CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Certified Fraud Examiner - Fraud Prevention and Deterrence Exam Questions and Answers

 Responsibilities of the Board of Directors:

The board is primarily responsible for oversight, governance, and ensuring the organization operates in the best interest of stakeholders. Key responsibilities include:

Acting as intermediaries between shareholders and management.

Safeguarding resources and assets.

Assessing management’s strategies and decisions.

 Why C is Correct:

Directing employees is a management responsibility, not a board function. The board focuses on oversight rather than operational execution.

 References:

ACFE governance principles emphasize the separation of oversight and operational roles​​.

 Effectiveness of Consistent Punishment:

Consistent punishment demonstrates an organization's commitment to enforcing anti-fraud policies and serves as a deterrent to potential fraudsters.

 Why A is Correct:

When perpetrators are consistently punished, it sends a strong message about zero tolerance for fraud and reinforces the importance of compliance throughout the organization.

 References:

ACFE guidance on fraud deterrence emphasizes the role of consequences in preventing fraud​​.

Overview of Compliance Programs:An effective compliance program requires clear communication, enforcement, and promotion of ethical standards within an organization. Promoting compliance involves setting up positive incentives, such as rewards for ethical behavior, to encourage adherence to policies and regulations.

Role of Incentives:

Incentives serve as motivators for employees to align with the compliance culture. Examples include bonuses for meeting compliance goals, recognition for ethical behavior, and career advancement opportunities tied to compliance performance.

The U.S. Federal Sentencing Guidelines for Organizations emphasize that for a compliance program to be effective, it must include incentives to encourage proper behavior and discipline to deter violations.

Supporting Reference Materials:

The Association of Certified Fraud Examiners (ACFE) highlights the importance of integrating incentives into compliance programs. These incentives are seen as essential for fostering a culture of ethics and preventing fraud.

Industry standards and frameworks, such as COSO’s "Internal Control - Integrated Framework," also stress the integration of incentives to promote adherence to internal controls and compliance standards​​.

Importance of Positive Reinforcement:

Positive reinforcement through incentives leads to higher employee morale, enhanced commitment to ethical practices, and a reduced likelihood of non-compliance.

A compliance program that merely penalizes non-compliance without rewarding adherence can fail to motivate employees to prioritize compliance.

Application in Fraud Prevention:

By actively incentivizing compliance, organizations can proactively mitigate risks of fraud and unethical practices. This aligns employees’ personal goals with the organization’s ethical standards.

Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth Explanation:

A key element of vendor due diligence is ensuring that third-party vendors have robust ethics and compliance programs. This helps align values, mitigate fraud risks, and establish clear expectations. While audits and questionnaires are good practices, they are not always mandatory or feasible before engagement. Moreover, transparency in seeking vendor information (unlike in A) is a norm in legitimate vetting practices.

 Principle Overview:

Responsibility pertains to the duty of an organization to act in the best interest of society, ensuring sustainable and ethical practices that benefit all stakeholders, including employees, customers, and the environment.

 Corporate Governance Definition:

Corporate governance frameworks emphasize corporate responsibility as a key pillar for maintaining societal trust and long-term value creation.

 Why Responsibility is Correct:

While transparency, fairness, and accountability are essential, responsibility uniquely emphasizes societal interests and ethical conduct​​.

 Corruption and Fraud Risks:

Corruption involves abuse of power for personal or organizational gain and includes bribery, kickbacks, and aiding vendor fraud.

 Why B is Correct:

Espionage by competitors is not typically classified as corruption, as it does not directly involve abuse of internal authority or a relationship of trust. It is instead an external threat.

 Other Options:

A, C, and D are classical examples of corruption-related fraud risks​​.

 Definition of Focus Groups:

Focus groups involve small groups of individuals discussing a specific topic under the guidance of a facilitator. This technique is used to gather qualitative insights through direct interaction and observation.

 Why A is Correct:

Observing employee interactions during a focus group provides rich, contextual data about attitudes, understanding, and engagement with fraud awareness training.

