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CISM Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Questions 4

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

perform a risk assessment.

B.

review the state of security awareness.

C.

review information security policies.

D.

perform a gap analysis.

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Questions 5

An organization is increasingly using Software as a Service (SaaS) to replace in-house hosting and support of IT applications. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to help ensure procurement decisions consider information security concerns?

Options:

A.

Integrate information security risk assessments into the procurement process.

B.

Provide regular information security training to the procurement team.

C.

Invite IT members into regular procurement team meetings to influence best practice.

D.

Enforce the right to audit in procurement contracts with SaaS vendors.

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Questions 6

Which of the following will BEST facilitate the integration of information security governance into enterprise governance?

Options:

A.

Developing an information security policy based on risk assessments

B.

Establishing an information security steering committee

C.

Documenting the information security governance framework

D.

Implementing an information security awareness program

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Questions 7

When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared:

Options:

A.

widely to demonstrate positive intent.

B.

only with management.

C.

only as needed,

D.

only with internal audit.

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Questions 8

Which of the following processes BEST supports the evaluation of incident response effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Post-incident review

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Incident logging

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Questions 9

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

Options:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

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Questions 10

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

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Questions 11

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a post-incident review following a data breach?

Options:

A.

An evaluation of the effectiveness of the information security strategy

B.

Evaluations of the adequacy of existing controls

C.

Documentation of regulatory reporting requirements

D.

A review of the forensics chain of custom

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Questions 12

An organization plans to offer clients a new service that is subject to regulations. What should the organization do FIRST when developing a security strategy in support of this new service?

Options:

A.

Determine security controls for the new service.

B.

Establish a compliance program,

C.

Perform a gap analysis against the current state

D.

Hire new resources to support the service.

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Questions 13

Which of the following MUST happen immediately following the identification of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Recovery

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

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Questions 14

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

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Questions 15

Which of the following is the BEST approach to make strategic information security decisions?

Options:

A.

Establish regular information security status reporting.

B.

Establish an information security steering committee.

C.

Establish business unit security working groups.

D.

Establish periodic senior management meetings.

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Questions 16

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an information security manager in a software development project?

Options:

A.

To enhance awareness for secure software design

B.

To assess and approve the security application architecture

C.

To identify noncompliance in the early design stage

D.

To identify software security weaknesses

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Questions 17

An incident management team is alerted to a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

B.

fallow the incident response plan

C.

notify the business process owner.

D.

fallow the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Questions 18

In order to understand an organization's security posture, it is MOST important for an organization's senior leadership to:

Options:

A.

evaluate results of the most recent incident response test.

B.

review the number of reported security incidents.

C.

ensure established security metrics are reported.

D.

assess progress of risk mitigation efforts.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

Options:

A.

Defining information stewardship roles

B.

Defining security asset categorization

C.

Assigning information asset ownership

D.

Developing a records retention schedule

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Questions 20

Which of the following BEST ensures timely and reliable access to services?

Options:

A.

Nonrepudiation

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 21

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to conduct interviews as part of the business impact analysis (BIA) process?

Options:

A.

To facilitate a qualitative risk assessment following the BIA

B.

To increase awareness of information security among key stakeholders

C.

To ensure the stakeholders providing input own the related risk

D.

To obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as possible

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Questions 22

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular reviews of the cybersecurity threat landscape?

Options:

A.

To compare emerging trends with the existing organizational security posture

B.

To communicate worst-case scenarios to senior management

C.

To train information security professionals to mitigate new threats

D.

To determine opportunities for expanding organizational information security

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Questions 23

Which of the following is MOST effective in monitoring an organization's existing risk?

Options:

A.

Periodic updates to risk register

B.

Risk management dashboards

C.

Security information and event management (SIEM) systems

D.

Vulnerability assessment results

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Questions 24

Penetration testing is MOST appropriate when a:

Options:

A.

new system is about to go live.

B.

new system is being designed.

C.

security policy is being developed.

D.

security incident has occurred,

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Questions 25

Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve compliance with new global regulations related to the protection of personal information?

Options:

A.

Execute a risk treatment plan.

B.

Review contracts and statements of work (SOWs) with vendors.

C.

Implement data regionalization controls.

D.

Determine current and desired state of controls.

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Questions 26

Management decisions concerning information security investments will be MOST effective when they are based on:

Options:

A.

a process for identifying and analyzing threats and vulnerabilities.

B.

an annual loss expectancy (ALE) determined from the history of security events,

C.

the reporting of consistent and periodic assessments of risks.

D.

the formalized acceptance of risk analysis by management,

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Questions 27

The MOST appropriate time to conduct a disaster recovery test would be after:

Options:

A.

major business processes have been redesigned.

B.

the business continuity plan (BCP) has been updated.

C.

the security risk profile has been reviewed

D.

noncompliance incidents have been filed.

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Questions 28

Which of the following is the BEST method to protect against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

Options:

A.

Providing ongoing training to the incident response team

B.

Implementing proactive systems monitoring

C.

Implementing a honeypot environment

D.

Updating information security awareness materials

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Questions 29

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 30

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

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Questions 31

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when aligning a security awareness program with the organization's business strategy?

Options:

A.

Regulations and standards

B.

People and culture

C.

Executive and board directives

D.

Processes and technology

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Questions 32

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Compatibility with legacy systems

B.

Application of corporate hardening standards

C.

Integration with existing access controls

D.

Unknown vulnerabilities

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Questions 33

An organization recently outsourced the development of a mission-critical business application. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test for the existence of backdoors?

Options:

A.

Scan the entire application using a vulnerability scanning tool.

B.

Run the application from a high-privileged account on a test system.

C.

Perform security code reviews on the entire application.

D.

Monitor Internet traffic for sensitive information leakage.

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Questions 34

Which of the following is a desired outcome of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Improved risk management

C.

Business agility

D.

A maturity model

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Questions 35

Which of the following risk scenarios is MOST likely to emerge from a supply chain attack?

Options:

A.

Compromise of critical assets via third-party resources

B.

Unavailability of services provided by a supplier

C.

Loss of customers due to unavailability of products

D.

Unreliable delivery of hardware and software resources by a supplier

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Questions 36

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

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Questions 37

Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Conduct a compliance review.

B.

Assign accountability.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Create a business case.

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Questions 38

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to ensure information security is aligned with the organization's strategy?

Options:

A.

To identify the organization's risk tolerance

B.

To improve security processes

C.

To align security roles and responsibilities

D.

To optimize security risk management

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Questions 39

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing a new data protection program that must comply with applicable data privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate privacy technologies required for data protection.

B.

Encrypt all personal data stored on systems and networks.

