estate sector?

Options:

A.

The buyer is using high-value real estate transactions to obscure the origin of the funds.

B.

The buyer is quickly diversifying their investment portfolio through structuring payments in order to take advantage of the liquidity of cash transactions in real estate.

C.

The buyer is capitalizing on favorable market conditions and using cash purchases to outbid competitors in a competitive real estate market using insider information.

D.

The buyer is a real estate developer acquiring multiple properties for a potential redevelopment project with a business partner located in a high-risk jurisdiction.

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Questions 21

Which of the following AML/CFT arrangements should a bank have in place at minimum before opening for business? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Independent compliance testing

B.

Qualified and knowledgeable staff

C.

Third-party screening software

D.

An automated monitoring system

E.

Written policy and procedures

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Questions 22

The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in a country has received a suspicious activity report (SAR) which involves significant suspicious fund transfers, not only within its jurisdiction but also in a foreign country. Further information is required from the foreign country to determine whether the matter needs to be referred for prosecution locally.

Which of the following statements is true in this scenario?

Options:

A.

It is against international laws on data protection to access information from foreign countries

B.

Sovereignty of nations means that information cannot be accessed from foreign countries

C.

Any information related to money laundering can be received from any organization at any time regardless of jurisdiction

D.

Countries that are members of the Egmont Group can request assistance for information from each other

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Questions 23

A National Risk Assessment (NRA) can impact a financial institution's (Fl's) risk-based approach to anti-money laundering and terrorism financing by:

Options:

A.

dictating what predicate offences must be considered in the Fl's risk assessment.

B.

providing guidance on the types of customers and transactions that pose the highest risk.

C.

defining exactly what policies and procedures must be implemented.

D.

determining the maximum fines that can be imposed for AML violations.

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Questions 24

The degree of attraction that a company holds to criminal organizations is influenced by the (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

amount of annual fees associated with the jurisdiction.

B.

permissibility of bearer shares.

C.

rules governing the disclosure of beneficial ownership by the jurisdiction.

D.

ease of travel to the jurisdiction.

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Questions 25

Which of the services provided by Trust and Company Service Providers (TCSPs) present the greatest financial crime risks? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Providing clear procedures to ensure compliance with local tax regulations

B.

Using trusts to obscure the identity of beneficial owners

C.

Promoting the use of complex corporate structures

D.

Maintaining accurate and updated beneficial ownership details for all customers registered for their services

E.

Establishing shell companies for holding financial assets

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Questions 26

Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Paying premium several years in advance and terminating early for a refund

B.

Natural persons having more than one insurance policy

C.

High-premium life insurances that provide high payouts

D.

Regularly switching policies and accepting penalties

E.

Beneficiary payouts to elderly people

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Questions 27

Which of the following is a benefit of an institution implementing machine learning to identify suspicious transactions?

Options:

A.

Adaptable to new AFC typologies through continuous model training

B.

Completely unbiased and without error through continuous model training

C.

More consistent and reliable detection outcomes

D.

Transparent and easy to explain algorithms for regulator and compliance purposes

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Questions 28

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

B.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

C.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

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Questions 29

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

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Questions 30

The chief compliance officer at a global bank that operates in the US, EU, and other countries is responsible for navigating the US and EU regulations related to anti-money laundering (AML) and sanctions as well as any local regulations in the countries where it operates.

What should be the primary compliance concern of the bank?

Options:

A.

US anti-money laundering regulations are stricter than the EU AML Directives, making it easier for the global bank to be compliant in the EU

B.

US and EU regulations require the bank to build separate compliance teams, making it necessary to establish completely separate systems for US and EU operations

C.

The EU's sanctions regime is stricter than that of the US Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), so the bank must prioritize compliance with EU regulations over US laws and train the staff in Europe accordingly

D.

Balancing compliance with the US BSA and OFAC sanctions while ensuring adherence to EU AML directives and the GDPR, which complicates cross-border data sharing

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Questions 31

Tax evasion is:

Options:

A.

a deliberate attempt not to pay the tax which is due or obliged.

B.

bending the rules to pay less tax than required.