 Why Other Options are Incorrect:

B (Surveys):Collect quantitative data but lack interaction and observational opportunities.

C (Anonymous feedback mechanisms):Useful for confidentiality but do not allow observation.

D (Interviews):Individualized and do not involve group dynamics​​.

 Professional Auditing Standards Requirement:

Standards such as the International Standards on Auditing (ISA) and Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS) require auditors to include elements of unpredictability in their audit procedures to reduce the risk of fraud.

 Purpose of Unpredictability:

By varying the scope, timing, and extent of audits, auditors prevent potential fraudsters from anticipating audit procedures and adjusting their behavior.

 Why A is Correct:

This aligns with established auditing principles to enhance fraud detection and maintain audit integrity​​.

The ACFE has found that terminating the employee involved in fraud is the most common internal response to substantiated cases. While many fraud cases are handled internally without being referred to law enforcement, this is often due to concerns such as reputational damage or cost considerations rather than a lack of evidence.

Behaviorist Theories in Conditioning:

Positive reinforcement, such as offering bonuses, is more effective than punishment in encouraging adherence to policies and reducing deviations.

Employees are more likely to repeat behaviors that are rewarded.

Why C is Correct:

This approach aligns with behaviorist principles, fostering compliance through incentives rather than fear or criticism, which could negatively impact morale.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A and D:Punishments may lead to resentment and reduced motivation.

B:Public criticism can create a toxic work environment, discouraging open communication​​.

References for All Questions:

ACFE Code of Professional Ethics and Fraud Examination Guide​​.

ISA and GAAS requirements on unpredictability in audit procedures​​.

Behaviorist theories on employee motivation and conditioning​​.

Treadway Commission Recommendations:

Establishing an independent audit committee is essential for oversight and reducing fraud risk in financial reporting.

Audit committees play a critical role in ensuring the integrity of financial statements.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Shareholder oversight of hotlines:Not a Treadway Commission recommendation.

B. Compensation committee resources:Not directly related to fraud prevention.

C. Management charter:Unrelated to the recommendations.

Conclusion:Mandatory independent audit committees are a key recommendation to reduce fraud risk.

Professional Skepticism Defined:

Professional skepticism is an attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of evidence. Fraud examiners must remain vigilant to indications of potential fraud throughout an engagement.

Consistent Application:

ACFE standards emphasize that skepticism should be applied consistently, even if initial findings do not indicate fraud, to avoid overlooking potential risks.

Why D is Correct:

Relaxing skepticism can lead to missed evidence or poor judgment, undermining the examination's effectiveness​​.

The ACFE manual notes that codes of conduct not only serve as a reference for guiding behavior but also enable enforcement and internal discipline within a profession.

“A code of ethical conduct serves as a reference and benchmark for ethical guidance… [and] facilitates practical enforcement and internal discipline throughout a profession.”

 Fraud Risk Reduction Objectives:

Inherent fraud risk:The risk present before any controls are applied.

Residual fraud risk:The remaining risk after controls have been implemented.

 Why D is Correct:

The goal of anti-fraud controls is to minimize residual risk to acceptable levels, recognizing that complete elimination of risk is unattainable.

 Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A and C:It is impractical to completely eliminate inherent or residual fraud risks.

B:Residual risk should be lower than inherent risk, but controls aim for significant reduction​

Fraud Response Responsibilities:

Management is responsible for responding to fraud because they oversee the organization's operations, culture, and compliance frameworks.

Other parties, such as internal auditors and the audit committee, provide oversight and recommendations but do not directly implement responses.

Conclusion:Management has the ultimate responsibility for responding appropriately to fraud.

Understanding G20/OECD Principles of Corporate Governance:These principles provide a framework to improve corporate governance worldwide. Key elements include board responsibilities, shareholder rights, equitable treatment, and stakeholder roles.

Analysis of Options:

A. Guidance on board structures:This is included in the principles to ensure effective governance and oversight.

C. Framework for corporate governance:Governments are encouraged to create legal and regulatory frameworks supporting corporate governance.

