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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following best describes the concept of Measured Service in cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud systems allocate a fixed immutable set of measured services to each customer.

B.

Cloud systems offer elastic resources.

C.

Cloud systems provide usage reports upon request, based on manual reporting.

D.

Cloud systems automatically monitor resource usage and provide billing based on actual consumption.

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Questions 5

To understand their compliance alignments and gaps with a cloud provider, what must cloud customers rely on?

Options:

A.

Provider documentation

B.

Provider run audits and reports

C.

Third-party attestations

D.

Provider and consumer contracts

E.

EDiscovery tools

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Questions 6

Why is it essential to embed cloud decisions within organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Speeds up cloud service adoption significantly

B.

Reduces the complexity of implementing cloud solutions

C.

Gives IT department autonomous control over cloud resources

D.

Ensures alignment with business objectives and risk management

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Questions 7

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logsfor threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

Options:

A.

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.

Parallel processing approach

C.

Streamlined single-filter method

D.

Unfiltered bulk analysis

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Questions 8

Cloud applications can use virtual networks and other structures, for hyper-segregated environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 9

Which strategic approach is most appropriate for managing a multi-cloud environment that includes multiple IaaS and PaaS providers?

Options:

A.

Allow each department to manage their own cloud services independently.

B.

Use a single security tool for all providers.

C.

Rely on each provider's native security features with limited additional oversight.

D.

Implement strict governance and monitoring procedures across all platforms.

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Questions 10

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

Options:

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Questions 11

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Options:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

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Questions 12

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

Options:

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

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Questions 13

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

Options:

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

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Questions 14

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 15

What goal is most directly achieved by implementing controls and policies that aim to provide a complete view of data use and exposure in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Enhancing data governance and compliance

B.

Simplifying cloud service integrations

C.

Increasing cloud data processing speed

D.

Reducing the cost of cloud storage

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Questions 16

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

Options:

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Questions 17

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

Options:

A.

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

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Questions 18

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

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Questions 19

What is an important step in conducting forensics on containerized and serverless environments?

Options:

A.

Implementing endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions

B.

Isolating network traffic and analyzing network packets frequently

C.

Regularly updating antivirus and anti-malware software

D.

Capturing container logs and snapshots, and leveraging serverless execution logs

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Questions 20

Which cloud deployment model involves a cloud and a datacenter, bound together by technology to enable data and application portability?

Options:

A.

Hybrid cloud

B.

Public cloud

C.

Multi-cloud

D.

Private cloud

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Questions 21

What key characteristic differentiates cloud networks from traditional networks?

Options:

A.

Cloud networks are software-defined networks (SDNs)

B.

Cloud networks rely on dedicated hardware appliances

C.

Cloud networks are less scalable than traditional networks

D.

Cloud networks have the same architecture as traditional networks

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Questions 22

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

Options:

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

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Questions 23

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

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Questions 24

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

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Questions 25

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

Options:

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

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Questions 26

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 27

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

Options:

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

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Questions 28

How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

Options:

A.

Single key for all data owners

B.

One key per data owner

C.

Multiple keys per data owner

D.

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

E.

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

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Questions 29

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

Options:

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a singlecloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities withsimilar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

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Questions 30

In securing virtual machines (VMs), what is the primary role of using an “image factory" in VM deployment?

Options:

A.

To encrypt data within VMs for secure storage

B.

To facilitate direct manual intervention in VM deployments

C.

To enable rapid scaling of virtual machines on demand

D.

To ensure consistency, security, and efficiency in VM image creation

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Questions 31

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

Options:

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

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Questions 32

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

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Questions 33

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

Options:

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

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Questions 34

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

Options:

A.

A data destruction plan

B.

A communication plan

C.

A back-up website

D.

A spill remediation kit

E.

A rainy day fund

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Questions 35

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

Options:

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

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Questions 36

In the context of IaaS, what are the primary components included in infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Network configuration tools, storage encryption, and virtualization platforms

B.

