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CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What diagnoses are included in code category N18, chronic kidney disease?

Options:

A.

Dialysis, chronic uremia, and polycystic kidney disease

B.

GFR, ATN, and unspecified kidney failure

C.

AKI, ESRD, and dialysis

D.

CKD stage 3, CKD severe, and ESRD

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Questions 5

Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) are similar to Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs) in which of the following ways?

Options:

A.

Multiple APCs can be assigned for a given encounter.

B.

APC assignment is dependent on diagnoses codes.

C.

APCs classify payment identifying similar resource use.

D.

Only one APC can be assigned for a given encounter.

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Questions 6

How does accurate documentation impact APC assignment in outpatient services?

Options:

A.

It has no effect

B.

It delays reimbursement

C.

It ensures appropriate APC assignment, impacting reimbursement

D.

It reduces coding accuracy

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Questions 7

Which of the following tools or processes is MOST appropriate to share with providers and administrators during a department meeting when demonstrating documentation and coding patterns?

Options:

A.

Spaghetti diagram

B.

PDSA cycle

C.

Bar graph

D.

Donabedian Model

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Questions 8

Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?

Options:

A.

Diagnoses assigned by a diagnostic radiologist are considered during RADV reviews.

B.

Conditions reported must be documented in the final visit diagnoses or facesheet of the medical record.

C.

Acceptable physician authentication includes hand-written or electronic signatures.

D.

Diagnoses assigned by technicians are considered during RADV reviews.

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Questions 9

What stage of pressure ulcer describes necrosis of soft tissue through the underlying muscle?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 10

A patient is seen in the office for a persistent cough. Provider documentation states: “History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, and hypertension. Hypertension treated with Enalapril. Cough an adverse effect of the ACE inhibitor; discontinue Enalapril. COPD stable. Instructed to continue meds for COPD/asthma.” Which of the following diagnoses should be reported for this encounter?

Options:

A.

COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

B.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; hypertension

C.

COPD, unspecified; hypertension

D.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

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Questions 11

A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility’s EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

Options:

A.

Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation

B.

Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

C.

Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

D.

Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review

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Questions 12

Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with the medication sertraline?

Options:

A.

Schizophrenia

B.

Asthma

C.

Depression

D.

Heart failure

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Questions 13

A patient returns to a PCP for follow-up care related to a UTI. The provider documents “stage 3 CKD” as determined by a single eGFR of 52 mL/min. Which of the following actions should the CDI specialist take?

Options:

A.

Add diagnosis of CKD stage 3 to claim, as it is reportable.

B.

Review CKD staging criteria with provider.

C.

Delete CKD diagnosis from claim as it was not treated during this encounter.

D.

Query for stage 4 CKD.

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Questions 14

A patient is evaluated in the primary care clinic for chest pain, slight shortness of breath, and mild nausea. Documentation includes an ECG and chest x-ray to rule out MI. Which of the following diagnoses are reportable?

Options:

A.

Angina pectoris, unspecified, shortness of breath, and nausea

B.

Rule out MI, shortness of breath, and nausea

C.

Acute MI, chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

D.

Other chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

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Questions 15

A patient is seen by an endocrinologist to manage his poorly controlled diabetes with peripheral neuropathy and claudication. The patient has had several toes amputated in prior years and currently has a non-healing ulcer on the left foot. The patient’s additional chronic conditions consist of the following: HF, CAD, COPD, history of prostate cancer, arthritis, depression, and sleep apnea. Which of the following chronic conditions should the CDI specialist consider for future education regarding RAF impact with the endocrinologist?

Options:

A.

Sleep apnea, depression, and HF

B.

Diabetes, amputation, and skin ulcer

C.

CAD, diabetes, and COPD

D.

History of prostate cancer, arthritis, and A1C

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Questions 16

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

Options:

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

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Questions 17

Which of the following is a leading query?

Options:

A.

“The documentation includes modifications for current Celexa dosages. Can you please identify the condition treated with this medication?”

B.

“The patient has a past medical history of RUL lung cancer. Should lung cancer be classified as: A) currently being treated, B) History of lung CA?”

C.

“The patient has a BMI of 42 per the nursing documentation. Does this patient have a medically relevant diagnosis to accompany the BMI? Please select one of the following options. A) morbid obesity, B) obesity, C) overweight, D) Other____, E) Clinically undetermined”

D.

“Your documentation states the patient drinks a 6-pack of beer nightly. Does this patient have alcohol dependence? Yes/No (circle one)”

E.
F.
G.
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Questions 18

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

Options:

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

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Questions 19

A compliant physician query must:

Options:

A.

Lead the provider to a specific diagnosis

B.

Be non-leading and include clinical indicators

C.