D. Stakeholder importance:Stakeholders' roles in governance are recognized, acknowledging their contribution to sustainable business practices.

B. Stronger protection for foreign shareholders:The principles advocate for equitable treatment of all shareholders, not preferential treatment for any group.

Conclusion:Option B contradicts the principle of equitable treatment, making it the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth Explanation:

ISA 265 requires that significant deficiencies in internal control identified during an audit be communicated in writing to those charged with governance. The auditor is not obligated to inform regulatory agencies unless required by law (eliminating A). Internal control audits are not separate engagements under standard financial statement audits (eliminating B). Withdrawalfrom the engagement is a last resort and only appropriate under severe circumstances beyond internal control issues (eliminating D).

Scope of Fraud Risk Assessment:

The fraud risk assessment team must consider various factors, including:

A. Incentive programs:Can create pressures that lead to fraud.

B. Management override of controls:A key risk for fraud occurring despite existing safeguards.

C. Risks to reputation:Fraud incidents can harm the organization's public image.

Comprehensive Discussion:

Considering all these factors ensures a thorough identification of inherent fraud risks.

Conclusion:The fraud risk assessment team should discuss all listed items.

Understanding the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics:The ACFE Code of Professional Ethics requires Certified Fraud Examiners to demonstrate competence and due care in their professional services. Specifically:

Rule 2 states that CFEs must "perform all professional engagements with due diligence."

Rule 4 emphasizes that CFEs must "avoid conduct that discredits the profession or the Association."

Competence and Due Care:

Benjamin, despite his attendance at a seminar on money laundering, lacks the requisite expertise or experience in investigating complex money laundering cases. Accepting an engagement of this nature without possessing adequate training, knowledge, or resources indicates a failure to exercise due care.

The Code emphasizes the importance of competence, meaning professionals must decline engagements that exceed their expertise unless they involve qualified individuals or teams.

Violation Assessment:

By choosing to conduct the investigation alone, Benjamin disregards the ethical requirement to ensure competence and quality in professional work. This likely jeopardizes the investigation's integrity and results.

This conduct could lead to suboptimal outcomes, legal liabilities, and reputational harm, which discredit the profession, violating the ACFE ethical framework.

Conclusion:Benjamin's decision is a breach of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics because he failed to ensure adequate preparation, skills, and resources for the engagement.

 Indirect Costs of Fraud:

Reputational damage is a significant indirect cost of fraud. It can lead to loss of customer trust, reduced employee morale, and long-term financial impact.

 Why A is Correct:

Quantifying reputational damage is challenging due to its intangible nature. The effects often manifest over time and are influenced by various factors, making precise calculation difficult​​.

Rational Choice Theory Overview:

This theory posits that individuals consciously weigh the benefits and risks of committing a crime and make calculated decisions to engage in criminal behavior if the perceived benefits outweigh the risks.

Deterrence Mechanism:

Crime can be deterred by reducing opportunities (e.g., strong internal controls) and increasing the likelihood of detection and punishment (e.g., effective monitoring systems).

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Routine activities theory:Focuses on the convergence of motivated offenders, suitable targets, and lack of guardianship.

B. Differential association theory:Explains crime as learned behavior through interaction with others.

D. Social conflict theory:Suggests crime results from societal inequalities and power struggles.

Why C is Correct:

Rational choice theory explicitly addresses crime prevention through increased risks and reduced opportunities​​.

References for All Questions:

ACFE Fraud Examination Guide​​.

Criminological theories as applied to fraud prevention and deterrence​​.

Corporate governance frameworks and corruption-related risks​​.

The ACFE manual emphasizes “tone at the top” as a foundational element of a strong ethical culture.

“Management must show employees through its words and actions that dishonest or unethical behavior will not be tolerated.”

Understanding Behaviorism and Punishment:

Behaviorists like B. F. Skinner argue that punishment temporarily suppresses undesired behaviors rather than eliminating them.

