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CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status of ostomy

B.

Status of the sleep apnea

C.

Status of the COPD

D.

Status of colon cancer

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Questions 5

The principal diagnosis is defined as:

Options:

A.

The first diagnosis listed on the chart

B.

The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission

C.

Any condition treated during the hospital stay

D.

The most severe condition present

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Questions 6

PCP notes describe the presence of atrial fibrillation for 10 days. Atenolol, sotalol and rivaroxaban are ordered. Possible ablation is discussed. Identify the type of atrial fibrillation described in this clinical scenario.

Options:

A.

Paroxysmal

B.

Persistent

C.

Chronic

D.

Permanent

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Questions 7

Which of the following is a strategy that is often used by ACOs to improve their performance in the Readmission Reduction program?

Options:

A.

Encourage providers to avoid reporting chronic conditions on subsequent admissions.

B.

Educate providers about the importance of capturing chronic conditions in documentation.

C.

Work with IT to increase the unspecified code choices in pick lists in the EHR.

D.

Flag qualifying patients upon arrival to ED to be placed in observation status vs. admission.

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Questions 8

A compliant physician query must:

Options:

A.

Lead the provider to a specific diagnosis

B.

Be non-leading and include clinical indicators

C.

Be verbal only

D.

Be open-ended without context

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Questions 9

Which of the following best differentiates inpatient from outpatient coding guidelines?

Options:

A.

Outpatient guidelines focus on principal diagnoses

B.

Inpatient guidelines emphasize diagnosis sequencing and MS-DRGs

C.

Both use the same guidelines with no differences

D.

Outpatient coding ignores encounter diagnoses

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Questions 10

E/M services must meet specific medical necessity criteria as defined by

Options:

A.

National Medical Specialty Societies.

B.

National Coverage Determinations and Local Coverage Determinations.

C.

American Medical Association and American Hospital Association.

D.

American Health Information Management Association.

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Questions 11

Documentation from which of the following facility settings contributes to the CMS-HCC risk score?

Options:

A.

Freestanding ambulatory surgical center

B.

Hospital ambulatory clinic

C.

Hospice care

D.

Renal dialysis center

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Questions 12

Which entity is tasked by CMS to process both Part A and Part B beneficiary claims?

Options:

A.

Recovery audit contractors

B.

Risk adjustment validation contractors

C.

Medicare administrative contractors

D.

Zone program integrity contractors

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Questions 13

PCP notes describe declining renal function with creatinine trending upward over the last 12 months. Nephrology consult ordered. Which of the following diagnostic tests could support a query to identify status of the patient’s baseline renal function?

Options:

A.

Creatinine

B.

BUN (Blood urea nitrogen)

C.

eGFR (glomerular filtration rate)

D.

ACR (albumin to creatinine ratio)

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Questions 14

A patient presents to the clinic for follow up of type 2 diabetes. The patient is also noted to have peripheral neuropathy. The patient has COPD and is found to have no recent exacerbations. The patient also has a history of depression, reported as stable. Which of the following CMS-HCCs will be captured for this visit?

HCC 17: Diabetes with Acute Complications

HCC 18: Diabetes with Chronic Complications

HCC 19: Diabetes without Complications

HCC 58: Major Depressive, Bipolar and Paranoid Disorders

HCC 111: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

Options:

A.

HCC 19, HCC 58, and HCC 111

B.

HCC 18 and HCC 111

C.

HCC 17 and HCC 58

D.

HCC 18, HCC 19, and HCC 111

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Questions 15

Upon retrospective review of a patient visit 2 weeks prior, a CDI specialist notes physician documentation stating the following: “Sick Sinus Syndrome in 2016 s/p pacemaker placement. Latest EKG shows normal paced rhythm.” There are no codes noted for Sick Sinus Syndrome or the pacemaker. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

Options:

A.

Capture code for pacemaker status only.

B.

Request the provider amend the codes to reflect the Sick Sinus Syndrome and pacemaker status.

C.

Educate the provider that a pacemaker status code as well as a Sick Sinus Syndrome code should be assigned.

D.

Ask the coder to re-bill based upon the documentation.

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Questions 16

When evaluating a CDI specialist's performance, which of the following expectations is held to the same standard for both inpatient and outpatient initiatives?

