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  5. Certified Implementation Specialist - Risk and Compliance Questions and Answers

CIS-RCI Certified Implementation Specialist - Risk and Compliance Questions and Answers

Questions 4

GRC Options in Interactive Filters are only available through which feature?

Options:

A.

GRC Filtering

B.

Metrics Reporting

C.

Performance Analytics

D.

Trending Analytics

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Questions 5

What are some characteristics of the ServiceNow Store? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Some applications are certified by ServiceNow

B.

All applications are certified by ServiceNow

C.

Applications may be developed by ServiceNow Technology Partners

D.

It houses both paid and free applications and integrations

E.

Applications are built om the ServiceNow platform

F.

Applications are certified by other developers

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Questions 6

What three records need to be set-up when integrating with a provider RSS feed? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Feed sources record

B.

Provider record

C.

Regulatory Feed record

D.

Connection and Credentials record

E.

Regulatory Change Task record

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Questions 7

Which of the following tables exist within the GRC: Profiles application scope? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Document

B.

Policy

C.

Risk

D.

Content

E.

Indicator

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Questions 8

What table can be related to the Citation table with a many-to-many relationship?

Options:

A.

Authority Document

B.

Control Objective

C.

Control

D.

Risk

E.

Policy

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Questions 9

What minimum role is needed to bulk initiate risk assessments using the risk assessment scheduler?

Options:

A.

sn_grc.business_user

B.

sn_risk.user

C.

sn_risk.admin

D.

sn_risk.manager

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Questions 10

The Tablename.config:

Options:

A.

Displays the configuration list view of the table in the browser tab

B.

Displays the table in list view within the Content Frame

C.

Displays the table in list view within a separate browser tab

D.

Displays the configuration list view of the table in the Content Frame

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Questions 11

Where does a policy get published to when it is approved?

Options:

A.

Knowledge Summit

B.

ServiceNow Library

C.

Authoritative Records

D.

Knowledge Base

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Questions 12

What feature is available in the GRC: Advanced Risk application but not available when using GRC: Risk Management classic risk assessment functionality?

Options:

A.

Risk Response

B.

Risk issue management

C.

Risk indicator management

D.

Multi-level risk statement hierarchy

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Questions 13

What tables are a pan of the GRC: Advanced Risk scope?

Choose 2 answers

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment Methodology

B.

Risk Criteria Matrix

C.

Manual Factor

D.

Risk Framework

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Questions 14

What Is the maximum file size that can be uploaded to OneDrive for policy authoring?

Options:

A.

5 MB

B.

4 MB

C.

6MB

D.

No Limit

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Questions 15

Entity Types are applied to which types of records? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Risk Statement

B.

Issue

C.

Risk

D.

Control Objective

E.

Policy

F.

Control

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Questions 16

Which table stores the links from the Entity Type to Risk Statement?

Options:

A.

[sn_risk_m2m_statement_profile_type]

B.

[sn_risk_m2m_framework_profile_type]

C.

[sn_risk_m2m_risk_definition_profile_type]

D.

[sn_risk_m2m_policy_profile_type]

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Questions 17

Which table stored the links from Entity to Entity Types?

Options:

A.

[sn_compliance_m2m_profile_profile_type]

B.

[sn_risk_m2m_risk_profile]

C.

[sn_compliance_m2m_policy_profile]

D.

[sn_grc_m2m_profile_profile_type]

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Questions 18

What is the minimum role needed to maintain entity types?

Choose 2 answers

Options:

A.

Risk user

B.

Risk Admin

C.

compliance user

D.

Compliance Manager

E.

Risk Manager

F.

Compliance Admin

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Questions 19

Controls are generated from a Control Objective when what is applied to it?

Options:

A.

Policy

B.

Citation

C.

Indicator template

D.

Entity Type

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Questions 20

What is associated with the control objective, that is active with the setting to create controls automatically enabled, to generate controls?

Options:

A.

Entity Type

B.

indicator template

C.

Policy

D.

Citation

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Questions 21

Which of the following extends from Document Table? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Citation

B.

Policy

C.

Control Objective

D.

Authority Document

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Questions 22

What happens when you assign an Entity Type to a Control Objective?

Options:

A.

An assessment is automatically generated to test each Entity listed in the Entity Type

B.

A policy is created automatically for every Entity listed in the Entity Type

C.

A control is automatically generated for every Entity listed in the Entity Type

D.

The Entity Type presents a compliance score and controls tied to it

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Questions 23

Which scheduled jobs in the GRC: Profiles scope help manage the population of Entity records? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

GRC indicator nightly run

B.

GRC Entity and Risk Statement Data Collection

C.

GRC Profile Generation

D.

GRC Refresh Risk Scores

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Questions 24

When reviewing the Control Objective Table form with your customer, what are the most common choice lists to be configured? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Reference

B.

Classification

C.

Category

D.

Type

E.

Description

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Questions 25

What are the risk response options available when responding on an advanced risk assessment?

Choose 2 answers

Options:

A.

Create one or multiple risk response tasks

B.

Required to create at least one risk response task

C.

Skipped entirely based on attributes defined in the RAM

D.

Required to create a mitigation response task

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Questions 26

Entities can belong 10 more than one of this classification. What is the classification?

Options:

A.

Entity classes

B.

Entity types

C.

information objects

D.

Departments

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Questions 27

Common controls from UCF import into which table in ServiceNow?