C.

not an important crime as it does not impact society.

D.

a sophisticated process which always means the same as tax avoidance.

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Questions 32

Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Model risk management

C.

Technology solutions and IT security

D.

Marketing

E.

Fraud risk management

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Questions 33

Which statement best describes a key money laundering risk associated with virtual asset service providers (VASPs), cryptoassets, and related products?

Options:

A.

Cryptoassets can be transferred across borders quickly, but the volatility of their value still makes them less attractive for money laundering compared to traditional assets

B.

Mandatory reporting requirements have been implemented for certain types of crypto transactions, but gaps in regulation and enforcement still leave room for money laundering activities.

C.

The transparency of blockchain technology helps law enforcement trace transactions, but it can also provide criminals with ways to obscure their financial activities through complex layering techniques.

D.

The pseudonymous nature of transactions allows criminals to hide their identities while transferring large sums of money globally, making it difficult to trace the ultimate beneficial owner.

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Questions 34

The relationship manager in the corporate banking department at a bank is required to take specialized AML training tailored to the risks the department is most likely to encounter.

Which types of content are most appropriate for this training? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Money laundering typologies applicable to monetary instrument reporting

B.

Applicable AML laws and regulations

C.

Regulatory exam best practices

D.

Money laundering typologies applicable to corporate loans

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Questions 35

Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Guaranteeing 100% accuracy in regulatory compliance across all jurisdictions

B.

Improving customer satisfaction by offering personalized recommendations

C.

Reducing identity theft effectively

D.

Providing reliable customer authentication to enhance trust

E.

Decreasing the time required for customer authentication

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Questions 36

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

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Questions 37

It Is important for financial institutions (FIs) to be aware of anti-financial crime (AFC) and sanctions regulatory regimes in other jurisdictions in order to.

Options:

A.

maintain compliance with the AFC and sanctions requirements of all countries where the F1 operates or has business relationships and to avoid penalties for violations in foreign jurisdictions.

B.

ensure that sanctions regimes are applied selectively based on the regulatory standards of the countries where business activities occur, focusing primarily on aligned jurisdictions

C.

compensate for the limited applicability of AFC and sanctions regulations on cross-border transactions and their reduced relevance for domestic operations in other jurisdictions.

D.

ensure the F1 can manage business relationships in jurisdictions with stricter or more lenient regulations than their home country, allowing for operational flexibility

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Questions 38

A financial institution plans to implement adverse media screening with Artificial Intelligence (AI)/Machine Learning (ML) capabilities During testing, the system produces high volumes of irrelevant news articles for review.

What is the best way to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Narrow the media sources to avoid unrelated articles

B.

Rely on manual filtering by investigators

C.

Increase the frequency of updates to media sources

D.

Adjust AI/ML models to focus on high-risk keywords/phrases from reputable media sources

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Questions 39

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

Options:

A.

include sophisticated and automated controls that use the newest types of technology available (for example, artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning).

B.

be proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

C.

be completed by the business and validated by an external firm (for example, an auditing or consulting firm)

D.

be created approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense business team, and reviewed annually

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Questions 40

How canawareness be raisedwithincountries that do not have sanctions regulatory regimes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Restrict trade between countries that have robust AML/CFT and sanctions regulatory regimes and those that do not.

B.

AFC (Anti-Financial Crime) and sanctions-related seminars, webinars, and training within these countries.

C.

Enforcement and pecuniary fines against these countries.

D.

Bilateral conversations and cooperation between governments.

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Questions 41

Which of the following is a critical consideration for private sector firms when sharing data and intelligence to combat financial crime?

Options:

A.

The preference of upper management regarding which teams should participate in the data-sharing initiative

B.

The cost of the data-sharing system and whether it its within the existing IT budget

C.

The potential return on investment (ROI) from the data shared versus the financial crime prevention effort

D.

Ensuring that the shared data complies with applicable data protection regulations while maintaining the integrity and accuracy of the information

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Questions 42

When a financial institution (FI) is considering providing traditional banking services to a virtual asset service provider (VASP), consideration should be given to whether the FI: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

has a general understanding of virtual assets.