Once the punitive stimulus is removed, the behavior is likely to reappear unless it is replaced with a more desirable behavior through reinforcement.

Analysis of Options:

B. Permanently suppressed:This contradicts the principles of behaviorism, as punishment alone does not permanently modify behavior.

C. Occur more frequently:Punishment typically decreases behavior temporarily.

D. Not affected by punishment:Punishment impacts behavior, but the effect is often temporary.

Conclusion:The most likely outcome is that the behavior will return once the punishment ceases.

Purpose of a Code of Conduct:

A professional code of conduct serves as a guideline for ethical behavior, provides benchmarks for decision-making, and facilitates enforcement within the profession.

It does not replace the personal responsibility to exercise individual judgment and consult one's conscience.

Analysis of Other Options:

B, C, and D:These accurately describe the purposes of a professional code of conduct.

Conclusion:The code of conduct does not eliminate the need for personal ethical reflection, making Option A incorrect.

Fraud Reporting Program Best Practices:

Ensuring anonymity encourages employees to report fraud without fear of retaliation. This enhances the effectiveness of the reporting program.

Why D is Correct:

Communicating confidentiality builds trust and increases participation in the fraud reporting program.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A: Fraud risks are not limited to organization size.

B: Restricting reports to immediate supervisors may create barriers.

C: Holding employees accountable for unsubstantiated tips discourages reporting.

 Definition of Organizational Crime:

Organizational crime refers to illegal actions committed by a corporation or individuals acting on behalf of the organization to benefit the corporation or its leaders.

Examples include antitrust violations, environmental crimes, and fraudulent financial reporting.

 Why B is Correct:

A price-fixing scheme involves collusion among companies to manipulate prices, a clear example of organizational crime designed to benefit the involved corporations.

 Why Other Options are Incorrect:

Options A, C, and D represent individual crimes for personal gain, not organizational crimes​​.

 Treadway Commission Recommendations:

The National Commission on Fraudulent Financial Reporting (Treadway Commission) issued guidelines to strengthen financial reporting integrity and reduce fraud risks.

One key recommendation was to ensure that the audit committee is well-resourced and has sufficient authority to oversee financial reporting processes effectively.

 Audit Committee Role:

An adequately empowered audit committee improves oversight, supports the internal audit function, and ensures proper implementation of controls to prevent and detect fraud.

 Why D is Correct:

This recommendation directly addresses the reduction of fraud probability by enhancing oversight capabilities​​.

COSO Definition of Internal Control:

COSO defines internal control as a process executed by an entity’s board, management, and personnel to provide reasonable assurance about achieving objectives in operations, reporting, and compliance.

Analysis of Options:

A. Corporate compliance:Corporate compliance focuses on adhering to laws and regulations, not the broader operational objectives.

B. Fraud risk management:This is a component of internal control, not its definition.

C. Risk assessment:This is a step within the internal control process but not the overarching process.

D. Internal control:Matches the COSO definition accurately.

Conclusion:Internal control is the correct answer as defined by COSO.

 Board Responsibilities in Fraud Risk Management:

The board plays a critical role in overseeing the organization's fraud risk management activities to ensure accountability and effective governance.

 Why A is Correct:

The board provides high-level oversight but does not typically involve itself in the design or implementation of the fraud risk management program.

 Why Other Options are Incorrect:

B and D:Design and implementation are management responsibilities.

C:Punishment of fraud perpetrators is not directly within the board's purview​​.

Behaviorist Theories on Reinforcement:

Positive reinforcement is the most effective way to encourage desired behavior by providing rewards for compliance.

Analysis of Options:

B. Public criticism:May create resentment and decrease morale.

C. Loss of paid time off:A punitive measure that may not motivate improvement.

D. Demotion:Effective for extreme cases but harsh and potentially counterproductive for minor errors.

Conclusion:Offering a bonus for perfect reconciliation aligns with behaviorist principles of positive reinforcement.

 Detective Anti-Fraud Controls:

These controls aim to identify fraud after it has occurred. Independent reconciliations are an example of such controls because they verify transactions and accounts to detect discrepancies.