C.

Update disciplinary processes to address privacy violations.

D.

Create an inventory of systems where personal data is stored.

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Questions 40

Due to changes in an organization's environment, security controls may no longer be adequate. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the previous risk assessment and countermeasures.

B.

Perform a new risk assessment,

C.

Evaluate countermeasures to mitigate new risks.

D.

Transfer the new risk to a third party.

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Questions 41

Which of the following BEST ensures information security governance is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

A security steering committee including IT representation

B.

A consistent risk management approach

C.

An information security risk register

D.

Integration of security reporting into corporate reporting

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Questions 42

When deciding to move to a cloud-based model, the FIRST consideration should be:

Options:

A.

storage in a shared environment.

B.

availability of the data.

C.

data classification.

D.

physical location of the data.

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Questions 43

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Including all business units in testing

B.

Simulating realistic test scenarios

C.

Reviewing test results quarterly

D.

Testing after major business changes

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Questions 44

An organization has received complaints from users that some of their files have been encrypted. These users are receiving demands for money to decrypt the files. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an impact assessment.

B.

Isolate the affected systems.

C.

Rebuild the affected systems.

D.

Initiate incident response.

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Questions 45

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk metrics

B.

Training on risk management procedures

C.

Reporting on documented deficiencies

D.

Assigning a risk owner

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Questions 46

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for an organization to consider when defining incident classification and categorization levels?

Options:

A.

Maturity of incident response activities

B.

Threat environment

C.

Quantity of impacted assets

D.

Incident impact

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Questions 47

Which of the following is the BEST approach for managing user access permissions to ensure alignment with data classification?

Options:

A.

Enable multi-factor authentication on user and admin accounts.

B.

Review access permissions annually or whenever job responsibilities change

C.

Lock out accounts after a set number of unsuccessful login attempts.

D.

Delegate the management of access permissions to an independent third party.

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Questions 48

An information security team has discovered that users are sharing a login account to an application with sensitive information, in violation of the access policy. Business management indicates that the practice creates operational efficiencies. What is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Enforce the policy.

B.

Modify the policy.

C.

Present the risk to senior management.

D.

Create an exception for the deviation.

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Questions 49

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST recommendation to senior management following a breach at the organization's Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Update the vendor risk assessment.

B.

Engage legal counsel.

C.

Renegotiate the vendor contract.

D.

Terminate the relationship with the vendor.

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Questions 50

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a forensic investigation?

Options:

A.

Analyzing system memory

B.

Documenting analysis steps

C.

Capturing full system images

D.

Maintaining a chain of custody

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Questions 51

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective information security metric?

Options:

A.

The metric expresses residual risk relative to risk tolerance.

B.

The metric is frequently reported to senior management.

C.

The metric directly maps to an industry risk management framework.

D.

The metric compares the organization's inherent risk against its risk appetite.

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Questions 52

The PRIMARY purpose of implementing information security governance metrics is to:

Options:

A.

measure alignment with best practices.

B.

assess operational and program metrics.

C.

guide security towards the desired state.

D.

refine control operations.

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Questions 53

An information security manager is working to incorporate media communication procedures into the security incident communication plan. It would be MOST important to include:

Options:

A.

a directory of approved local media contacts

B.

pre-prepared media statements

C.

procedures to contact law enforcement

D.

a single point of contact within the organization

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Questions 54

A multinational organization is introducing a security governance framework. The information security manager's concern is that regional security practices differ. Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST?

Options:

A.

Local regulatory requirements

B.

Global framework standards

C.

Cross-border data mobility

D.

Training requirements of the framework

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Questions 55

Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to include when presenting changes in the security risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Security training test results

C.

Performance measures for existing controls

D.

Number of false positives

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Questions 56

Which type of plan is PRIMARILY intended to reduce the potential impact of security events that may occur?

Options:

A.

Security awareness plan

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Incident response plan

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Questions 57

An organization has decided to outsource IT operations. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Security requirements are included in the vendor contract

B.

External security audit results are reviewed.

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs) meet operational standards.

D.

Business continuity contingency planning is provided

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Questions 58

An information security manager learns of a new standard related to an emerging technology the organization wants to implement. Which of the following should the information security manager recommend be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the organization can benefit from adopting the new standard.

B.

Obtain legal counsel's opinion on the standard's applicability to regulations,

C.

Perform a risk assessment on the new technology.

D.

Review industry specialists’ analyses of the new standard.

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Questions 59

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is not co-mingled or exposed when using a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Obtain an independent audit report.

B.

Require the provider to follow stringent data classification procedures.

C.

Include high penalties for security breaches in the contract.

D.

Review the provider's information security policies.

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Questions 60

Which of the following BEST indicates the organizational benefit of an information security solution?

Options:

A.

Cost savings the solution brings to the information security department

B.

Reduced security training requirements

C.

Alignment to security threats and risks

D.

Costs and benefits of the solution calculated over time

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Questions 61

Which of the following BEST describes a buffer overflow?

Options:

A.

A function is carried out with more data than the function can handle

B.

A program contains a hidden and unintended function that presents a security risk

C.

Malicious code designed to interfere with normal operations

D.

A type of covert channel that captures data

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Questions 62

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when choosing a shared alternate location for computing facilities?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organization's mission

C.

Resource availability

D.

Incident response team training

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Questions 63

Which type of policy BEST helps to ensure that all employees, contractors, and third-party users receive formal communication regarding an organization’s security program?

Options:

A.

Management review policy

B.

Business continuity management policy

C.

Information security training policy

D.

Security incident management policy

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Questions 64

Management of a financial institution accepted an operational risk that consequently led to the temporary deactivation to a critical monitoring process. Which of the following should be the information security manager's GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Impact on compliance risk.

B.

Inability to determine short-term impact.

C.

Impact on the risk culture.

D.

Deviation from risk management best practices

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Questions 65

Senior management wants to thoroughly test a disaster recovery plan (DRP) for a mission-critical system. Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable results?

Options:

A.

Full interruption test

B.

Parallel test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Structured walk-through

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Questions 66

Information security policies should PRIMARILY reflect alignment with:

Options:

A.

an information security framework.

B.

industry best practices.

C.

data security standards.

D.

senior management intent.

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Questions 67

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain organization-wide support for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Mandate regular security awareness training.

B.

Develop security performance metrics.

C.

Position security as a business enabler.

D.

Prioritize security initiatives based on IT strategy.

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Questions 68

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the criticality of an organization's business functions?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Security assessment report (SAR)

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Questions 69

Which of the following would BEST guide the development and maintenance of an information security program?

Options:

A.

A business impact assessment

B.

A comprehensive risk register

C.