Compute, network, and storage resource pools

C.

User authentication systems, application deployment services, and database management

D.

Load balancers, firewalls, and backup solutions

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Questions 37

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

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Questions 38

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

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Questions 39

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes

Options:

A.

Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity.

B.

An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters.

C.

An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes.

D.

Attributes are made unique by their identities.

E.

Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

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Questions 40

Which feature of cloud networks ensures strong separation between customer environments?

Options:

A.

Virtual local area network (VLANs)

B.

Resource pooling

C.

Software-defined networking

D.

Elasticity

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Questions 41

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

Options:

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

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Questions 42

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

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Questions 43

Network logs from cloud providers are typically flow records, not full packet captures.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 44

Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

Options:

A.

Code Review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Functional Testing

E.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

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Questions 45

Which of the following best explains how Multifactor Authentication (MFA) helps prevent identity-based attacks?

Options:

A.

MFA relies on physical tokens and biometrics to secure accounts.

B.

MFA requires multiple forms of validation that would have to compromise.

C.

MFA requires and uses more complex passwords to secure accounts.

D.

MFA eliminates the need for passwords through single sign-on.

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Questions 46

Why is it important to plan and coordinate response activities for incidents affecting the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

It eliminates the need for monitoring systems

B.

It ensures a systematic approach, minimizing damage and recovery time

C.

It guarantees that no incidents will occur in the future

D.

It reduces the frequency of security audits required

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Questions 47

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

Options:

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

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Questions 48

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

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Questions 49

What is an advantage of using Kubernetes for container orchestration?

Options:

A.

Limited deployment options

B.

Manual management of resources

C.

Automation of deployment and scaling

D.

Increased hardware dependency

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Questions 50

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

Options:

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

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Questions 51

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.

Containers

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Questions 52

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

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Questions 53

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

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Questions 54

What technology is commonly used to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user's device and a private network over the public Internet?

Options:

A.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

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Questions 55

What does it mean if the system or environment is built automatically from a template?

Options:

A.

Nothing.

B.

It depends on how the automation is configured.

C.

Changes made in production are overwritten by the next code or template change.

D.

Changes made in test are overwritten by the next code or template change.

E.

Changes made in production are untouched by the next code or template change.

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Questions 56

Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

Options:

A.

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

B.

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

C.

It allows skipping final verification tests.

D.

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

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Questions 57

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

Options:

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Questions 58

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

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Questions 59

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 60

Why is it essential to include key metrics and periodic reassessment in cybersecurity governance?

Options:

A.

To meet legal requirements and avoid fines

B.

To ensure effective and continuous improvement of security measures

C.

To document all cybersecurity incidents and monitor them overtime

D.

To reduce the number of security incidents to zero

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Questions 61

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

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Questions 62

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

Options:

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

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Questions 63

Which concept provides the abstraction needed for resource pools?

Options:

A.

Virtualization

B.

Applistructure

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Metastructure

E.

Orchestration

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Questions 64

After an incident has been identified and classified, which activity is typically performed during the Containment, Eradication, and Recovery phase of incident response?

Options:

A.

Documenting lessons learned and finalizing reports

B.

Restoring systems to operational status while preventing recurrence

C.

Monitoring network traffic for anomalies

D.

Identifying and classifying security threats

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Questions 65

Which factor is typically considered in data classification?

Options:

A.

CI/CD step

B.

Storage capacity requirements

C.

Sensitivity of data

D.

Data controller

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Questions 66

Which of the following functionalities is provided by Data Security Posture Management (DSPM) tools?

Options:

A.

Firewall management and configuration

B.

User activity monitoring and reporting

C.

Encryption of all data at rest and in transit

D.

Visualization and management for cloud data security

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Questions 67

What are the most important practices for reducing vulnerabilities in virtual machines (VMs) in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Disabling unnecessary VM services and using containers

B.

Encryption for data at rest and software bill of materials

C.

Using secure base images, patch and configuration management

D.

