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CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?

Options:

A.

Certify and approve releases to the environment

B.

Provide version rollbacks for system changes

C.

Ensure that all applications are approved

D.

Ensure accountability for changes to the environment

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Questions 5

Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices?

Options:

A.

Derived credential

B.

Temporary security credential

C.

Mobile device credentialing service

D.

Digest authentication

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Questions 6

Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary?

Options:

A.

Limit access to predefined queries

B.

Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level

C.

Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

D.

Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes

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Questions 7

A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended?

Options:

A.

Least privilege

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Defense in depth

D.

Privilege bracketing

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Questions 8

A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization?

Options:

A.

Trusted third-party certification

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

Security Assertion Markup language (SAML)

D.

Cross-certification

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Questions 9

Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?

Options:

A.

Purchase software from a limited list of retailers

B.

Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates

C.

Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet

D.

Test all new software in a segregated environment

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Questions 10

Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?

Options:

A.

Check arguments in function calls

B.

Test for the security patch level of the environment

C.

Include logging functions

D.

Digitally sign each application module

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Questions 11

What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?

Options:

A.

Debug the security issues

B.

Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible

C.

Conduct a security assessment

D.

Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall

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Questions 12

When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?

Options:

A.

After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed

B.

After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins

C.

After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins

D.

After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed

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Questions 13

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction?

Options:

A.

Lack of software documentation

B.

License agreements requiring release of modified code

C.

Expiration of the license agreement

D.

Costs associated with support of the software

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Questions 14

Which software defined networking (SDN) architectural component is responsible for translating network requirements?

Options:

A.

SDN Application

B.

SDN Data path

C.

SDN Controller

D.

SDN Northbound Interfaces

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Questions 15

The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

System acquisition and development

B.

System operations and maintenance

C.

System initiation

D.

System implementation

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Questions 16

Why are packet filtering routers used in low-risk environments?

Options:

A.

They are high-resolution source discrimination and identification tools.

B.

They are fast and flexible, and protect against Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing.

C.

They are fast, flexible, and transparent.

D.

They enforce strong user authentication and audit tog generation.

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Questions 17

Which of the following are all elements of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Document the actual location of the ORP, developing an incident notification procedure, evaluating costs of critical components

B.

Document the actual location of the ORP, developing an incident notification procedure, establishing recovery locations

C.

Maintain proper documentation of all server logs, developing an incident notification procedure, establishing recovery locations

D.

Document the actual location of the ORP, recording minutes at all ORP planning sessions, establishing recovery locations

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Questions 18

An information technology (IT) employee who travels frequently to various ies remotely to an organization’

the following solutions BEST serves as a secure control mechanism to meet the organization ' s requirements?

to troubleshoot p Which of the following solutions BEST serves as a secure control mechanisn to meet the organization ' s requirements?

Options:

A.

Update the firewall rules to include the static Internet Protocol (IP) addresses of the locations where the employee connects from.

B.

Install a third-party screen sharing solution that provides remote connection from a public website.

C.

Implement a Dynamic Domain Name Services (DDNS) account to initiate a virtual private network (VPN) using the DDNS record.

D.

Install a bastion host in the demilitarized zone (DMZ) and allow multi-factor authentication (MFA) access.

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Questions 19

A development operations team would like to start building new applications delegating the cybersecurity responsibility as much as possible to the service provider. Which of the following environments BEST fits their need?

Options:

A.

Cloud Virtual Machines (VM)

B.

Cloud application container within a Virtual Machine (VM)

C.

On premises Virtual Machine (VM)

D.

Self-hosted Virtual Machine (VM)

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Questions 20

Which of the following is a risk matrix?

Options:

A.

A database of risks associated with a specific information system.

B.

A table of risk management factors for management to consider.

C.

A two-dimensional picture of risk for organizations, products, projects, or other items of interest.

D.

A tool for determining risk management decisions for an activity or system.

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Questions 21

A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has delegated responsibility of their system security to the head of the information technology (IT) department. While corporate policy dictates that only the CIO can make decisions on the level of data protection required, technical implementation decisions are done by the head of the IT department. Which of the following BEST describes the security role filled by the head of the IT department?

Options:

A.

System analyst

B.

System security officer

C.

System processor

D.

System custodian

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Questions 22

A network security engineer needs to ensure that a security solution analyzes traffic for protocol manipulation and various sorts of common attacks. In addition, all Uniform Resource Locator (URL) traffic must be inspected and users prevented from browsing inappropriate websites. Which of the following solutions should be implemented to enable administrators the capability to analyze traffic, blacklist external sites, and log user traffic for later analysis?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

B.