An established risk assessment process

D.

The organization's risk appetite

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Questions 70

Which of the following would be the GREATEST obstacle to implementing incident notification and escalation processes in an organization with high turnover?

Options:

A.

Lack of knowledgeable personnel

B.

Lack of communication processes

C.

Lack of process documentation

D.

Lack of alignment with organizational goals

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Questions 71

Which of the following eradication methods is MOST appropriate when responding to an incident resulting in malware on an application server?

Options:

A.

Disconnect the system from the network.

B.

Change passwords on the compromised system.

C.

Restore the system from a known good backup.

D.

Perform operation system hardening.

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Questions 72

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an organization with immature incident detection capabilities?

Options:

A.

Performing penetration testing

B.

Improving user awareness

C.

Installing new firewalls

D.

Updating security policies

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Questions 73

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in patch management procedures when receiving an emergency security patch?

Options:

A.

Schedule patching based on the criticality.

B.

Install the patch immediately to eliminate the vulnerability.

C.

Conduct comprehensive testing of the patch.

D.

Validate the authenticity of the patch.

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Questions 74

Which of the following BEST indicates that an information security governance framework has been successfully implemented?

Options:

A.

The framework aligns internal and external resources.

B.

The framework aligns security processes with industry best practices.

C.

The framework aligns management and other functions within the security organization.

D.

The framework includes commercial off-the-shelf security solutions.

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Questions 75

Detailed business continuity plans (BCPs) should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

strategies validated by senior management.

B.

capabilities of available local vendors.

C.

strategies that cover all applications.

D.

cost and resources needed to execute.

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Questions 76

An information security manager has learned of an increasing trend in attacks that use phishing emails impersonating an organization's CEO in an attempt to commit wire transfer fraud. Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with this type of attack?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend wire transfers for the organization.

B.

Provide awareness training to the CEO for this type of phishing attack.

C.

Provide awareness training to staff responsible for wire transfers.

D.

Disable emails for staff responsible for wire transfers.

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Questions 77

An organization is leveraging tablets to replace desktop computers shared by shift-based staff These tablets contain critical business data and are inherently at increased risk of theft Which of the following will BEST help to mitigate this risk''

Options:

A.

Deploy mobile device management (MDM)

B.

Implement remote wipe capability.

C.

Create an acceptable use policy.

D.

Conduct a mobile device risk assessment

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Questions 78

A software vendor has announced a zero-day vulnerability that exposes an organization's critical business systems. The vendor has released an emergency patch. Which of the following should be the information security managers PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Ability to test the patch prior to deployment

B.

Documentation of patching procedures

C.

Adequacy of the incident response plan

D.

Availability of resources to implement controls

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Questions 79

A recent audit found that an organization's new user accounts are not set up uniformly. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to review?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

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Questions 80

Which of the following is PRIMARILY influenced by a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

IT strategy

B.

Recovery strategy

C.

Risk mitigation strategy

D.

Security strategy

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Questions 81

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Limiting the number of KRIs

B.

Comprehensively reporting on KRIs

C.

Aggregating common KRIs

D.

Linking KRIs to specific risks

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Questions 82

Who is accountable for ensuring proper controls are in place to address the confidentiality and availability of an information system?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Information owner

C.

Business manager

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 83

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Identify mitigating controls.

B.

Assess the costs of the incident.

C.

Perform root cause analysis.

D.

Assign responsibility for corrective actions.

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Questions 84

Which of the following is the PRIMARY impact of organizational culture on the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

The culture shapes behaviors toward information security.

B.

The culture defines responsibilities necessary for program implementation.

C.

The culture helps determine budget for information security controls.

D.

The culture has minimal impact as long as information security controls are adhered to.

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Questions 85

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when performing triage of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Containing the affected system

B.

Preserving the forensic image

C.

Comparing backup against production

D.

Removing the malware

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Questions 86

For the information security manager, integrating the various assurance functions of an organization is important PRIMARILY to enable:

Options:

A.

consistent security.

B.

comprehensive audits

C.

a security-aware culture

D.

compliance with policy

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Questions 87

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Review information security policies

D.

Review the state of security awareness

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Questions 88

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk is treated to an acceptable level.

B.

The number of security incidents reported by staff has increased.

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are established.

D.

Policies are reviewed and approved by senior management.

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Questions 89

The MOST important element in achieving executive commitment to an information security governance program is:

Options:

A.

a defined security framework.

B.

a process improvement model

C.

established security strategies.

D.

identified business drivers.

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Questions 90

An information security team must obtain approval from the information security steering committee to implement a key control. Which of the following is the MOST important input to assist the committee in making this decision?

Options:

A.

IT strategy

B.

Security architecture

C.

Business case

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 91

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of using AI tools in security operations?

Options:

A.

Defined risk tolerance

B.

Reduced time and effort required to patch systems

C.

Prioritized vulnerabilities

D.

Rapid detection and response to threats

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Questions 92

Which of the following would MOST effectively ensure that a new server is appropriately secured?

Options:

A.

Performing secure code reviews

B.

Enforcing technical security standards

C.

Conducting penetration testing

D.

Initiating security scanning

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Questions 93

While conducting a test of a business continuity plan (BCP), which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

The test is scheduled to reduce operational impact.

B.

The test involves IT members in the test process.

C.

The test addresses the critical components.

D.

The test simulates actual prime-time processing conditions.

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Questions 94

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus for an information security manager when reviewing access controls for data stored in an off-premise cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing and updating access controls in response to changes in organizational structure

B.

Implementing strong password policies and enforcing regular password changes

C.

Ensuring access is granted to only those individuals whose job functions require it

D.

Implementing strong encryption protocols to protect sensitive data

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Questions 95

Which of the following BEST provides an information security manager with sufficient assurance that a service provider complies with the organization's information security requirements?

Options:

A.

Alive demonstration of the third-party supplier's security capabilities

B.

The ability to i third-party supplier's IT systems and processes

C.

Third-party security control self-assessment (CSA) results

D.

An independent review report indicating compliance with industry standards

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Questions 96

Which of the following BEST facilitates recovery of data lost as a result of a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Removable storage media

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Offsite data backups

D.

Encrypted data drives

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Questions 97

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to identify and contain security incidents?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat modeling

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Tabletop exercises

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Questions 98

Internal audit has reported a number of information security issues that are not in compliance with regulatory requirements. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment

B.

Perform a gap analysis to determine needed resources

C.

Create a security exception

D.

Assess the risk to business operations

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Questions 99

An organization has identified an increased threat of external brute force attacks in its environment. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk to the organization's critical systems?

Options:

A.

Implement multi-factor authentication.