Options:

A.

Review productivity

B.

Query opportunities

C.

Revenue impact

D.

Query compliance

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Questions 17

If a patient is being seen for follow-up and the documentation indicates that the patient was admitted to the hospital 28 days ago with an acute cerebral infarction with remaining right-sided weakness, which of the following diagnoses would be MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Cerebral infarction, unspecified, hemiparesis affecting right dominant side

B.

Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting unspecified side

C.

Hemiparesis following cerebral infarction affecting right dominant side

D.

Other sequelae of cerebral infarction

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Questions 18

Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?

Options:

A.

Diagnoses assigned by a diagnostic radiologist are considered during RADV reviews.

B.

Conditions reported must be documented in the final visit diagnoses or facesheet of the medical record.

C.

Acceptable physician authentication includes hand-written or electronic signatures.

D.

Diagnoses assigned by technicians are considered during RADV reviews.

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Questions 19

A patient presents for a right inguinal herniorrhaphy in ambulatory surgery and is placed in observation status postoperatively. Provider documentation states: “Observation related to the post procedural urinary retention likely related to benign prostatic hyperplasia or adverse reaction to anesthesia.” From this documentation, which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Urinary retention

B.

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

C.

Adverse reaction to anesthetic

D.

Right inguinal hernia

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Questions 20

A CDI specialist has created the following query:

“Dear Dr., Based on the following clinical indicators: history of CVA and physical therapy ordered to address left sided weakness, please confirm a diagnosis of hemiplegia.”

What feedback should be given to the CDI specialist regarding the query?

Options:

A.

Hemiplegia can be coded without the provider clarification.

B.

The query leads the physician to one diagnosis, making it non-compliant.

C.

Clinical indicators do not support the query.

D.

The query does not include results from the most recent MRI.

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Questions 21

A CDI specialist identifies an opportunity to clarify a patient’s BMI. The CDI specialist leaves a query within the medical record for the ancillary support team to address during the patient’s visit. Which of the following BEST describes this type of query?

Options:

A.

Retrospective

B.

Concurrent

C.

Prospective

D.

Prebill

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Questions 22

Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) are similar to Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs) in which of the following ways?

Options:

A.

Multiple APCs can be assigned for a given encounter.

B.

APC assignment is dependent on diagnoses codes.

C.

APCs classify payment identifying similar resource use.

D.

Only one APC can be assigned for a given encounter.

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Questions 23

The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?

Options:

A.

New/established, site of service, and level of service

B.

New/established, site of service, and time

C.

New/established, physician specialty, and level of service

D.

New/established, level of service, and age of patient

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Questions 24

After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, “I just don’t see how this impacts patient care.” Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?

Options:

A.

“It determines what you will be reimbursed.”

B.

“It predicts expected resources needed to care for the patient.”

C.

“It determines the patient’s out of pocket expenses.”

D.

“It predicts medical necessity of ordered procedures/treatments.”

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Questions 25

During a PCP visit, a provider notes a patient’s history of pathological fracture of the thoracic spine related to osteoporosis. Documentation states: “Decreased muscle mass and significant weight loss in the last six months.” Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?

Options:

A.

Degree of muscle atrophy

B.

Acuity of the pathological fracture

C.

Type of osteoporosis

D.

Presence of malnutrition

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Questions 26

In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)

Options:

A.

$148,800

B.

$3,291,200

C.

$1,785,600

D.

$17,785,600

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Questions 27

Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with the medication sertraline?

Options:

A.

Schizophrenia

B.

Asthma

C.

Depression

D.

Heart failure

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Questions 28

What stage of pressure ulcer describes necrosis of soft tissue through the underlying muscle?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 29

Clinic visit documentation describes patient complaints of increased shortness of breath, following recent inpatient admission for pneumonia. Diagnoses include COPD - GOLD stage 3. Increase home O2 to 3 liters. Home health follow-up to begin home nebulizers, and Solu-Medrol ordered. Which of the following is the MOST significant query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Specificity of the organism causing the pneumonia

B.

Acuity of the COPD

C.

Presence of chronic respiratory failure

D.

Oxygen dependence

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Questions 30

A provider has been determined to be a high-cost provider after a total claims cost analysis. The provider’s patient panel has an overall low HCC average score. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation regarding the low HCC average score?