Circuit-Level Proxy

C.

Application-Level Proxy

D.

Host-based Firewall

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Questions 23

Which of the following explains why classifying data is an important step in performing a Risk assessment?

Options:

A.

To provide a framework for developing good security metrics

B.

To justify the selection of costly security controls

C.

To classify the security controls sensitivity that helps scope the risk assessment

D.

To help determine the appropriate level of data security controls

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Questions 24

A Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) with identity and access management (IAM) responsibilities is asked by the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to4 perform a vulnerability assessment on a web application to pass a Payment Card Industry (PCI) audit. The CISSP has never performed this before. According to the (ISC)? Code of Professional Ethics, which of the following should the CISSP do?

Options:

A.

Review the CISSP guidelines for performing a vulnerability assessment before proceeding to complete it

B.

Review the PCI requirements before performing the vulnerability assessment

C.

Inform the CISO that they are unable to perform the task because they should render only those services for which they are fully competent and qualified

D.

Since they are CISSP certified, they have enough knowledge to assist with the request, but will need assistance in order to complete it in a timely manner

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Questions 25

Within a large organization, what business unit is BEST positioned to initiate provisioning and deprovisioning of user accounts?

Options:

A.

Training department

B.

Internal audit

C.

Human resources

D.

Information technology (IT)

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Questions 26

Which of the following is PRIMARILY adopted for ensuring the integrity of information is preserved?

Options:

A.

Data at rest protection

B.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

C.

Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

D.

One-way encryption

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Questions 27

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?

Options:

A.

Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken

B.

Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability

C.

Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization

D.

Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels

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Questions 28

When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?

Options:

A.

Only when assets are clearly defined

B.

Only when standards are defined

C.

Only when controls are put in place

D.

Only procedures are defined

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Questions 29

All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

Options:

A.

determine the risk of a business interruption occurring

B.

determine the technological dependence of the business processes

C.

Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption

D.

Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

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Questions 30

Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following?

Options:

A.

Owner’s ability to realize financial gain

B.

Owner’s ability to maintain copyright

C.

Right of the owner to enjoy their creation

D.

Right of the owner to control delivery method

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Questions 31

Which of the following is security control volatility?

Options:

A.

A reference to the stability of the security control.

B.

A reference to how unpredictable the security control is.

C.

A reference to the impact of the security control.

D.

A reference to the likelihood of change in the security control.

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Questions 32

Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?

Options:

A.

Hardware and software compatibility issues

B.

Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance

C.

Budget constraints and requirements

D.

Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

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Questions 33

Continuity of operations is BEST supported by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, availability, and reliability

B.

Connectivity, reliability, and redundancy

C.

Connectivity, reliability, and recovery

D.

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability

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Questions 34

Individuals have been identified and determined as having a need-to-know for the information. Which of the following access control methods MUST include a consistent set of rules for controlling and limiting access?

Options:

A.

Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)

B.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

C.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

D.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

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Questions 35

When determining data and information asset handling, regardless of the specific toolset being used, which of the following is one of the common components of big data?

Options:

A.

Consolidated data collection

B.

Distributed storage locations

C.

Distributed data collection

D.

Centralized processing location

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Questions 36

Which of the following models uses unique groups contained in unique conflict classes?

Options:

A.

Chinese Wall

B.

Bell-LaPadula

C.

Clark-Wilson

D.

Biba

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Questions 37

A security engineer is required to integrate security into a software project that is implemented by small groups test quickly, continuously, and independently develop, test, and deploy code to the cloud. The engineer will MOST likely integrate with which software development process’

Options:

A.

Service-oriented architecture (SOA)

B.

Spiral Methodology

C.

Structured Waterfall Programming Development

D.

Devops Integrated Product Team (IPT)

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Questions 38

An organization needs a general purpose document to prove that its internal controls properly address security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality or privacy risks. Which of the following reports is required?

Options:

A.

A Service Organization Control (SOC) 3 report

B.

The Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements No. 18 (SSAE 18)

C.

A Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 report

D.

The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001

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Questions 39

Which of the following examples is BEST to minimize the attack surface for a customer ' s private information?

Options:

A.

Obfuscation

B.

Collection limitation

C.

Authentication

D.

Data masking

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Questions 40

Which of the following is true of Service Organization Control (SOC) reports?

Options:

A.

SOC 1 Type 2 reports assess the security, confidentiality, integrity, and availability of an organization’s controls

B.

SOC 2 Type 2 reports include information of interest to the service organization’s management

C.