B.

Increase the frequency of log monitoring and analysis.

C.

Implement a security information and event management system (SIEM),

D.

Increase the sensitivity of intrusion detection systems (IDSs).

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Questions 100

From a business perspective, the GREATEST benefit of an incident response plan is that it:

Options:

A.

Promotes efficiency by providing predefined response procedures

B.

Improves security responsiveness to disruptive events

C.

Limits the negative impact of disruptive events

D.

Ensures compliance with regulatory requirements

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Questions 101

A small organization has a contract with a multinational cloud computing vendor. Which of the following would present the GREATEST concern to an information security manager if omitted from the contract?

Options:

A.

Right of the subscriber to conduct onsite audits of the vendor

B.

Escrow of software code with conditions for code release

C.

Authority of the subscriber to approve access to its data

D.

Commingling of subscribers' data on the same physical server

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Questions 102

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action during the containment phase of a cyber incident response?

Options:

A.

Determine the final root cause of the incident.

B.

Remove all instances of the incident from the network.

C.

Mitigate exploited vulnerabilities to prevent future incidents.

D.

Isolate affected systems to prevent the spread of damage.

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Questions 103

The MOST effective tools for responding to new and advanced attacks are those that detect attacks based on:

Options:

A.

signature analysis.

B.

behavior analysis.

C.

penetration testing.

D.

data packet analysis.

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Questions 104

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for identifying security control gaps on an application server?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat models

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit reports

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Questions 105

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

To aid in future risk assessments

B.

To improve the response process

C.

To determine whether digital evidence is admissible

D.

To notify regulatory authorities

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Questions 106

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon confirming a privileged user's unauthorized modifications to a security application?

Options:

A.

Report the risk associated with the policy breach.

B.

Enforce the security configuration and require the change to be reverted.

C.

Implement compensating controls to address the risk.

D.

Implement a privileged access management system.

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Questions 107

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place for an organization's information security program to be effective?

Options:

A.

Documented information security processes

B.

A comprehensive IT strategy

C.

Senior management support

D.

Defined and allocated budget

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Questions 108

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine if an information security profile is aligned with business requirements?

Options:

A.

Review the key performance indicator (KPI) dashboard

B.

Review security-related key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Review control self-assessment (CSA) results

D.

Review periodic security audits

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Questions 109

A startup company deployed several new applications with vulnerabilities into production because security reviews were not conducted. What will BEST help to ensure effective application risk management going forward?

Options:

A.

Conduct automated scans on applications before deployment.

B.

Supplement existing development teams with security engineers.

C.

Integrate information security into existing change management.

D.

Create a new governance council for application security.

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Questions 110

Which of the following provides the MOST assurance that a third-party hosting provider will be able to meet availability requirements?

Options:

A.

Right-to-audit clause

B.

The third party's incident response plan

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

The third party's business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 111

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature information security program?

Options:

A.

Security incidents are managed properly.

B.

Security spending is below budget.

C.

Security resources are optimized.

D.

Security audit findings are reduced.

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Questions 112

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an information security manager identifies that systems are vulnerable to emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Frequently update systems and monitor the threat landscape.

B.

Monitor the network containing the affected systems for malicious traffic.

C.

Increase awareness of the threats among employees who work with the systems.

D.

Notify senior management and key stakeholders of the threats.

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Questions 113

Who is accountable for approving an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

The board of directors

B.

The chief information security officer (ClSO)

C.

The enterprise risk committee

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 114

To ensure that a new application complies with information security policy, the BEST approach is to:

Options:

A.

review the security of the application before implementation.

B.

integrate functionality the development stage.

C.

perform a vulnerability analysis.

D.

periodically audit the security of the application.

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Questions 115

Prior to implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

select mobile device management (MDM) software.

B.

survey employees for requested applications.

C.

develop an acceptable use policy.

D.

review currently utilized applications.

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Questions 116

An organization implemented a number of technical and administrative controls to mitigate risk associated with ransomware. Which of the following is MOST important to present to senior management when reporting on the performance of this initiative?

Options:

A.

The total cost of the investment

B.

The cost and associated risk reduction

C.

The number and severity of ransomware incidents

D.

Benchmarks of industry peers impacted by ransomware

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Questions 117

Which is MOST important to identify when developing an effective information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Security awareness training needs

B.

Potential savings resulting from security governance

C.

Business assets to be secured

D.

Residual risk levels

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Questions 118

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to enhance its incident response plan processes and procedures?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessments

B.

Lessons learned analysis

C.

Information security audits

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 119

Of the following, who would provide the MOST relevant input when aligning the information security strategy with organizational goals?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk committee

B.

Information security steering committee

C.

Data privacy officer (DPO)

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

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Questions 120

The ULTIMATE responsibility for ensuring the objectives of an information security framework are being met belongs to:

Options:

A.

)the information security officer.

B.

the steering committee.

C.

the board of directors.

D.

the internal audit manager.

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Questions 121

A data discovery project uncovers an unclassified process document. Of the following, who is BEST suited to determine the classification?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Security policy author

C.

Creator of the document

D.

Data custodian

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Questions 122

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an emerging incident?

Options:

A.

A weakness identified within an organization's information systems

B.

Customer complaints about lack of website availability

C.

A recent security incident at an industry competitor

D.

Attempted patching of systems resulting in errors

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Questions 123

An organization is planning to outsource network management to a service provider. Including which of the following in the contract would be the MOST effective way to mitigate information security risk?

Options:

A.

Requirement for regular information security awareness

B.

Right-to-audit clause

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Requirement to comply with corporate security policy

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Questions 124

In a call center, the BEST reason to conduct a social engineering is to:

Options:

A.

Identify candidates for additional security training.

B.

minimize the likelihood of successful attacks.

C.

gain funding for information security initiatives.

D.

improve password policy.

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Questions 125

When determining an acceptable risk level which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

Threat profiles

B.

System criticalities

C.

Vulnerability scores

D.

Risk matrices

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Questions 126

Which of the following events is MOST likely to require an organization to revisit its information security framework?

Options:

A.

New services offered by IT

B.

Changes to the risk landscape

C.

A recent cybersecurity attack

D.

A new technology implemented

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Questions 127

Which of the following BEST enables an incident response team to determine appropriate actions during an initial investigation?

Options:

A.

Feedback from affected departments

B.

Historical data from past incidents

C.

Technical capabilities of the team

D.

Procedures for incident triage

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Questions 128

Predetermined containment methods to be used in a cybersecurity incident response should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

number of impacted users.

B.

capability of incident handlers.

C.

type of confirmed incident.

D.

predicted incident duration.

