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CISMP-V9 BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The policies, processes, practices, and tools used to align the business value of information with the most appropriate and cost-effective infrastructure from the time information is conceived through its final disposition.

Which of the below business practices does this statement define?

Options:

A.

Information Lifecycle Management.

B.

Information Quality Management.

C.

Total Quality Management.

D.

Business Continuity Management.

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Questions 5

Why have MOST European countries developed specific legislation that permits police and security services to monitor communications traffic for specific purposes, such as the detection of crime?

Options:

A.

Under the European Convention of Human Rights, the interception of telecommunications represents an interference with the right to privacy.

B.

GDPR overrides all previous legislation on information handling, so new laws were needed to ensure authorities did not inadvertently break the law.

C.

Police could previously intercept without lawful authority any communications in the course of transmission through a public post or telecoms system.

D.

Surveillance of a conversation or an online message by law enforcement agents was previously illegal due to the 1950 version of the Human Rights Convention.

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Questions 6

Which term describes the acknowledgement and acceptance of ownership of actions, decisions, policies and deliverables?

Options:

A.

Accountability.

B.

Responsibility.

C.

Credibility.

D.

Confidentiality.

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Questions 7

One traditional use of a SIEM appliance is to monitor for exceptions received via syslog.

What system from the following does NOT natively support syslog events?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Wireless Access Point.

B.

Windows Desktop Systems.

C.

Linux Web Server Appliances.

D.

Enterprise Stateful Firewall.

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Questions 8

When an organisation decides to operate on the public cloud, what does it lose?

Options:

A.

The right to audit and monitor access to its information.

B.

Control over Intellectual Property Rights relating to its applications.

C.

Physical access to the servers hosting its information.

D.

The ability to determine in which geographies the information is stored.

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Questions 9

Which of the following statements relating to digital signatures is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures are rarely legally enforceable even if the signers know they are signing a legal document.

B.

Digital signatures are valid and enforceable in law in most countries in the world.

C.

Digital signatures are legal unless there is a statutory requirement that predates the digital age.

D.

A digital signature that uses a signer’s private key is illegal.

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Questions 10

When securing a wireless network, which of the following is NOT best practice?

Options:

A.

Using WPA encryption on the wireless network.

B.

Use MAC tittering on a SOHO network with a smart group of clients.

C.

Dedicating an access point on a dedicated VLAN connected to a firewall.

D.

Turning on SSID broadcasts to advertise security levels.

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Questions 11

Which standards framework offers a set of IT Service Management best practices to assist organisations in aligning IT service delivery with business goals - including security goals?

Options:

A.

ITIL.

B.

SABSA.

C.

COBIT

D.

ISAGA.

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Questions 12

Which of the following is LEASTLIKELY to be the result of a global pandemic impacting on information security?

Options:

A.

A large increase in remote workers operating in insecure premises.

B.

Additional physical security requirements at data centres and corporate headquarters.

C.

Increased demand on service desks as users need additional tools such as VPNs.

D.

An upsurge in activity by attackers seeking vulnerabilities caused by operational changes.

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Questions 13

Which of the following statutory requirements are likely to be of relevance to all organisations no matter which sector nor geographical location they operate in?

Options:

A.

Sarbanes-Oxley.

B.

GDPR.

C.

HIPAA.

D.

FSA.

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Questions 14

When undertaking disaster recovery planning, which of the following would NEVER be considered a "natural" disaster?

Options:

A.

Arson.

B.

Electromagnetic pulse

C.

Tsunami.

D.

Lightning Strike

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Questions 15

Which of the following is NOT a valid statement to include in an organisation's security policy?

Options:

A.

The policy has the support of Board and the Chief Executive.

B.

The policy has been agreed and amended to suit all third party contractors.

C.

How the organisation will manage information assurance.

D.

The compliance with legal and regulatory obligations.

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Questions 16

A security analyst has been asked to provide a triple A service (AAA) for both wireless and remote access network services in an organization and must avoid using proprietary solutions.