SOC 2 Type 2 reports assess internal controls for financial reporting

D.

SOC 3 Type 2 reports assess internal controls for financial reporting

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Questions 41

Which of the following provides the GREATEST level of data security for a Virtual

Private Network (VPN) connection?

Options:

A.

Internet Protocol Payload Compression (IPComp)

B.

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

C.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

D.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

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Questions 42

A security professional recommends that a company integrate threat modeling into its Agile development processes. Which of the following BEST describes the benefits of this approach?

Options:

A.

Reduce application development costs.

B.

Potential threats are addressed later in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC).

C.

Improve user acceptance of implemented security controls.

D.

Potential threats are addressed earlier in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC).

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Questions 43

What is the MAIN reason to ensure the appropriate retention periods are enforced for data stored on electronic media?

Options:

A.

To reduce the carbon footprint by eliminating paper

B.

To create an inventory of data assets stored on disk for backup and recovery

C.

To declassify information that has been improperly classified

D.

To reduce the risk of loss, unauthorized access, use, modification, and disclosure

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Questions 44

Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol?

Options:

A.

WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV)

B.

WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5)

C.

WEP uses Diffie-Hellman

D.

WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV)

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Questions 45

In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node?

Options:

A.

Transport layer

B.

Application layer

C.

Network layer

D.

Session layer

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Questions 46

What access control scheme uses fine-grained rules to specify the conditions under which access to each data item or applications is granted?

Options:

A.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

B.

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

C.

Role Based Access Control (RBAC)

D.

Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)

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Questions 47

What requirement MUST be met during internal security audits to ensure that all information provided is expressed as an objective assessment without risk of retaliation?

Options:

A.

The auditor must be independent and report directly to the management.

B.

The auditor must utilize automated tools to back their findings.

C.

The auditor must work closely with both the information Technology (IT) and security sections of an organization.

D.

The auditor must perform manual reviews of systems and processes.

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Questions 48

An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control?

Options:

A.

Add a new rule to the application layer firewall

B.

Block access to the service

C.

Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

D.

Patch the application source code

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Questions 49

A continuous information security-monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies

B.

Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts

C.

Encompassing people, process, and technology

D.

Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes

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Questions 50

A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following?

Options:

A.

Guaranteed recovery of all business functions

B.

Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis

C.

Insurance against litigation following a disaster

D.

Protection from loss of organization resources

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Questions 51

A systems engineer is designing a wide area network (WAN) environment for a new organization. The WAN will connect sites holding information at various levels of sensitivity, from publicly available to highly confidential. The organization requires a high degree of interconnectedness to support existing business processes. What is the BEST design approach to securing this environment?

Options:

A.

Place firewalls around critical devices, isolating them from the rest of the environment.

B.

Layer multiple detective and preventative technologies at the environment perimeter.

C.

Use reverse proxies to create a secondary " shadow " environment for critical systems.

D.

Align risk across all interconnected elements to ensure critical threats are detected and handled.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) for a security training and awareness program?

Options:

A.

The number of security audits performed

B.

The number of attendees at security training events

C.

The number of security training materials created

D.

The number of security controls implemented

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Questions 53

Which of the following addresses requirements of security assessments during software acquisition?

Options:

A.

Software configuration management (SCM)

B.

Data loss prevention (DLP) policy

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Software assurance policy

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Questions 54

Options:

A.

Verify the camera ' s log for recent logins outside of the Internet Technology (IT) department.

B.

Verify the security and encryption protocol the camera uses.

C.

Verify the security camera requires authentication to log into the management console.

D.

Verify the most recent firmware version is installed on the camera.

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Questions 55

What are the first two components of logical access control?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality and authentication

B.

Authentication and identification

C.

Identification and confidentiality

D.

Authentication and availability

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Questions 56

Which of the following is a common measure within a Local Area Network (LAN) to provide en additional level of security through segmentation?

Options:

A.

Building Virtual Local Area Networks (VLAN)

B.

Building Demilitarized Zones (DMZ)

C.

Implementing a virus scanner

D.

Implementing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

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Questions 57

Which of the following is the FIRST requirement a data owner should consider before implementing a data retention policy?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Legal

C.

Business

D.

Storage

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Questions 58

An organization that has achieved a Capability Maturity model Integration (CMMI) level of 4 has done which of the following?

Options:

A.

Addressed continuous innovative process improvement

B.

Addressed the causes of common process variance

C.

Achieved optimized process performance

D.