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Questions 129

Which of the following BEST illustrates residual risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Balanced scorecard

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Questions 130

Which of the following activities is MOST appropriate to conduct during the eradication phase of a cyber incident response?

Options:

A.

Restore affected systems for normal operations.

B.

Mitigate exploited vulnerabilities to stop future incidents.

C.

Estimate the amount of damage caused by the incident.

D.

Isolate affected systems to prevent further damage

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Questions 131

Which type of backup BEST enables an organization to recover data after a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Online backup

B.

Incremental backup

C.

Differential backup

D.

Offline backup

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Questions 132

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to continuously assess the information security risk posture?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Periodic review of the risk register

C.

Degree of senior management support

D.

Compliance with industry regulations

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Questions 133

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

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Questions 134

Which of the following provides the BEST indication of the return on information security investment?

Options:

A.

Increased annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Increased number of reported incidents

C.

Reduced annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Decreased number of reported incidents

Buy Now
Questions 135

An information security manager is assisting in the development of the request for proposal (RFP) for a new outsourced service. This will require the third party to have access to critical business information. The security manager should focus PRIMARILY on defining:

Options:

A.

service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

security requirements for the process being outsourced.

C.

risk-reporting methodologies.

D.

security metrics

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Questions 136

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the recovery of critical systems and data following a ransomware incident?

Options:

A.

Lack of encryption for backup data in transit

B.

Undefined or undocumented backup retention policies

C.

Ineffective alert configurations for backup operations

D.

Unavailable or corrupt data backups

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Questions 137

Which of the following defines the triggers within a business continuity plan (BCP)? @

Options:

A.

Needs of the organization

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Information security policy

D.

Gap analysis

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Questions 138

An organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) is documented and kept at a disaster recovery site. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the plan can be carried out in an emergency?

Options:

A.

Store disaster recovery documentation in a public cloud.

B.

Maintain an outsourced contact center in another country.

C.

Require disaster recovery documentation be stored with all key decision makers.

D.

Provide annual disaster recovery training to appropriate staff.

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Questions 139

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of including incident classification criteria within an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Ability to monitor and control incident management costs

B.

More visibility to the impact of disruptions

C.

Effective protection of information assets

D.

Optimized allocation of recovery resources

Buy Now
Questions 140

Which of the following would BEST enable the timely execution of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The introduction of a decision support tool

B.

Definition of trigger events

C.

Clearly defined data classification process

D.

Centralized service desk

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Questions 141

To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective its contents should be

Options:

A.

focused on information security policy.

B.

aligned to business processes

C.

based on employees' roles

D.

based on recent incidents

Buy Now
Questions 142

Which of the following events would MOST likely require a revision to the information security program?

Options:

A.

An increase in industry threat level .

B.

A significant increase in reported incidents

C.

A change in IT management

D.

A merger with another organization

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Questions 143

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organizational structure

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Information security awareness

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Questions 144

Data entry functions for a web-based application have been outsourced to a third-party service provider who will work from a remote site Which of the following issues would be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager?

Options:

A.

The application does not use a secure communications protocol

B.

The application is configured with restrictive access controls

C.

The business process has only one level of error checking

D.

Server-based malware protection is not enforced

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Questions 145

A newly appointed information security manager of a retailer with multiple stores discovers an HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) vendor has remote access to the stores to enable real-time monitoring and equipment diagnostics. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a penetration test of the vendor.

B.

Review the vendor's technical security controls

C.

Review the vendor contract

D.

Disconnect the real-time access

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Questions 146

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security manager in an organization that is implementing the use of company-owned mobile devices in its operations?

Options:

A.

Require remote wipe capabilities for devices.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Review and update existing security policies.

D.

Enforce passwords and data encryption on the devices.

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Questions 147

The BEST way to ensure that frequently encountered incidents are reflected in the user security awareness training program is to include:

Options:

A.

results of exit interviews.

B.

previous training sessions.

C.

examples of help desk requests.

D.

responses to security questionnaires.

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Questions 148

An organization's HR department requires that employee account privileges be removed from all corporate IT systems within three days of termination to comply with a government regulation However, the systems all have different user directories, and it currently takes up to four weeks to remove the privileges Which of the following would BEST enable regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) system

B.

Identity and access management (IAM) system

C.

Privileged access management (PAM) system

D.

Governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system

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Questions 149

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when defining a recovery strategy in a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Legal and regulatory requirements

B.

Likelihood of a disaster

C.

Organizational tolerance to service interruption

D.

Geographical location of the backup site

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Questions 150

Implementing the principle of least privilege PRIMARILY requires the identification of:

Options:

A.

job duties

B.

data owners

C.

primary risk factors.

D.

authentication controls

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Questions 151

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of a recent information security awareness campaign delivered across the organization?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the number of security incidents

B.

Increase in the frequency of security incident escalations

C.

Reduction in the impact of security incidents

D.

Increase in the number of reported security incidents

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Questions 152

Prior to conducting a forensic examination, an information security manager should:

Options:

A.

boot the original hard disk on a clean system.

B.

create an image of the original data on new media.

C.

duplicate data from the backup media.

D.

shut down and relocate the server.

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Questions 153

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

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Questions 154

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the inherent risk of an information asset?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Net present value (NPV)

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Business criticality

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Questions 155

An organization is creating a risk mitigation plan that considers redundant power supplies to reduce the business risk associated with critical system outages. Which type of control is being considered?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Corrective

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Questions 156

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

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Questions 157

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to transform its culture to support information security?

Options:

A.

Periodic compliance audits

B.

Strong management support

C.

Robust technical security controls

D.

Incentives for security incident reporting

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Questions 158

To support effective risk decision making, which of the following is MOST important to have in place?

Options:

A.

Established risk domains

B.

Risk reporting procedures

C.

An audit committee consisting of mid-level management

D.

Well-defined and approved controls

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Questions 159

Which of the following has The GREATEST positive impact on The ability to execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Storing the plan at an offsite location

B.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

C.

Updating the plan periodically

D.

Conducting a walk-through of the plan

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Questions 160

A Seat a-hosting organization's data center houses servers, appli

BEST approach for developing a physical access control policy for the organization?

Options:

A.

Review customers’ security policies.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine security risks and mitigating controls.

C.

Develop access control requirements for each system and application.

D.

Design single sign-on (SSO) or federated access.

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Questions 161

Which of the following factors has the GREATEST influence on the successful implementation of information security strategy goals?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Compliance acceptance

C.

Management support

D.

Budgetary approval

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Questions 162

Which of the following backup methods requires the MOST time to restore data for an application?

Options:

A.

Full backup

B.

Incremental

C.