 Why B is Correct:

Independent reconciliations are specifically designed to identify errors or fraud in financial records.

 Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A, C, and D:These are preventive controls designed to reduce the likelihood of fraud occurring rather than detecting it after the fact​​.

 Corporate Governance Framework Requirements:

A corporate governance framework must be dynamic, adapting to changes in regulations, markets, and corporate landscapes.

It must consider legal, ethical, cultural, and operational environments.

 Why B is Incorrect:

A static framework cannot accommodate evolving business risks, regulatory changes, and cultural shifts, leading to governance failures. Flexibility is critical for sustainability and resilience.

 References:

ACFE governance best practices and COSO framework guidance highlight the importance of adaptability in governance frameworks​​.

ISA 240 and Auditors' Responsibilities:

ISA 240 clarifies that the responsibility for establishing and maintaining internal controls rests with the organization's management, not the auditors.

Auditors are responsible for evaluating the adequacy of internal controls and assessing fraud risks during an audit.

Why B is Correct:

Management is accountable for designing anti-fraud controls, while auditors provide oversight and recommendations based on their assessments.

Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth Explanation:

The G20/OECD Principles emphasize the importance of full disclosure, including timely, accurate, and transparent mechanisms to maintain investor confidence and market integrity. While they support the equal treatment of shareholders, not members of the governing body (rejecting B), and call for corporate—not government—governance responsibilities (rejecting C). Protecting management’s rights (A) is not a governance principle focus.

 COSO Internal Control Framework Components:

The five components are:

Control Environment

Risk Assessment

Control Activities

Information and Communication

Monitoring Activities

 Why C is Correct:

Independent oversight, while important in governance, is not explicitly listed as one of the five COSO components. It may relate to broader governance structures but is not a core component of the internal control framework.

 References:

COSO Internal Control–Integrated Framework​​.

External auditors are required to report significant deficiencies and material weaknesses in internal control to those charged with governance. The ACFE manual states:

“Auditors must communicate in writing to those charged with governance all significant deficiencies and material weaknesses identified during the audit.”

Allowing employees to report fraud anonymously is a best practice in fraud reporting programs. This encourages whistleblowers to come forward without fear of retaliation or reprisal, increasing the likelihood of fraud detection. Transparency about confidentiality policies further supports employee trust in the reporting system.

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According to the ISAs, auditors are required to communicate identified instances of fraud to those charged with governance of the organization. This ensures that the appropriate individuals within the organization are informed and can take necessary corrective actions. Reportingfindings to the media or confronting individuals directly is not considered an appropriate course of action.

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Analysis of Each Scenario:

A. Rodrigo:Reporting unrelated findings without a clear mandate violates principles of focus and relevance under the ACFE Code.

B. Vivian:Overlooking evidence demonstrates a lack of due diligence and professionalism.

C. Tom:Complying with a court order is permissible, but failure to safeguard client confidentiality before receiving the order constitutes a breach.

Ethical Standards:

Each scenario demonstrates a failure to meet the ethical and professional responsibilities outlined in the ACFE Code.

Conclusion:All scenarios represent violations of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics.

Internal Audit Reporting Responsibilities:

Internal audit must maintain open communication with senior management and the board to ensure appropriate handling of fraud-related issues.

Establishing reporting protocols in advance ensures timely and consistent responses when fraud occurs.

Analysis of Other Options:

B. Periodic reporting is optional:Reporting fraud risks is a required responsibility.

C. Non-disclosure:Fails to fulfill the role of internal audit in governance and accountability.

D. No communication with the board:Misrepresents the internal audit's role in fraud oversight.

Conclusion:Discussing reporting protocols proactively with senior management and the board is the correct approach.

Impact of Reporting to Law Enforcement:

Reporting fraud incidents to law enforcement demonstrates a zero-tolerance approach, acting as a deterrent to potential fraudsters.

It also ensures that perpetrators face legal consequences, discouraging others from engaging in fraudulent activities.