Achieved predictable process performance

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Questions 59

A security architect is reviewing plans for an application with a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 15 minutes. The current design has all of the application infrastructure located within one co-location data center. Which security principle is the architect currently assessing?

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Disaster recovery (DR)

C.

Redundancy

D.

Business continuity (BC)

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Questions 60

Which of the following is the PRIMARY security concern associated with the implementation of smart cards?

Options:

A.

The cards have limited memory

B.

Vendor application compatibility

C.

The cards can be misplaced

D.

Mobile code can be embedded in the card

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Questions 61

Which of the following media sanitization techniques is MOST likely to be effective for an organization using public cloud services?

Options:

A.

Low-level formatting

B.

Secure-grade overwrite erasure

C.

Cryptographic erasure

D.

Drive degaussing

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Questions 62

An organization lacks a data retention policy. Of the following, who is the BEST person to consult for such requirement?

Options:

A.

Application Manager

B.

Database Administrator

C.

Privacy Officer

D.

Finance Manager

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Questions 63

Which of the following standards/guidelines requires an Information Security Management System (ISMS) to be defined?

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27000 family

B.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCIDSS)

D.

ISO/IEC 20000

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Questions 64

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding value boundary analysis as a functional software testing technique?

Options:

A.

It is useful for testing communications protocols and graphical user interfaces.

B.

It is characterized by the stateless behavior of a process implemented in a function.

C.

Test inputs are obtained from the derived threshold of the given functional specifications.

D.

An entire partition can be covered by considering only one representative value from that partition.

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Questions 65

The goal of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) training and awareness program is to

Options:

A.

enhance the skills required to create, maintain, and execute the plan.

B.

provide for a high level of recovery in case of disaster.

C.

describe the recovery organization to new employees.

D.

provide each recovery team with checklists and procedures.

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Questions 66

To protect auditable information, which of the following MUST be configured to only allow read access?

Options:

A.

Logging configurations

B.

Transaction log files

C.

User account configurations

D.

Access control lists (ACL)

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Questions 67

Place in order, from BEST (1) to WORST (4), the following methods to reduce the risk of data remanence on magnetic media.

CISSP Question 67

Options:

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Questions 68

Which of the following is a document that identifies each item seized in an investigation, including date and time seized, full name and signature or initials of the person who seized the item, and a detailed description of the item?

Options:

A.

Property book

B.

Chain of custody form

C.

Search warrant return

D.

Evidence tag

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Questions 69

When building a data classification scheme, which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Purpose

B.

Cost effectiveness

C.

Availability

D.

Authenticity

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Questions 70

What does an organization FIRST review to assure compliance with privacy requirements?

Options:

A.

Best practices

B.

Business objectives

C.

Legal and regulatory mandates

D.

Employee ' s compliance to policies and standards

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Questions 71

Which technology is a prerequisite for populating the cloud-based directory in a federated identity solution?

Options:

A.

Notification tool

B.

Message queuing tool

C.

Security token tool

D.

Synchronization tool

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Questions 72

Which of the following would BEST describe the role directly responsible for data within an organization?

Options:

A.

Data custodian

B.

Information owner

C.

Database administrator

D.

Quality control

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Questions 73

Which of the following is the BIGGEST weakness when using native Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) for authentication?

Options:

A.

Authorizations are not included in the server response

B.

Unsalted hashes are passed over the network

C.

The authentication session can be replayed

D.

Passwords are passed in clear text

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Questions 74

Who is ultimately responsible to ensure that information assets are categorized and adequate measures are taken to protect them?

Options:

A.

Data Custodian

B.

Executive Management

C.

Chief Information Security Officer

D.

Data/Information/Business Owners

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Questions 75

Which of the following is most helpful in applying the principle of LEAST privilege?

Options:

A.

Establishing a sandboxing environment

B.

Setting up a Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel

C.

Monitoring and reviewing privileged sessions

D.

Introducing a job rotation program

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Questions 76

An application developer is deciding on the amount of idle session time that the application allows before a timeout. The BEST reason for determining the session timeout requirement is

Options:

A.

organization policy.

B.

industry best practices.

C.

industry laws and regulations.

D.

management feedback.

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Questions 77

At which layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model are the source and destination address for a datagram handled?

Options:

A.

Transport Layer

B.

Data-Link Layer

C.

Network Layer

D.

Application Layer

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Questions 78

During the risk assessment phase of the project the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is fully aware of the regulations for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant.

What is the best approach for the CISO?

Below are the common phases to creating a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plan. Drag the remaining BC\DR phases to the appropriate corresponding location.