B.

consistently reviews transactions between fiat and virtual currencies.

C.

implements enhanced KYC measures.

D.

owns virtual currencies itself.

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Questions 43

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

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Questions 44

The compliance officer at an EU bank is investigating one of the customer accounts maintained with the bank for the last two years. According to bank records, the company's primary economic activity is import and export of petrochemical products Over a period of one year, the account transactions have exceeded US$500 million with various high-value inward wire transfers received from suppliers in Yemen followed by outward wire transfers to counterparties in Azerbaijan.

Which factor should give the compliance officer the greatest concern If observed in the investigation?

Options:

A.

Media searches reveal a report that the customer was accused of misconduct three years ago.

B.

The EU bank considers the origin and destination countries Involved in the transactions to be high-risk.

C.

The customer's activity includes multiple cross-border transactions involving various counterparties.

D.

The EU bank received no originator or beneficiary information for the wire transfers.

E.

The customer specializes in the import and export of petrochemical products.

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Questions 45

The role of FATF-style regional bodies (FSRBs) is to; (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

identify and address the current financial crime trends through the issuance of typologies originating in members outside of their FSRB's Jurisdiction.

B.

provide AM L/C FT technical assistance needed by members in their FSRB junsdiction.

C.

coordinate technical assistance for members in their FSRB jurisdiction

D.

set and amend the FATF 40 Recommendations for members in their FSRB jurisdiction.

E.

identify and address any gaps in the AML/CFT policies for members outside of their FSRB jurisdiction.

F.

offer mutual evaluation and follow-up processes for members in their FSRB Jurisdiction.

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Questions 46

Which of the following are best practices to raise awareness and train staff regarding the risks related to financial crime? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Tailor training and offer regular training to all employees

B.

Train outside of daily operations and promote awareness of Compliance

C.

Train core AML topics once per year, at a minimum, to relevant employees

D.

Use a variety of training methods and provide necessary resources to employees

E.

Communicate regularly and measure effectiveness of training

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Questions 47

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

Options:

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

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Questions 48

According to the Financial Action Task Force's (FATF's) "Guidance for a Risk-Based Approach Life Insurance Sector," which of the following are money laundering red flags relating to the involvement of a third party in a life insurance product? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer engages an attorney to consult on the issuance of the policy.

B.

A customer transfers the policy to another insurance company unaffiliated with the original policy issuer.

C.

Payments are regularly received from third parties that have no apparent relationship with the policy holder.

D.

A customer names an apparently unrelated third party as a beneficiary.

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Questions 49

A customer frequently deposits large amounts of cash into an online gambling account and requests withdrawals shortly after with minimal gambling activity.

What is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the gambling and gaming industry?

Options:

A.

The customer is attempting to convert illicit funds into “clean” withdrawals

B.

The customer is attempting to avoid high fees by minimizing gambling activity

C.

The customer is testing the gaming platform’s payout system for potential fraud

D.

The customer is a high-risk gambler who regularly places large bets

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Questions 50

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

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Questions 51

The purpose of a risk appetite statement is to:

Options:

A.

clearly define the level of risk exposure to financial crime which a financial institution is willing to take.

B.

help investors understand the risk a financial institution is willing to take.

C.

help customers understand which financial institutions may be willing to bank their business.

D.

eliminate high-risk business types from a financial institution.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is one of the pillars of the EU AML Package adopted in June 2024?

Options:

A.

Digital Operational Resilience Act

B.

Anti-Corruption Directive

C.

EU AML Regulation

D.

7th AML Directive

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Questions 53

Which of the following statements is true regarding the 2012 Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations and'or 11 Immediate Outcomes?

Options:

A.

The 40 Recommendations have not been updated to reflect the impact of new technology

B.

Each jurisdiction can reach out to the FATF for private access to the interpretive notes to the 40 Recommendations

C.

The 11 Immediate Outcomes are recommendations specific to high-risk jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring.

D.

The cornerstone of the 40 Recommendations is the adoption of a risk-based approach by each jurisdiction

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Questions 54

When considering purchasing AFC tools from a vendor to implement into the customer lifecycle, which of the following measures should be taken during the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Ensuring the tools are compatible and integration with current systems is possible

B.