Differential

D.

Disk mirroring

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Questions 163

Which of the following is MOST important to include in monthly information security reports to the board?

Options:

A.

Trend analysis of security metrics

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Root cause analysis of security incidents

D.

Threat intelligence

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Questions 164

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

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Questions 165

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager's efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

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Questions 166

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Provide a baseline for optimizing the security profile of the organization.

B.

Demonstrate senior management commitment.

C.

Demonstrate compliance with industry best practices to external stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that users comply with the organization's information security policies.

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Questions 167

Which of the following is the BEST tool to monitor the effectiveness of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Balanced scorecard

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Risk profile

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Questions 168

Which of the following is the responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plan activities with control owners

B.

Evaluating control effectiveness

C.

Approving risk treatment plans

D.

Approving the selection of risk mitigation measures

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Questions 169

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider?

Options:

A.

Existence of a right-to-audit clause

B.

Results of the provider's business continuity tests

C.

Technical capabilities of the provider

D.

Existence of the provider's incident response plan

Buy Now
Questions 170

Which of the following change management procedures is MOST likely to cause concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Fallback processes are tested the weekend before changes are made

B.

Users are not notified of scheduled system changes

C.

A manual rather than an automated process is used to compare program versions.

D.

The development manager migrates programs into production

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Questions 171

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should be responsible for determining the initial recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

External consultant

B.

Information owners

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business continuity coordinator

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Questions 172

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

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Questions 173

An organization is aligning its incident response capability with a public cloud service provider. What should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify the skill set of the provider's incident response team.

B.

Evaluate the provider's audit logging and monitoring controls.

C.

Review the provider’s incident definitions and notification criteria.

D.

Update the incident escalation process.

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Questions 174

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of incident triage?

Options:

A.

Coordination of communications

B.

Mitigation of vulnerabilities

C.

Categorization of events

D.

Containment of threats

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Questions 175

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are BEST determined by:

Options:

A.

business managers

B.

business continuity officers

C.

executive management

D.

database administrators (DBAs).

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Questions 176

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

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Questions 177

Which of the following is MOST effective for communicating forward-looking trends within security reporting?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCIs)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key goal indicators (KGIs)

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Questions 178

A multinational organization is required to follow governmental regulations with different security requirements at each of its operating locations. The chief information security officer (CISO) should be MOST concerned with:

Options:

A.

developing a security program that meets global and regional requirements.

B.

ensuring effective communication with local regulatory bodies.

C.

using industry best practice to meet local legal regulatory requirements.

D.

monitoring compliance with defined security policies and standards.

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Questions 179

The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:

Options:

A.

increase efficiency of access management

B.

increase the security of related applications.

C.

strengthen user passwords.

D.

support multiple authentication mechanisms.

Buy Now
Questions 180

Which of the following will provide the MOST guidance when deciding the level of protection for an information asset?

Options:

A.

Impact on information security program

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Impact to business function

D.

Cost to replace

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Questions 181

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a newly introduced privacy regulation affects the business?

Options:

A.

Consult with IT staff and assess the risk based on their recommendations

B.

Update the security policy based on the regulatory requirements

C.

Propose relevant controls to ensure the business complies with the regulation

D.

Identify and assess the risk in the context of business objectives

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Questions 182

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to prevent information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool

B.

Implementing a security awareness training program for employees

C.

Deploying a consistent incident response approach

D.

Deploying intrusion detection tools in the network environment

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Questions 183

An organization faces severe fines and penalties if not in compliance with local regulatory requirements by an established deadline. Senior management has asked the information security manager to prepare an action plan to achieve compliance.

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for planning purposes? »

Options:

A.

Results from a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Deadlines and penalties for noncompliance

C.

Results from a gap analysis

D.

An inventory of security controls currently in place

Buy Now
Questions 184

Which of the following is the GREATEST value provided by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a repository base of security policies

B.

Measuring impact of exploits on business processes

C.

Facilitating the monitoring of risk occurrences

D.

Redirecting event logs to an alternate location for business continuity plan

Buy Now
Questions 185

Which of the following is MOST important to convey to employees in building a security risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Personal information requires different security controls than sensitive information.

B.

Employee access should be based on the principle of least privilege.

C.

Understanding an information asset's value is critical to risk management.

D.

The responsibility for security rests with all employees.

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Questions 186

A risk assessment exercise has identified the threat of a denial of service (DoS) attack Executive management has decided to take no further action related to this risk. The MO ST likely reason for this decision is

Options:

A.

the risk assessment has not defined the likelihood of occurrence

B.

the reported vulnerability has not been validated

C.

executive management is not aware of the impact potential

D.

the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential financial losses.

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Questions 187

Which of the following analyses will BEST identify the external influences to an organization's information security?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Gap analysis

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Questions 188

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

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Questions 189

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

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Questions 190

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Determine acceptable levels of information security risk

B.

Create a roadmap to identify security baselines and controls

C.

Perform a gap analysis based on the current state

D.

Identify key stakeholders to champion information security

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Questions 191

A common drawback of email software packages that provide native encryption of messages is that the encryption:

Options:

A.

cannot encrypt attachments

B.

cannot interoperate across product domains.

C.

has an insufficient key length.

D.

has no key-recovery mechanism.

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Questions 192

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

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Questions 193

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 194

Which of the following documents should contain the INITIAL prioritization of recovery of services?

Options:

A.

IT risk analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Business process map

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Questions 195

Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective information security governance?

Options:

A.

Information security is considered the responsibility of the entire information security team.

B.

Information security controls are assigned to risk owners.

C.

Information security is integrated into corporate governance.

D.

Information security governance is based on an external security framework.

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Questions 196

Reevaluation of risk is MOST critical when there is:

Options:

A.

resistance to the implementation of mitigating controls.

B.

a management request for updated security reports.

C.

a change in security policy.

D.

a change in the threat landscape.

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Questions 197

When creating an incident response plan, the PRIMARY benefit of establishing a clear definition of a security incident is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

the incident response process to stakeholders

B.

adequately staff and train incident response teams.

C.

develop effective escalation and response procedures.

D.

make tabletop testing more effective.

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Questions 198

Due to specific application requirements, a project team has been granted administrative ponieon GR: is the PRIMARY reason for ensuring clearly defined roles and responsibilities are communicated to these users?

Options:

A.

Clearer segregation of duties

B.

Increased user productivity

C.

Increased accountability

D.

Fewer security incidents

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Questions 199

Which of the following is the BEST course of action if the business activity residual risk is lower than the acceptable risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor the effectiveness of controls

B.

Update the risk assessment framework

C.

Review the inherent risk level

D.