CISSP Question 78

Options:

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Questions 79

After a thorough analysis, it was discovered that a perpetrator compromised a network by gaining access to the network through a Secure Socket Layer (SSL) Virtual Private Network (VPN) gateway. The perpetrator guessed a username and brute forced the password to gain access. Which of the following BEST mitigates this issue?

Options:

A.

Implement strong passwords authentication for VPN

B.

Integrate the VPN with centralized credential stores

C.

Implement an Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) client

D.

Use two-factor authentication mechanisms

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Questions 80

What should happen when an emergency change to a system must be performed?

Options:

A.

The change must be given priority at the next meeting of the change control board.

B.

Testing and approvals must be performed quickly.

C.

The change must be performed immediately and then submitted to the change board.

D.

The change is performed and a notation is made in the system log.

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Questions 81

A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files?

Options:

A.

Host VM monitor audit logs

B.

Guest OS access controls

C.

Host VM access controls

D.

Guest OS audit logs

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Questions 82

In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data?

Options:

A.

Quarterly access reviews

B.

Security continuous monitoring

C.

Business continuity testing

D.

Annual security training

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Questions 83

Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?

Options:

A.

Encryption of audit logs

B.

No archiving of audit logs

C.

Hashing of audit logs

D.

Remote access audit logs

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Questions 84

Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?

Options:

A.

Change management processes

B.

User administration procedures

C.

Operating System (OS) baselines

D.

System backup documentation

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Questions 85

A post-implementation review has identified that the Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) system was designed

to have gratuitous Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) disabled.

Why did the network architect likely design the VoIP system with gratuitous ARP disabled?

Options:

A.

Gratuitous ARP requires the use of Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) 1.

B.

Gratuitous ARP requires the use of insecure layer 3 protocols.

C.

Gratuitous ARP requires the likelihood of a successful brute-force attack on the phone.

D.

Gratuitous ARP requires the risk of a Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack.

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Questions 86

Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities.

Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.

Select and Place:

CISSP Question 86

Options:

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Questions 87

What is the MOST significant benefit of an application upgrade that replaces randomly generated session keys with certificate based encryption for communications with backend servers?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Efficiency

C.

Confidentially

D.

Privacy

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Questions 88

Who is responsible for the protection of information when it is shared with or provided to other organizations?

Options:

A.

Systems owner

B.

Authorizing Official (AO)

C.

Information owner

D.

Security officer

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Questions 89

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to mitigate Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Use Software as a Service (SaaS)

B.

Whitelist input validation

C.

Require client certificates

D.

Validate data output

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Questions 90

Which of the following alarm systems is recommended to detect intrusions through windows in a high-noise, occupied environment?

Options:

A.

Acoustic sensor

B.

Motion sensor

C.

Shock sensor

D.

Photoelectric sensor

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Questions 91

Which one of the following data integrity models assumes a lattice of integrity levels?

Options:

A.

Take-Grant

B.

Biba

C.

Harrison-Ruzzo

D.

Bell-LaPadula

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Questions 92

What is the BEST location in a network to place Virtual Private Network (VPN) devices when an internal review reveals network design flaws in remote access?

Options:

A.

In a dedicated Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)

B.

In its own separate Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

At the Internet Service Provider (ISP)

D.

Outside the external firewall

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Questions 93

Which of the following entails identification of data and links to business processes, applications, and data

stores as well as assignment of ownership responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Security governance

B.

Risk management

C.

Security portfolio management

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 94

What MUST each information owner do when a system contains data from multiple information owners?

Options:

A.

Provide input to the Information System (IS) owner regarding the security requirements of the data

B.

Review the Security Assessment report (SAR) for the Information System (IS) and authorize the IS to

operate.

C.

Develop and maintain the System Security Plan (SSP) for the Information System (IS) containing the data

D.

Move the data to an Information System (IS) that does not contain data owned by other information

owners

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Questions 95

It is MOST important to perform which of the following to minimize potential impact when implementing a new vulnerability scanning tool in a production environment?

Options:

A.

Negotiate schedule with the Information Technology (IT) operation’s team

B.

Log vulnerability summary reports to a secured server

C.

Enable scanning during off-peak hours

D.

Establish access for Information Technology (IT) management

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Questions 96

A chemical plan wants to upgrade the Industrial Control System (ICS) to transmit data using Ethernet instead of RS422. The project manager wants to simplify administration and maintenance by utilizing the office network infrastructure and staff to implement this upgrade.

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact on security for the network?

Options:

A.

The network administrators have no knowledge of ICS

B.

The ICS is now accessible from the office network

C.