Prevention Mechanism:

The public nature of such actions signals organizational commitment to ethics and integrity, enhancing its reputation and strengthening internal controls.

Supporting References:

ACFE guidelines advocate for reporting fraud to appropriate authorities as part of an effective fraud prevention strategy​​.

Best Practices for Vendor Due Diligence:

Including a clause requiring vendors to report misconduct demonstrates a commitment to transparency and ethical standards.

This measure also ensures accountability and provides the organization with critical information about potential issues.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Internal audits:While valuable, conducting internal audits of vendors before an agreement is impractical and costly.

B. Concealing due diligence efforts:Transparency in due diligence helps build trust with vendors.

C. Post-contract questionnaires:Due diligence must occur before contracts are signed.

Conclusion:Including a contractual clause about misconduct reporting is the most accurate recommendation.

Rationalization in the Fraud Triangle:

Rationalization refers to the justification an individual uses to make fraudulent behavior acceptable in their mind.

In this case, Jody justifies his theft by believing the company owes him for his loyalty and hard work.

Why B is Correct:

Jody’s reasoning aligns with the rationalization leg of the fraud triangle, as he convinces himself his actions are justified.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A (Perceived non-shareable financial need):Involves financial pressure, not justification.

C (Perceived opportunity):Refers to the ability to commit fraud.

D (Lack of personal integrity):Reflects a broader ethical deficiency, not a specific rationalization​​.

Purpose of Fraud Risk Assessment:

The goal is to identify vulnerabilities to fraud and implement preventive measures, not to wait for conclusive evidence of fraud before designating high-risk areas.

Proactive Identification:

High-risk areas are identified based on susceptibility to fraud (e.g., lack of controls, high cash transactions), even if no fraud has been detected. This approach allows organizations to act preemptively.

Improving Fraud Awareness:

Employee education and behavior monitoring are integral components of the assessment process to reduce fraud risks.

Incorrect Assumption in D:

Waiting for conclusive evidence contradicts the proactive nature of fraud risk assessment and undermines its preventative function​​.

References for All Questions:

ACFE Code of Professional Ethics​​.

Auditor Essentials on fraud prevention and deterrence principles​.

COSO and risk assessment frameworks in internal controls​​.

 Diane Vaughan's Theory on Organizational Crime:

Vaughan argued that organizational environments prone to crime exhibit a "normalization of deviance," often influenced by management decisions that misalign employee incentives with organizational objectives.

 Why C is Correct:

Misaligned goals create conflicting priorities, increasing the likelihood of unethical behavior to meet individual or team objectives.

 Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A:Challenging the status quo promotes innovation and ethical accountability.

B:Social functions fostering loyalty do not inherently encourage crime​​.

 Purpose of Fraud Risk Assessment:

Fraud risk assessment aims to identify vulnerabilities and evaluate the organization's exposure to fraud risks. It does not specifically provide an estimate of fraud losses.

 Why D is Correct:

Estimating fraud losses is not a standard objective of fraud risk assessments; rather, they focus on identifying and mitigating risks.

 Why Other Options are Correct:

A: Employee behavior is a critical factor in fraud risk.

B: Fraud awareness is a key outcome of the assessment.

C: High-risk designations indicate vulnerability, not confirmed fraud​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth Explanation:

Silk and Vogel’s research found that organizations often rationalize unethical or illegal behavior by diffusing responsibility across a group, thus minimizing perceived individual culpability. This"shared guilt" justification is reflected in option D. The other options either misunderstand the research or do not reflect actual rationalizations used in white-collar crime contexts.

Management's Role in Fraud Monitoring:

Employees should be aware that management monitors lifestyle and behavior changes. Transparency discourages fraudulent behavior by reinforcing accountability.

Effect of Transparency:

Awareness of monitoring helps maintain a culture of ethical behavior and reduces the likelihood of fraud.

Conclusion:The statement is false because employees should know that management is vigilant about potential fraud indicators.