What technology SHOULD they adapt?

Options:

A.

TACACS+

B.

RADIUS.

C.

Oauth.

D.

MS Access Database.

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Questions 17

James is working with a software programme that completely obfuscates the entire source code, often in the form of a binary executable making it difficult to inspect, manipulate or reverse engineer the original source code.

What type of software programme is this?

Options:

A.

Free Source.

B.

Proprietary Source.

C.

Interpreted Source.

D.

Open Source.

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Questions 18

Which of the following is considered to be the GREATEST risk to information systems that results from deploying end-to-end Internet of Things (IoT) solutions?

Options:

A.

Use of 'cheap" microcontroller based sensors.

B.

Much larger attack surface than traditional IT systems.

C.

Use of proprietary networking protocols between nodes.

D.

Use of cloud based systems to collect loT data.

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Questions 19

Which cryptographic protocol preceded Transport Layer Security (TLS)?

Options:

A.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI).

B.

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).

C.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).

D.

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

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Questions 20

What form of training SHOULD developers be undertaking to understand the security of the code they have written and how it can improve security defence whilst being attacked?

Options:

A.

Red Team Training.

B.

Blue Team Training.

C.

Black Hat Training.

D.

Awareness Training.

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Questions 21

In business continuity, what is a battle box?

Options:

A.

A portable container that holds Items and information useful in the event of an organisational disaster.

B.

An armoured box that holds all an organisation's backup databases.

C.

A collection of tools and protective equipment to be used in the event of civil disturbance.

D.

A list of names and addresses of staff to be utilised should industrial action prevent access to a building.

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Questions 22

Which of the following types of organisation could be considered the MOST at risk from the theft of electronic based credit card data?

Options:

A.

Online retailer.

B.

Traditional market trader.

C.

Mail delivery business.

D.

Agricultural producer.

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Questions 23

Which of the following controls would be the MOST relevant and effective in detecting zero day attacks?

Options:

A.

Strong OS patch management

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Signature-based intrusion detection.

D.

Anomaly based intrusion detection.

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Questions 24

Which of the following describes a qualitative risk assessment approach?

Options:

A.

A subjective assessment of risk occurrence likelihood against the potential impact that determines the overall severity of a risk.

B.

The use of verifiable data to predict the risk occurrence likelihood and the potential impact so as to determine the overall severity of a risk.

C.

The use of Monte-Carlo Analysis and Layers of Protection Analysis (LOPA) to determine the overall severity of a risk.

D.

The use of Risk Tolerance and Risk Appetite values to determine the overall severity of a risk

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Questions 25

Which of the following subjects is UNLIKELY to form part of a cloud service provision laaS contract?

Options:

A.

User security education.

B.

Intellectual Property Rights.

C.

End-of-service.

D.

Liability

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Questions 26

In a security governance framework, which of the following publications would be at the HIGHEST level?

Options:

A.

Procedures.

B.

Standards

C.

Policy.

D.

Guidelines

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Questions 27

When preserving a crime scene for digital evidence, what actions SHOULD a first responder initially make?

Options:

A.

Remove power from all digital devices at the scene to stop the data changing.

B.

Photograph all evidence and triage to determine whether live data capture is necessary.

C.

Remove all digital evidence from the scene to prevent unintentional damage.

D.

Don't touch any evidence until a senior digital investigator arrives.

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Questions 28

Which of the following is often the final stage in the information management lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Disposal.

B.

Creation.

C.

Use.

D.

Publication.

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Questions 29

When considering the disposal of confidential data, equipment and storage devices, what social engineering technique SHOULD always be taken into consideration?

Options:

A.

Spear Phishing.

B.

Shoulder Surfing.

C.

Dumpster Diving.

D.

Tailgating.

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Questions 30

Which of the following is an asymmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

DES.

B.

AES.

C.

ATM.

D.

RSA.

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Exam Code: CISMP-V9
Exam Name: BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 100

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