The ICS does not support the office password policy

D.

RS422 is more reliable than Ethernet

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Questions 97

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack?

Options:

A.

Have the service provider block the soiree address.

B.

Have the soiree service provider block the address.

C.

Block the source address at the firewall.

D.

Block all inbound traffic until the flood ends.

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Questions 98

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when reusing media that contains sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Erase

B.

Sanitize

C.

Encrypt

D.

Degauss

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Questions 99

In an organization where Network Access Control (NAC) has been deployed, a device trying to connect to the network is being placed into an isolated domain. What could be done on this device in order to obtain proper

connectivity?

Options:

A.

Connect the device to another network jack

B.

Apply remediation’s according to security requirements

C.

Apply Operating System (OS) patches

D.

Change the Message Authentication Code (MAC) address of the network interface

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Questions 100

An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.

Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Identity as a Service (IDaaS)

C.

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Questions 101

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?

Options:

A.

Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity

B.

Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving

C.

Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security

D.

Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization

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Questions 102

In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the

Options:

A.

system security managers

B.

business managers

C.

Information Technology (IT) managers

D.

end users

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Questions 103

Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?

Options:

A.

Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations

B.

Understand the value of the information assets

C.

Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management

D.

Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements

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Questions 104

Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?

Options:

A.

Personal Identity Verification (PIV)

B.

Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication

C.

Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection

D.

Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response

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Questions 105

Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

Options:

A.

Assigned security label

B.

Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture

C.

Minimum query size

D.

Passage of time

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Questions 106

When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?

Options:

A.

The process will require too many resources

B.

It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software

C.

It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data

D.

The process will be perceived as having value

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Questions 107

A business has implemented Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) compliant handheld credit card processing on their Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) topology. The network team partitioned the WLAN to create a private segment for credit card processing using a firewall to control device access and route traffic to the card processor on the Internet. What components are in the scope of PCI-DSS?

Options:

A.

The entire enterprise network infrastructure.

B.

The handheld devices, wireless access points and border gateway.

C.

The end devices, wireless access points, WLAN, switches, management console, and firewall.

D.

The end devices, wireless access points, WLAN, switches, management console, and Internet

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Questions 108

Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?

Options:

A.

The department should report to the business owner

B.

Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed

C.

Individual accountability should be ensured

D.

All members should be trained on their responsibilities

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Questions 109

Which item below is a federated identity standard?

Options:

A.

802.11i

B.

Kerberos

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

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Questions 110

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) is necessary in many systems given common types of password attacks. Which of the following is a correct list of password attacks?

Options:

A.

Masquerading, salami, malware, polymorphism

B.

Brute force, dictionary, phishing, keylogger

C.

Zeus, netbus, rabbit, turtle

D.

Token, biometrics, IDS, DLP

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Questions 111

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.

What MUST the access control logs contain in addition to the identifier?

Options:

A.

Time of the access

B.

Security classification

C.

Denied access attempts

D.

Associated clearance

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Questions 112

What does secure authentication with logging provide?

Options:

A.

Data integrity

B.

Access accountability

C.

Encryption logging format

D.

Segregation of duties

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Questions 113

Which of the following assures that rules are followed in an identity management architecture?

Options:

A.

Policy database

B.

Digital signature

C.

Policy decision point

D.

Policy enforcement point

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Questions 114

Without proper signal protection, embedded systems may be prone to which type of attack?

Options:

A.

Brute force

B.

Tampering

C.

Information disclosure

D.

Denial of Service (DoS)

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Questions 115

Which of the following is required to determine classification and ownership?

Options:

A.

System and data resources are properly identified

B.

Access violations are logged and audited

C.

Data file references are identified and linked

D.

System security controls are fully integrated

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Questions 116

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.

In the plan, what is the BEST approach to mitigate future internal client-based attacks?

Options:

A.

Block all client side web exploits at the perimeter.

B.

Remove all non-essential client-side web services from the network.

C.

Screen for harmful exploits of client-side services before implementation.

D.

Harden the client image before deployment.

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Questions 117

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee ' s access.

Which of the following documents explains the proper use of the organization ' s assets?

Options:

A.

Human resources policy

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Code of ethics

D.

Access control policy

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Questions 118

From a security perspective, which of the following is a best practice to configure a Domain Name Service (DNS) system?

Options:

A.

Configure secondary servers to use the primary server as a zone forwarder.

B.

Block all Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections.

C.

Disable all recursive queries on the name servers.

D.

Limit zone transfers to authorized devices.

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Questions 119

Which of the following is the MOST beneficial to review when performing an IT audit?