Be verbal only

D.

Be open-ended without context

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Questions 20

A patient is seen at the clinic for a fever, and the provider documents possible Zika virus. A CDI specialist reviews the record and notes that a positive serology test indicates the Zika virus. Which of the following should the CDI specialist do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Code the Zika virus as the reason for the visit.

B.

Query the provider to code the result of the serology test.

C.

Query the provider to confirm the diagnosis of Zika.

D.

Code the fever as the first-listed diagnosis and Zika virus as secondary.

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Questions 21

Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?

Options:

A.

HCC 35, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 38

B.

HCC 38, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 35

C.

HCC 35, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 38

D.

HCC 38, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 35

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Questions 22

Progress note states: “Recent EGD identified severe hyperplasia, without obstruction. Follow-up today for Barrett’s. Complains of chest pain, difficulty swallowing, 15-pound weight loss in last 12 weeks. Diagnoses—significant weight loss, cachexia, anorexia, Barrett’s esophagus, and chest pain. Plan short term tube feeding—consult home health and dietitian for management.” Which of the following diagnoses will trigger an HCC assignment?

Options:

A.

Barrett’s esophagus

B.

Anorexia

C.

Significant weight loss

D.

Cachexia

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Questions 23

Which of the following are appropriate clinical indicators to support a query related to alcohol dependency in remission?

Options:

A.

The patient has history of cirrhosis of the liver and elevated liver enzymes.

B.

The patient has history of excessive alcohol use and attends AA meetings.

C.

The patient admits to occasional social drinking and recreational drug use.

D.

The patient presents with nausea, vomiting, and distended abdomen.

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Questions 24

Provider documentation states: “A patient is seen today with DM type 2, peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer of the left great toe, hypertension, and BMI 43. O2 dependent, chronic respiratory failure due to COPD, stopped smoking 2 years ago - 84 packs per year smoking habit.” Which of the following query opportunities will impact risk adjustment?

Options:

A.

Nicotine dependence

B.

Diabetes with complications

C.

Morbid obesity

D.

Depth of diabetic ulcer

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Questions 25

Clinic visit documentation describes patient complaints of increased shortness of breath, following recent inpatient admission for pneumonia. Diagnoses include COPD - GOLD stage 3. Increase home O2 to 3 liters. Home health follow-up to begin home nebulizers, and Solu-Medrol ordered. Which of the following is the MOST significant query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Specificity of the organism causing the pneumonia

B.

Acuity of the COPD

C.

Presence of chronic respiratory failure

D.

Oxygen dependence

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Questions 26

Which component of the OPPS assigns payment rates based on procedure grouping?

Options:

A.

Physician Fee Schedule

B.

APCs

C.

DRGs

D.

CPT codes

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Questions 27

Which of the following is a provider benefit of a prospective query?

Options:

A.

Instructs the provider to the best diagnosis to use

B.

Guarantees risk adjusted diagnosis capture

C.

Addresses the query topic during the actual patient encounter

D.

Defines the purpose of the encounter

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Questions 28

In review of a clinic record, a CDI specialist notes the provider has directly copied and pasted a previous inpatient problem list into the current ambulatory visit note. Which of the following is the CDI specialist’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Do not code conditions that were pasted from the problem list.

B.

Query the provider for each of the conditions on the problem list.

C.

Educate the provider regarding the concerns with copying and pasting this list.

D.

Assume the conditions are all relevant for this visit.

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Questions 29

A 75-year-old with a PMH of chronic foot ulcer, CKD, and depression is seen by his PCP for continued fatigue and decreased urination. Labs drawn on previous day are reviewed. Patient describes extreme fatigue and no motivation. Assessment and plan include: “CKD 3 with renal failure - refer to nephrologist. Chronic nonpressure foot ulcer - home care for wound assessment. Depression - Rx for SSRI.” Which of the following are the validated diagnoses that risk adjust and qualify as CMS-HCCs?

Options:

A.

Renal failure; CKD 3

B.

CKD 3; chronic non-pressure ulcer

C.

Depression; renal failure

D.

Chronic non-pressure ulcer; depression

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Questions 30

Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Concern for streptococcal pneumonia

B.

Treating a streptococcal pneumonia with antibiotic

C.

Evidence of streptococcal pneumonia

D.

Broad spectrum antibiotic prescribed for streptococcal pneumonia

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Questions 31

Provider documentation states: “A 72-year-old patient with an active history of colon cancer, status post bowel resection, receiving chemotherapy. Newly diagnosed lung metastasis. Presents with UTI and elevated creatinine. Labs demonstrate a hemoglobin of 7.9, WBC of 2,500, and platelet count of 20,000.” Which of the following is the query opportunity that supports a disease interaction that impacts the risk adjustment?