Options:

A.

sn_compliance_policy

B.

sn_compliance_policy_statement

C.

sn_compliance_policy_exception

D.

sn_complilance_authority_document

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Questions 28

You are working with your customer to determine necessary audit management workflow configurations. What

should they know about the approval process for audit engagements? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

If the engagement is approved and there are remaining open tasks or issues, it automatically moves into

the Follow Up state.

B.

If the engagement is approved and there are no remaining open tasks or issues, it automatically moves

into the Closed state.

C.

If the engagement is rejected, it automatically moves back to the Fieldwork state.

D.

If the engagement is approved and there are remaining open tasks or issues, it automatically moves into

the Fieldwork state.

E.

If the engagement is rejected, it automatically moves into the Scope state.

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Questions 29

What GRC module would you access in order to update Entity Types?

Options:

A.

Risk > Entities

B.

Scoping > Profiles

C.

Scoping > Entity Types

D.

CMDB

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Questions 30

What is the minimum role required to create a risk assessment methodology (RAM)?

Options:

A.

sn_compliance.admin

B.

sn_risk.user

C.

sn_risk.manager

D.

sn_risk.admin

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Questions 31

What are some of the drivers for customers to get the GRC suite of applications? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

They would like efficiency

B.

They would like integrated reporting

C.

They would like transparency

D.

They would like automated customer service

E.

They would like custom websites

F.

They would like workflow driven processes

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Questions 32

Setting up entity classes is required when using which GRC features? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Setting up an object-based risk assessment

B.

Adding to the policy exception integration registry

C.

Assessing the impact of a regulatory feed

D.

Leveraging classic risk assessments

E.

Leveraging advanced risk assessments

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Questions 33

All of the following are PARENT tables which exist within the GRC Entities application scope EXCEPT.

Options:

A.

Item

B.

Document

C.

Content

D.

Indicator

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Questions 34

Entity scoping is used for what?

Options:

A.

Make sure that all of your Entities have the right visibility

B.

Create and assign controls to the correct users

C.

Create, assign, and manage controls and risks across an enterprise

D.

Scope out the different users and roles that have access to the platform

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Questions 35

Which of the following extends from items?

Options:

A.

Citation

B.

Controls

C.

Issue

D.

Policy

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Questions 36

The advanced planning capability enables integration of Advanced Audit with PPM. If the advanced planning capability is selected when the audit plan is created, what extra related lists display on the engagement record in addition to the related lists displayed with basic planning? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Time card

B.

Resource plan

C.

Entities

D.

Cost plan

E.

Milestones

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Questions 37

The consolidated assessment feature can be used on which of the following? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Control tests

B.

Classic risk assessments

C.

Issues

D.

Control attestations

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Questions 38

What happens to standard control records when the entity is transformed to a reliant entity?

Options:

A.

Control is Retired

B.

Control is returned to Draft

C.

Control remains in it ' s current state

D.

Control state changes to Canceled

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Questions 39

Critical parts of a successful GRC implementation are understanding the customers current: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Risk and Compliance personas

C.

GRC processes

D.

Data breaches

E.

Audit failures

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Questions 40

The content table (sn_grcs_content) is a parent table of:

Options:

A.

sn_grc_profile

B.

sn_risk_framework

C.

sn_risk_definition

D.

sn_risk_risk

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Questions 41

What dependency modeling feature can be used in the Classic UI to build relationships between Entity Classes?

Options:

A.

GRC Workbench

B.

Dependency Model Builder

C.

Data Model Designer

D.

GRC Tree Map

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Questions 42

What can assessors do when a risk is in the state of Assess on a classic risk assessment?

Choose 2 answers

Options:

A.

set the risk to Monitor

B.

Delete the ns <</p>

C.

Deactivate the risk

D.

Answer the assessment

E.

set the risk back to Draft

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Questions 43

What types of tasks are specific to the Audit module? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Control Attestation

B.

Interview

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Control Test

E.

Activity

F.

Remediation

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Questions 44

On which records is the entity a required field? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Control

C.

Policy

D.

Control objective

E.

Risk statement

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Questions 45

Which of the following roles can create a policy? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Audit User

B.

Compliance User

C.

Compliance Manager

D.

Risk User

E.

Compliance Reader

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Questions 46

Which filter navigation syntax displays the table in list view within a separate browser tab?

Options:

A.

Tablename_LIST

B.

Tablename.list

C.

Tablename.LIST

D.

Tablename.List

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Questions 47

For a particular risk assessment methodology (RAM), the control effectiveness score is calculated based on an individual assessment of controls. What are options for control identification? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Controls are identified from library and ad-hoc

B.

Controls are identified from indicator results

C.

Controls are identified from library

D.

Controls are identified ad-hoc

E.

Controls are identified from related issues

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Questions 48

Which state is the policy in after being approved by all approvers?

Options:

A.

Retired

B.

Awaiting Approval

C.

Draft

D.

Published

E.

Review

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Questions 49

Which of the following is the correct statement about Risk Scoring formulas?

Options:

A.

SLE × ARO = ALE

B.

ALE × ARO = Compliance Score

C.

ALE × ARO = SLE

D.

Impact × Urgency = ALE

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Exam Code: CIS-RCI
Exam Name: Certified Implementation Specialist - Risk and Compliance
Last Update: May 26, 2026
Questions: 165

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