Options:

A.

Audit policy

B.

Security log

C.

Security policies

D.

Configuration settings

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Questions 120

A large university needs to enable student access to university resources from their homes. Which of the following provides the BEST option for low maintenance and ease of deployment?

Options:

A.

Provide students with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) Virtual Private Network (VPN) client software.

B.

Use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) VPN technology.

C.

Use Secure Shell (SSH) with public/private keys.

D.

Require students to purchase home router capable of VPN.

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Questions 121

What is the PRIMARY advantage of using automated application security testing tools?

Options:

A.

The application can be protected in the production environment.

B.

Large amounts of code can be tested using fewer resources.

C.

The application will fail less when tested using these tools.

D.

Detailed testing of code functions can be performed.

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Questions 122

A security manager has noticed an inconsistent application of server security controls resulting in vulnerabilities on critical systems. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

A lack of baseline standards

B.

Improper documentation of security guidelines

C.

A poorly designed security policy communication program

D.

Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) policies are ineffective

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Questions 123

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is based on

Options:

A.

the policy and procedures manual.

B.

an existing BCP from a similar organization.

C.

a review of the business processes and procedures.

D.

a standard checklist of required items and objectives.

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Questions 124

What is a common challenge when implementing Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for identity integration between on-premise environment and an external identity provider service?

Options:

A.

Some users are not provisioned into the service.

B.

SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider.

C.

Single users cannot be revoked from the service.

D.

SAML tokens contain user information.

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Questions 125

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.

In addition to web browsers, what PRIMARY areas need to be addressed concerning mobile code used for malicious purposes?

Options:

A.

Text editors, database, and Internet phone applications

B.

Email, presentation, and database applications

C.

Image libraries, presentation and spreadsheet applications

D.

Email, media players, and instant messaging applications

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Questions 126

What is the MOST important reason to configure unique user IDs?

Options:

A.

Supporting accountability

B.

Reducing authentication errors

C.

Preventing password compromise

D.

Supporting Single Sign On (SSO)

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Questions 127

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.

The effectiveness of the security program can PRIMARILY be measured through

Options:

A.

audit findings.

B.

risk elimination.

C.

audit requirements.

D.

customer satisfaction.

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Questions 128

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement.

Which of the following is considered the MOST important priority for the information security officer?

Options:

A.

Formal acceptance of the security strategy

B.

Disciplinary actions taken against unethical behavior

C.

Development of an awareness program for new employees

D.

Audit of all organization system configurations for faults

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Questions 129

Which of the following is a MAJOR consideration in implementing a Voice over IP (VoIP) network?

Options:

A.

Use of a unified messaging.

B.

Use of separation for the voice network.

C.

Use of Network Access Control (NAC) on switches.

D.

Use of Request for Comments (RFC) 1918 addressing.

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Questions 130

When using third-party software developers, which of the following is the MOST effective method of providing software development Quality Assurance (QA)?

Options:

A.

Retain intellectual property rights through contractual wording.

B.

Perform overlapping code reviews by both parties.

C.

Verify that the contractors attend development planning meetings.

D.

Create a separate contractor development environment.

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Questions 131

Which of the following describes the concept of a Single Sign -On (SSO) system?

Options:

A.

Users are authenticated to one system at a time.

B.

Users are identified to multiple systems with several credentials.

C.

Users are authenticated to multiple systems with one login.

D.

Only one user is using the system at a time.

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Questions 132

With data labeling, which of the following MUST be the key decision maker?

Options:

A.

Information security

B.

Departmental management

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Questions 133

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes.

Following best practice, where should the permitted access for each department and job classification combination be specified?

Options:

A.

Security procedures

B.

Security standards

C.

Human resource policy

D.

Human resource standards

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Questions 134

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns.

What MUST the plan include in order to reduce client-side exploitation?

Options:

A.

Approved web browsers

B.

Network firewall procedures

C.

Proxy configuration

D.

Employee education

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Questions 135

Which of the following provides the MOST protection against data theft of sensitive information when a laptop is stolen?

Options:

A.

Set up a BIOS and operating system password

B.

Encrypt the virtual drive where confidential files can be stored

C.

Implement a mandatory policy in which sensitive data cannot be stored on laptops, but only on the corporate network

D.

Encrypt the entire disk and delete contents after a set number of failed access attempts

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Questions 136

The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Diffie-Hellman algorithm

B.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

C.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

D.

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

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Questions 137

Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack?

Options:

A.

Hashing the data before encryption

B.

Hashing the data after encryption

C.