Assessing whether internal staff members can provide training on the tools

C.

Assessing the cost of implementation and cost of maintaining the tools

D.

Basing business requirements on the features offered by the vendor's tools

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Questions 55

Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Setting tone from the top

B.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

C.

Mandatory attendance and review of all financial crime trainings

D.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

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Questions 56

A wealthy individual is using a complex corporate structure to facilitate illegal logging and then illegal mining of the resulting resources from that land.

Which category of predicate crime is taking place?

Options:

A.

Trade-based money laundering

B.

Corruption

C.

Illicit resource trade

D.

Environmental crime

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Questions 57

Having a risk-based approach is central to a financial institution understanding the money laundering and terrorist financing risk to which they are exposed. The development of a money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment is a key starting point.

Commonly used risk factors include. (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

product risk.

B.

credit risk.

C.

geographic risk.

D.

customer risk.

E.

liquidity risk.

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Questions 58

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers

B.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

C.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system

E.

difficulty in tracking the originator recipient, and source of transactions.

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Questions 59

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

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Questions 60

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

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Questions 61

In the process of mutual evaluations and subsequent follow-ups used by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) to assess the quality of various jurisdictions' AML controls, the FATF:

Options:

A.

imposes economic sanctions on jurisdictions with lax AML controls to force them to strengthen their controls.

B.

conducts on-site inspections of financial institutions in jurisdictions with lax AML controls to identify deficiencies and recommend improvements.

C.

publishes annual reports ranking all member jurisdictions based on their self-assessment of AML controls.

D.

conducts a peer review process whereby member countries assess the AML controls of other jurisdictions and provide recommendations for improvement.

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Questions 62

Which of the following risk factors are commonly associated with money laundering in insurance products? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Surrendering a policy early to liquidate funds

B.

Focusing excessively on the investment performance of an insurance product

C.

Using a credit card to purchase an insurance policy

D.

Using cryptocurrencies or other non-fiat currencies to fund an insurance policy

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Questions 63

Beyond the physical and mental harm caused to individuals, which of the following problems can be linked to significant costs from unregulated online gambling and gaming?

Options:

A.

Economic and societal

B.

Political and regulatory

C.

Governance and compliance

D.

Sectoral and jurisdictional

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Questions 64

The Wolfsberg Group's 2012 "Principles (or Private Banking" established that.

Options:

A.

private banks agree that transparency of client beneficial ownership Is necessary and appropriate.

B.

due diligence requirements tor private banking customers are necessary to prevent predicate offenses.

C.

risk based approaches are insufficient to address the heightened risk presented through private banking

D.

private banks need to better coordinate and align their global AML control environment strategies.

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Questions 65

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation 22. when involved in customer transactions that include the buying and selling of real estate, real estate professionals are required to apply which customer due diligence (CDD) measures? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Obtaining prior senior manager approval for all related transactions

B.

Understanding the purpose of the business relationship

C.

Performing adverse media searches on the customer

D.

Identifying and verifying the customer's identity

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Questions 66

Which of the options below is an indicator of potential insider activity that may warrant escalation For further investigation?

Options:

A.

A relationship manager advocates for overriding the results of the company's client risk rating model that resulted in a client's high-risk rating.

B.

An If employee shares information about a firm's risk management framework with employees of other firms at an industry convention.

C.

An investigator does not complete the automated transaction monitoring system alerts assigned to them before the time required by company procedures.

D.

A relationship manager makes an exception to company policy and proceeds with onboarding a customer without documenting a passport for customer identification

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Questions 67

How can public-private partnerships (PPPs) foster collaboration in the fight against financial crime? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Developing a culture of compliance

B.

Improving governance in the public sector by requesting feedback from financial institutions

C.

Reducing transaction monitoring false positives for all financial institutions

D.

Improving the quality and quantity of data available for analysis by sharing information

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Questions 68

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

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Exam Code: CAMS
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition)
Last Update: Sep 29, 2025
Questions: 229

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