Network isolation and monitoring

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Questions 68

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

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Questions 69

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

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Questions 70

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do?

Options:

A.

Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.

B.

Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.

C.

You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.

D.

Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.

E.

Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

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Questions 71

Which of the following cloud essential characteristics refers to the capability of the service to scale resources up or down quickly and efficiently based on demand?

Options:

A.

On-Demand Self-Service

B.

Broad Network Access

C.

Resource Pooling

D.

Rapid Elasticity

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Questions 72

Why is it important for Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) to document security controls?

Options:

A.

It allows CSPs to reduce operational costs and increase security efficiency

B.

It ensures transparency and accountability for security measures

C.

It reduces the frequency for regular independent audits

D.

It helps CSPs enhance their marketing strategies and relationship with policymakers

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Questions 73

If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

Options:

A.

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

B.

It would require a previous access agreement

C.

It would require an act of war

D.

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

E.

It would never be obtained in this situation

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Questions 74

What is resource pooling?

Options:

A.

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

B.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

C.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

D.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 75

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

Options:

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Questions 76

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

Options:

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 77

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

Options:

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Questions 78

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

Options:

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

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Questions 79

Why is it important to capture and centralize workload logs promptly in a cybersecurity environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify application debugging processesB Primarily to reduce data storage costs

B.

Logs may be lost during a scaling event

C.

To comply with data privacy regulations

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Questions 80

What's the difference between DNS Logs and Flow Logs?

Options:

A.

They represent the logging of different networking solutions, and DNS Logs are more suitable for a ZTA implementation

B.

DNS Logs record domain name resolution requests and responses, while Flow Logs record info on source, destination, protocol

C.

They play identical functions and can be used interchangeably

D.

DNS Logs record all the information about the network behavior, including source, destination, and protocol, while Flow Logs record users' applications behavior

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Questions 81

What is a common characteristic of default encryption provided by cloud providers for data at rest?

Options:

A.

It is not available without an additional premium service

B.

It always requires the customer's own encryption keys

C.

It uses the cloud provider's keys, often at no additional cost

D.

It does not support encryption for data at rest

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Questions 82

In the initial stage of implementing centralized identity management, what is the primary focus of cybersecurity measures?

Options:

A.

Developing incident response plans

B.

Integrating identity management and securing devices

C.

Implementing advanced threat detection systems

D.

Deploying network segmentation

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Questions 83

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

Options:

A.

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

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Questions 84

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is it crucial to establish a cloud deployment registry?

Options:

A.

To maintain a log of all incident response activities and have efficient reporting

B.

To document all cloud services APIs

C.

To list all cloud-compliant software

D.

To track incident support options, know account details, and contact information

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Questions 85

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

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Questions 86

Which of the following best describes an authoritative source in the context of identity management?

Options:

A.

A list of permissions assigned to different users

B.

A network resource that handles authorization requests

C.

A database containing all entitlements

D.

A trusted system holding accurate identity information

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Questions 87

Which phase of the CSA secure software development life cycle (SSDLC) focuses on ensuring that an application or product is deployed onto a secure infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Continuous Build, Integration, and Testing

B.

Continuous Delivery and Deployment

C.

Secure Design and Architecture

D.

Secure Coding

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Questions 88

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

Options:

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

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Questions 89

What is true of a workload?

Options:

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

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Questions 90

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

Options:

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

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Questions 91

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

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Questions 92

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

Options:

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

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Questions 93

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

Options:

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

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Questions 94

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

Options:

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

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Questions 95

Containers are highly portable code execution environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 96

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

Options:

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

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Questions 97

Which term describes the practice in cloud compliance where a customer acquires a set of pre-approved regulatory or standards-based controls from a compliant provider?

Options:

A.

Automated compliance

B.

Attestation inheritance

C.

Audit inheritance

D.

Compliance inheritance

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Questions 98

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

Options:

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

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Questions 99

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

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Exam Code: CCSK
Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0)
Last Update: Oct 31, 2025
Questions: 332

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