Review the risk probability and impact

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Questions 200

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure appropriate security controls are built into software?

Options:

A.

Integrating security throughout the development process

B.

Performing security testing prior to deployment

C.

Providing standards for implementation during development activities

D.

Providing security training to the software development team

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Questions 201

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a mandatory security standard hinders the achievement of an identified business objective?

Options:

A.

Revisit the business objective.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Recommend risk acceptance.

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Questions 202

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for obtaining input from risk owners when implementing controls?

Options:

A.

To reduce risk mitigation costs

B.

To resolve vulnerabilities in enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

To manage the risk to an acceptable level

D.

To eliminate threats impacting the business

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Questions 203

The PRIMARY purpose for continuous monitoring of security controls is to ensure:

Options:

A.

control gaps are minimized.

B.

system availability.

C.

effectiveness of controls.

D.

alignment with compliance requirements.

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Questions 204

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

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Questions 205

What should be an information security manager's MOST important consideration when developing a multi-year plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring contingency plans are in place for potential information security risks

B.

Ensuring alignment with the plans of other business units

C.

Allowing the information security program to expand its capabilities

D.

Demonstrating projected budget increases year after year

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Questions 206

Which of the following is the BEST indication of information security strategy alignment with the “&

Options:

A.

Percentage of information security incidents resolved within defined service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Percentage of corporate budget allocated to information security initiatives

C.

Number of business executives who have attended information security awareness sessions

D.

Number of business objectives directly supported by information security initiatives

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Questions 207

When collecting admissible evidence, which of the following is the MOST important requirement?

Options:

A.

Need to know

B.

Preserving audit logs

C.

Due diligence

D.

Chain of custody

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Questions 208

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

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Questions 209

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

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Questions 210

An organization plans to utilize Software as a Service (SaaS) and is in the process of selecting a vendor. What should the information security manager do FIRST to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Review independent security assessment reports for each vendor.

B.

Benchmark each vendor's services with industry best practices.

C.

Analyze the risks and propose mitigating controls.

D.

Define information security requirements and processes.

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Questions 211

During the initiation phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) for a software project, information security activities should address:

Options:

A.

baseline security controls.

B.

benchmarking security metrics.

C.

security objectives.

D.

cost-benefit analyses.

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Questions 212

To confirm that a third-party provider complies with an organization's information security requirements, it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

security metrics are included in the service level agreement (SLA).

B.

contract clauses comply with the organization's information security policy.

C.

the information security policy of the third-party service provider is reviewed.

D.

right to audit is included in the service level agreement (SLA).

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Questions 213

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure compliance with password standards?

Options:

A.

Implementing password-synchronization software

B.

Using password-cracking software

C.

Automated enforcement of password syntax rules

D.

A user-awareness program

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Questions 214

Which of the following BEST determines the allocation of resources during a security incident response?

Options:

A.

Senior management commitment

B.

A business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

An established escalation process

D.

Defined levels of severity

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Questions 215

The information security manager has been notified of a new vulnerability that affects key data processing systems within the organization Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management

B.

Re-evaluate the risk

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Ask the business owner for the new remediation plan

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Questions 216

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an online company discovers a network attack in progress?

Options:

A.

Dump all event logs to removable media

B.

Isolate the affected network segment

C.

Enable trace logging on ail events

D.

Shut off all network access points

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Questions 217

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify before conducting full-functional continuity testing?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance by the business has been documented

B.

Teams and individuals responsible for recovery have been identified

C.

Copies of recovery and incident response plans are kept offsite

D.

Incident response and recovery plans are documented in simple language

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Questions 218

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 219

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

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Questions 220

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's vision and mission

B.

Results of a comprehensive gap analysis

C.

Information security policies

D.

Audit and regulatory requirements

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Questions 221

An organization is in the process of acquiring a new company Which of the following would be the BEST approach to determine how to protect newly acquired data assets prior to integration?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract

B.

Assess security controls.

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Review data architecture.

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Questions 222

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

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Questions 223

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to key stakeholders regarding the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security metrics

B.

Security baselines

C.

Security incident details

D.

Security risk exposure

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Questions 224

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents

B.

identify vulnerabilities

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

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Questions 225

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

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Questions 226

Which of the following would be MOST effective in gaining senior management approval of security investments in network infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Performing penetration tests against the network to demonstrate business vulnerability

B.

Highlighting competitor performance regarding network best security practices

C.

Demonstrating that targeted security controls tie to business objectives

D.

Presenting comparable security implementation estimates from several vendors

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Questions 227

Which of the following activities is designed to handle a control failure that leads to a breach?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Incident management

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Vulnerability management

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Questions 228

A PRIMARY purpose of creating security policies is to:

Options:

A.

define allowable security boundaries.

B.

communicate management's security expectations.

C.

establish the way security tasks should be executed.

D.

implement management's security governance strategy.

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Questions 229

Which is the BEST method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required?

Options:

A.

Parallel test

B.

Full interruption test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Tabletop test

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Questions 230

Which of the following is MOST important in increasing the effectiveness of incident responders?

Options:

A.

Communicating with the management team

B.

Integrating staff with the IT department

C.

Testing response scenarios

D.

Reviewing the incident response plan annually

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Questions 231

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing an organization's information security governance committee?

Options:

A.

Members have knowledge of information security controls.

B.

Members are business risk owners.

C.

Members are rotated periodically.

D.

Members represent functions across the organization.

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Questions 232

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a threat intelligence report indicates a large number of ransomware attacks targeting the industry?

Options:

A.

Increase the frequency of system backups.

B.

Review the mitigating security controls.

C.

Notify staff members of the threat.

D.

Assess the risk to the organization.

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Questions 233

In which cloud model does the cloud service buyer assume the MOST security responsibility?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Questions 234

An organization is implementing an information security governance framework. To communicate the program's effectiveness to stakeholders, it is MOST important to establish:

Options:

A.

a control self-assessment (CSA) process.

B.

automated reporting to stakeholders.

C.

a monitoring process for the security policy.

D.

metrics for each milestone.

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Questions 235

A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

Options:

A.

The time and location that the breach occurred

B.

Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user

C.

The underlying reason for the user error

D.

Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

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Questions 236

Which of the following should be the FIRST step to gain approval for outsourcing to address a security gap?

Options:

A.

Collect additional metrics.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Submit funding request to senior management.

D.

Begin due diligence on the outsourcing company.

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Questions 237

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

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Questions 238

IT projects have gone over budget with too many security controls being added post-production. Which of the following would MOST help to ensure that relevant controls are applied to a project?

Options:

A.

Involving information security at each stage of project management

B.