Options:

A.

Colon cancer and lung metastasis

B.

Colon cancer and chemotherapy

C.

Acute tubular necrosis and UTI

D.

Chemotherapy induced pancytopenia

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Questions 32

An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary’s risk score?

Options:

A.

Patient noncompliance and age

B.

ICD-10-CM codes and race

C.

Medicaid status and race

D.

Medicaid status and gender

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Questions 33

Provider documentation states: “Type 2 Diabetes with bilateral peripheral arteriosclerotic disease of LE. Bilateral pedal pulses present. Review Hgb A1C and CBC. No change in treatment. Hypertension evaluated and well controlled on Lopressor.” Which of the following conditions should be coded?

Options:

A.

Diabetes without complications, atherosclerosis bilateral legs

B.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, hypertension

C.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, hypertension

D.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, diabetes with circulatory complication, hypertension

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Questions 34

A patient presents to the office complaining of lower abdominal pain and burning urination. Urinalysis indicates WBC > 10, positive nitrites, and leuk esterase. Documentation identifies pain, urinary frequency, and fever likely UTI. Cultures are pending for E-Coli. The patient is started on antipyretics and Levaquin. Which of the following conditions can be reported?

Options:

A.

Abdominal pain, fever, and pyuria

B.

UTI

C.

E-Coli, UTI, and fever

D.

Abdominal pain, fever, and urinary frequency

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Questions 35

A patient is seen in the obstetrical clinic, 6 weeks postpartum. She presents with resting heart rate of 58 BPM, initial blood pressure of 154/90, and respiratory rate of 20. She also complains of slight headaches, denies visual changes, and has no evidence of peripheral edema. History is significant for smoking and obesity. A blood pressure reading of 160/88 is taken at the end of the visit. The provider documents hypertension. Which of the following query opportunities is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

A more specific diagnosis, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia

B.

Whether the hypertension was pre-existing or developed during pregnancy

C.

Association of hypertension to smoking

D.

Hypertensive crisis - unspecified

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Questions 36

A CDI specialist manager is reviewing the productivity metrics of the outpatient team and notes that one of the CDI specialists has a high query rate and a good physician response, but a low physician agree rate compared to the rest of the team. This likely indicates which of the following?

Options:

A.

The data is not stratified enough to show a true picture of the productivity.

B.

The CDI specialist is writing leading queries.

C.

The CDI specialist is creating poor quality queries.

D.

The cases the CDI specialist is reviewing are more complex than other clinics.

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Questions 37

Provider documentation states: “Patient is here for follow-up for multiple chronic conditions, including COPD, HTN, DM, and alcohol abuse. She admits to drinking more than she has in the past, starting in the early morning and consumes at least a pint a day. Her BP today is elevated at 165/89. Discussed medications and diet. As she continues to be dependent on alcohol, several treatment options were offered. She stated she would think about it.” Which of the following groups of diagnoses is supported by the clinical indicators described?

Options:

A.

DM Type 2 without complications, HTN, alcohol abuse

B.

DM Type 2 with complications, COPD, HTN, alcohol use

C.

DM Type 2 without complications, HTN, alcohol dependence

D.

DM Type 2 with complications, COPD, alcohol dependence

E.
F.
G.
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Questions 38

Which of the following is a form of a cardiac condition that may be treated with a beta-blocker?

Options:

A.

Third degree heart block

B.

Coronary artery disease

C.

Sinus bradycardia

D.

Cardiomyopathy

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Questions 39

After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, “I just don’t see how this impacts patient care.” Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?

Options:

A.

“It determines what you will be reimbursed.”

B.

“It predicts expected resources needed to care for the patient.”

C.

“It determines the patient’s out of pocket expenses.”

D.

“It predicts medical necessity of ordered procedures/treatments.”

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Questions 40

In the outpatient setting, which of the following guidelines depicts the reason for the encounter/visit shown in the medical record to be chiefly responsible for the services provided?

Options:

A.

Differential diagnoses

B.

Co-existing diagnoses

C.

Principal diagnosis

D.

First-listed diagnosis

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Questions 41

Symbicort® is used to treat which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Degenerative osteoarthritis

B.

Persistent asthma

C.

Diabetic neuropathy

D.

Congestive heart failure

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Questions 42

In which of the following situations would a yes/no query format be considered compliant?

Options:

A.

Clarifying acuity of disease process

B.

Obtaining a new (previously undocumented) diagnosis

C.

Obtaining a specification of a contributing organism to an infection

D.

Resolving conflicting documentation from multiple providers

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Exam Code: CCDS-O
Exam Name: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)
Last Update: May 12, 2026
Questions: 140

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