 Fraud Risk Management Program Requirements:

A fraud risk management program includes mechanisms to detect and respond to noncompliance, sanctions for violations, and measures to address control failures.

 Why B is Incorrect:

Responsibility for handling suspected incidents should remain within the organization, typically assigned to compliance officers or internal audit teams. Delegating it to external parties undermines internal governance.

 Why Other Options are Correct:

A, C, and D describe essential elements of a fraud risk management program, including monitoring, sanctions, and corrective measures for anti-fraud controls​​.

The ACFE manual states:

“Employees should be trained to recognize and report signs such as unexplained lifestyle changes or behavioral red flags, and they should be informed that management will be watching for such indicators.”

The ACFE manual lists corruption as a major fraud risk category, including “the payment of bribes to secure business advantages or contracts.” Bribery is one of the key examples of corrupt practices addressed by anti-corruption standards.

Understanding Behavioral Responses:

Punishment:Involves removing a privilege or applying a negative consequence to decrease undesired behavior.

Removing the ability to work from home penalizes the employee for failing to meet deadlines.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Positive reinforcement:Adds a reward for desired behavior.

B. Negative reinforcement:Removes an unfavorable condition to encourage behavior.

D. None of the above:Incorrect, as this is clearly punishment.

Conclusion:The manager's action is an example of punishment.

Fraud Risk Assessment Objectivity:

The assessment must remain unbiased, but any prior disagreements or conflicts may highlight areas where policies or procedures are unclear, increasing fraud risks.

Why C is Correct:

Incorporating disagreements provides context to evaluate risks objectively, ensuring that all relevant factors are considered without bias.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A:Confronting Brandon could create further conflict without adding value.

B:Delegating the task unnecessarily avoids responsibility.

D:Automatically designating the area as high-risk lacks justification and could undermine credibility​​.

References for All Questions:

ACFE Code of Professional Ethics and Fraud Examination Guide​​.

ISO 31000:2018 guidelines for risk management​​.

Criminological theories related to crime causation and fraud risk assessments​​.

Integration of Fraud Risk Assessment in Audits:

The fraud risk assessment provides valuable input but does not replace the auditor’s independent responsibility to identify and assess fraud risks.

Why B is Correct:

Professional auditing standards require auditors to perform their own risk assessments, and the fraud risk assessment is only a tool to enhance this process.

Why Other Options are Correct:

A, C, and D reflect appropriate uses of fraud risk assessments in the audit process, such as increasing awareness and designing effective audit tests​​.

References for All Questions:

ACFE Code of Professional Ethics and Fraud Examination Guide​​.

COSO frameworks for corporate governance and fraud risk management​​.

Standards for incorporating fraud risk assessments into the audit process​​.

 Components of COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM):

The COSO ERM framework emphasizes the integration of risk management with strategy and performance, comprising the following components:

Governance and culture.

Strategy and objective-setting.

Performance.

Review and revision.

Information, communication, and reporting.

 Why D is Correct:

Governance and culture set the foundation for an organization’s risk management practices by establishing oversight, ethical values, and the operating structure.

 Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A (Independent monitoring):Monitoring is part of internal control, not specifically ERM.

B (Operating environment):Not a COSO ERM component.

C (Risk tolerance):A concept within ERM but not a standalone component​​.

ACFE research highlights that an unwillingness to share duties is one of the most common red flags exhibited by fraud perpetrators. This behavior often indicates a desire to conceal fraudulent activities.Most fraudsters do not have prior convictions, and frauds committed by executives tend to cause higher losses compared to those committed by staff-level employees.

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Comprehensive and Detailed in Depth Explanation:

ISA 240 (The Auditor's Responsibilities Relating to Fraud in an Audit of Financial Statements) outlines the auditor's responsibility to assess and respond to the risk of material misstatement due to fraud. It does not impose a primary responsibility for fraud prevention and detection upon auditors—that responsibility lies with management (eliminating C). The standard also does not require auditors to actively raise fraud awareness within the organization (eliminating A), nor does it establish requirements for fraud risk management programs for management (eliminating D).