Identifying responsibilities during the project business case analysis

C.

Creating a data classification framework and providing it to stakeholders

D.

Providing stakeholders with minimum information security requirements

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Questions 239

An organization has acquired a company in a foreign country to gain an advantage in a new market. Which of the following is the FIRST step the information security manager should take?

Options:

A.

Determine which country's information security regulations will be used.

B.

Merge the two existing information security programs.

C.

Apply the existing information security program to the acquired company.

D.

Evaluate the information security laws that apply to the acquired company.

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Questions 240

Which of the following would be MOST useful to a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with developing and implementing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The capabilities and expertise of the information security team

B.

The organization's mission statement and roadmap

C.

A prior successful information security strategy

D.

The organization's information technology (IT) strategy

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Questions 241

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs.

B.

are more objective than information security management.

C.

can see the overall impact to the business.

D.

can balance the technical and business risks.

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Questions 242

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing escalation procedures for an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Each process is assigned to a responsible party.

B.

The contact list is regularly updated.

C.

Minimum regulatory requirements are maintained.

D.

Senior management approval has been documented.

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Questions 243

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining asset valuation?

Options:

A.

Asset recovery cost

B.

Asset classification level

C.

Cost of insurance premiums

D.

Potential business loss

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Questions 244

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for an information security manager to align security and business goals?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Reviewing the business strategy

C.

Defining key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Actively engaging with stakeholders

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Questions 245

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to identify worst-case disruption scenarios?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business process analysis

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Cast-benefit analysis

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Questions 246

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The definition of an incident

B.

Compliance with regulations

C.

Management support

D.

Previously reported incidents

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Questions 247

Which of the following is the BEST approach for governing noncompliance with security requirements?

Options:

A.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on residual risk,

B.

Require users to acknowledge the acceptable use policy.

C.

Require the steering committee to review exception requests.

D.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on inherent risk.

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Questions 248

Which of the following will result in the MOST accurate controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Mature change management processes

B.

Senior management support

C.

Well-defined security policies

D.

Unannounced testing

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Questions 249

Which of the following BEST supports information security management in the event of organizational changes in security personnel?

Options:

A.

Formalizing a security strategy and program

B.

Developing an awareness program for staff

C.

Ensuring current documentation of security processes

D.

Establishing processes within the security operations team

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Questions 250

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of conducting an organization-wide security awareness program?

Options:

A.

The security strategy is promoted.

B.

Fewer security incidents are reported.

C.

Security behavior is improved.

D.

More security incidents are detected.

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Questions 251

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of the information security incident response process?

Options:

A.

Conducting incident triage

B.

Communicating with internal and external parties

C.

Minimizing negative impact to critical operations

D.

Classifying incidents

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Questions 252

Which of the following activities MUST be performed by an information security manager for change requests?

Options:

A.

Perform penetration testing on affected systems.

B.

Scan IT systems for operating system vulnerabilities.

C.

Review change in business requirements for information security.

D.

Assess impact on information security risk.

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Questions 253

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

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Questions 254

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

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Questions 255

An organization is going through a digital transformation process, which places the IT organization in an unfamiliar risk landscape. The information security manager has been tasked with leading the IT risk management process. Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority?

Options:

A.

Identification of risk

B.

Analysis of control gaps

C.

Design of key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Selection of risk treatment options

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Questions 256

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

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Questions 257

Which of the following is the MOST important factor of a successful information security program?

Options:

A.

The program follows industry best practices.

B.

The program is based on a well-developed strategy.

C.

The program is cost-efficient and within budget,

D.

The program is focused on risk management.

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Questions 258

An organization finds it necessary to quickly shift to a work-fromhome model with an increased need for remote access security.

Which of the following should be given immediate focus?

Options:

A.

Moving to a zero trust access model

B.

Enabling network-level authentication

C.

Enhancing cyber response capability

D.

Strengthening endpoint security

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Questions 259

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an inforrnation security manager contact the information owner? After the:

Options:

A.

incident has been confirmed.

B.

incident has been contained.

C.

potential incident has been logged.

D.

incident has been mitigated.

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Questions 260

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

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Questions 261

What should be the FIRST step when an Internet of Things (loT) device in an organization's network is confirmed to have been hacked?

Options:

A.

Monitor the network.

B.

Perform forensic analysis.

C.

Disconnect the device from the network,

D.

Escalate to the incident response team

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Questions 262

In a business proposal, a potential vendor promotes being certified for international security standards as a measure of its security capability.

Before relying on this certification, it is MOST important that the information security manager confirms that the:

Options:

A.

current international standard was used to assess security processes.

B.

certification will remain current through the life of the contract.

C.

certification scope is relevant to the service being offered.

D.

certification can be extended to cover the client's business.

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Questions 263

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when establishing information security policies for an organization?

Options:

A.

Job descriptions include requirements to read security policies.

B.

The policies are updated annually.

C.

Senior management supports the policies.

D.

The policies are aligned to industry best practices.

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Questions 264

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

Options:

A.

To alert on unacceptable risk

B.

To identify residual risk

C.

To reassess risk appetite

D.

To benchmark control performance

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Questions 265

An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

Options:

A.

isolate the affected network segment.

B.

report the root cause to the board of directors.

C.

assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.

D.

shut down the entire network.

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Questions 266

The MAIN benefit of implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution is to:

Options:

A.

enhance the organization's antivirus controls.

B.

eliminate the risk of data loss.

C.

complement the organization's detective controls.

D.

reduce the need for a security awareness program.

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Questions 267

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that security policies are applied across business operations?

Options:

A.

Organizational standards are included in awareness training.

B.

Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls.

C.

Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted.

D.

Organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.

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Questions 268

Reviewing which of the following would be MOST helpful when a new information security manager is developing an information security strategy for a non-regulated organization?

Options:

A.

Management's business goals and objectives

B.

Strategies of other non-regulated companies

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Industry best practices and control recommendations

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Questions 269

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

An increase in the frequency of phishing tests

B.

An increase in positive user feedback

C.

An increase in the speed of incident resolution

D.

An increase in the identification rate during phishing simulations

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Questions 270

Which of the following is the BEST indication ofa successful information security culture?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing is done regularly and findings remediated.

B.

End users know how to identify and report incidents.

C.

Individuals are given roles based on job functions.

D.

The budget allocated for information security is sufficient.

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Questions 271

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to determine the comprehensiveness of an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Internal security audit

B.

External security audit

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 272

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that some security hardening settings may negatively impact future business activity?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Reduce security hardening settings.

C.

Inform business management of the risk.

D.

Document a security exception.

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Jun 9, 2025
Questions: 910

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