Options:

A.

The provider cares for patients of a higher acuity

B.

The provider is failing to capture all relevant diagnoses

C.

The provider has a less complex patient population

D.

The provider is not reporting unspecified diagnoses

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Questions 31

A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility’s EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

Options:

A.

Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation

B.

Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

C.

Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

D.

Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review

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Questions 32

An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary’s risk score?

Options:

A.

Patient noncompliance and age

B.

ICD-10-CM codes and race

C.

Medicaid status and race

D.

Medicaid status and gender

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Questions 33

Based on previous documentation, which of the following diagnoses would a CDI specialist be MOST likely to bring to the provider’s attention in preparation for an upcoming visit of a 70-year-old patient?

Options:

A.

Epilepsy, chronic heart failure, and Crohn’s disease

B.

Chronic obstructive lung disease, T3 compression fracture, and s/p kidney transplant

C.

Family history of lung cancer, atrial fibrillation, and sickle cell

D.

Diabetes mellitus, syncopal episode, and pharyngitis

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Questions 34

Which of the following health record elements impacts HHS-HCC risk scores?

Options:

A.

CPT codes

B.

Discharge status

C.

Gender

D.

Ethnicity

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Questions 35

Which of the following acronyms is often used in considering reportability of conditions?

Options:

A.

OPPS

B.

MEAT

C.

MACRA

D.

RADV

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Questions 36

A patient is scheduled to see his PCP in 3 days. A CDI specialist notes that during the patient's last visit earlier this year, the problem list shows both DM 2 associated erectile dysfunction and DM 2 without complications. The last clinic note states that DM 2 with autonomic neuropathy was addressed. The CDI specialist should do which of the following FIRST?

Options:

A.

Remove DM 2 without complications from the problem list

B.

Query if the DM 2 is with or without complications

C.

Ask the patient if he still has DM 2 with autonomic neuropathy

D.

Query the provider for the link between erectile dysfunction and DM 2

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Questions 37

Which of the following is covered under the Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS)? (Select all that apply)

Options:

A.

Community mental health centers

B.

Indian health services

C.

Physical therapy treatment

D.

Clinical diagnostic lab services

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Questions 38

A patient returns to a PCP for follow-up care related to a UTI. The provider documents “stage 3 CKD” as determined by a single eGFR of 52 mL/min. Which of the following actions should the CDI specialist take?

Options:

A.

Add diagnosis of CKD stage 3 to claim, as it is reportable.

B.

Review CKD staging criteria with provider.

C.

Delete CKD diagnosis from claim as it was not treated during this encounter.

D.

Query for stage 4 CKD.

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Questions 39

Which of the following is true of the RAF metric?

Options:

A.

It predicts how much the individual provider will be reimbursed for the concurrent practice year.

B.

It is based only on demographic factors such as Medicaid status, gender, or aged/disabled.

C.

It is a relative measure of the probable costs to meet the healthcare needs of the individual beneficiary.

D.

It is used to calculate each primary care office visit reimbursement based on documentation of chronic conditions.

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Questions 40

How does accurate documentation impact APC assignment in outpatient services?

Options:

A.

It has no effect

B.

It delays reimbursement

C.

It ensures appropriate APC assignment, impacting reimbursement

D.

It reduces coding accuracy

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Questions 41

An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?

Options:

A.

The ACO will expect to receive dollars in shared savings.

B.

The ACO will expect to pay back dollars in shared savings.

C.

The ACO will be eligible for shared savings after the second year.

D.

The ACO will have shared savings or penalty determined at the end of the agreement period.

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Questions 42

A 76-year-old patient presents for a wellness visit. The patient’s vitals are BP 120/80, T 98.7, R 19, and there are no abnormal findings in the exam. The patient has COPD, home oxygen, anemia, hypertension, diabetes, fatigue, and weakness. The patient’s medications are called into the pharmacy and home health resource of choice. Which of the following is the BEST query option?

Options:

A.

Acute blood loss anemia

B.

Peripheral neuropathy

C.

Chronic respiratory failure

D.

CKD

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Exam Code: CCDS-O
Exam Name: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)
Last Update: Feb 19, 2026
Questions: 140

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