Compressing the data after encryption

D.

Compressing the data before encryption

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Questions 138

Which component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments?

Options:

A.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

B.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

C.

Asset Reporting Format (ARF)

D.

Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)

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Questions 139

Who in the organization is accountable for classification of data information assets?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Data architect

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

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Questions 140

Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust?

Options:

A.

Code signing

B.

Class authentication

C.

Sandboxing

D.

Type safety

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Questions 141

Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Integrity

C.

Identification

D.

Availability

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Questions 142

What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management?

Options:

A.

Implementation Phase

B.

Initialization Phase

C.

Cancellation Phase

D.

Issued Phase

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Questions 143

An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?

Options:

A.

Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution

B.

Inadequate cost modeling

C.

Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)

D.

Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

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Questions 144

With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions?

Options:

A.

Continuously without exception for all security controls

B.

Before and after each change of the control

C.

At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control

D.

Only during system implementation and decommissioning

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Questions 145

What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?

Options:

A.

Disable all unnecessary services

B.

Ensure chain of custody

C.

Prepare another backup of the system

D.

Isolate the system from the network

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Questions 146

Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?

Options:

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Simulation

C.

Parallel

D.

White box

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Questions 147

When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?

Options:

A.

When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager

B.

When it has been validated by the board of directors

C.

When it has been validated by all threat scenarios

D.

When it has been validated by realistic exercises

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Questions 148

What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?

Options:

A.

Take the computer to a forensic lab

B.

Make a copy of the hard drive

C.

Start documenting

D.

Turn off the computer

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Questions 149

What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?

Options:

A.

Warm site

B.

Hot site

C.

Mirror site

D.

Cold site

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Questions 150

Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?

Options:

A.

Determine the cause of the incident

B.

Disconnect the system involved from the network

C.

Isolate and contain the system involved

D.

Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident

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Questions 151

What capability would typically be included in a commercially available software package designed for access control?

Options:

A.

Password encryption

B.

File encryption

C.

Source library control

D.

File authentication

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Questions 152

Digital certificates used in Transport Layer Security (TLS) support which of the following?

Options:

A.

Information input validation

B.

Non-repudiation controls and data encryption

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Server identity and data confidentially

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Questions 153

An Information Technology (IT) professional attends a cybersecurity seminar on current incident response methodologies.

What code of ethics canon is being observed?

Options:

A.

Provide diligent and competent service to principals

B.

Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure

C.

Advance and protect the profession

D.

Act honorable, honesty, justly, responsibly, and legally

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Questions 154

What can happen when an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is installed inside a firewall-protected internal network?

Options:

A.

The IDS can detect failed administrator logon attempts from servers.

B.

The IDS can increase the number of packets to analyze.

C.

The firewall can increase the number of packets to analyze.

D.

The firewall can detect failed administrator login attempts from servers

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Questions 155

Which of the following is the MOST efficient mechanism to account for all staff during a speedy nonemergency evacuation from a large security facility?

Options:

A.

Large mantrap where groups of individuals leaving are identified using facial recognition technology

B.

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) sensors worn by each employee scanned by sensors at each exitdoor

C.

Emergency exits with push bars with coordinates at each exit checking off the individual against a

predefined list

D.

Card-activated turnstile where individuals are validated upon exit

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Questions 156

As part of the security assessment plan, the security professional has been asked to use a negative testing strategy on a new website. Which of the following actions would be performed?

Options:

A.

Use a web scanner to scan for vulnerabilities within the website.

B.

Perform a code review to ensure that the database references are properly addressed.

C.

Establish a secure connection to the web server to validate that only the approved ports are open.

D.

Enter only numbers in the web form and verify that the website prompts the user to enter a valid input.

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Questions 157

Transport Layer Security (TLS) provides which of the following capabilities for a remote access server?

Options:

A.

Transport layer handshake compression

B.

Application layer negotiation

C.

Peer identity authentication

D.

Digital certificate revocation

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Questions 158

A minima l implementation of endpoint security includes which of the following?

Options:

A.

Trusted platforms

B.

Host-based firewalls

C.

Token-based authentication

D.

Wireless Access Points (AP)

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Questions 159

Which of the following combinations would MOST negatively affect availability?

Options:

A.

Denial of Service (DoS) attacks and outdated hardware

B.

Unauthorized transactions and outdated hardware

C.

Fire and accidental changes to data

D.

Unauthorized transactions and denial of service attacks

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Questions 160

Proven application security principles include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Minimizing attack surface area

B.

Hardening the network perimeter

C.

Accepting infrastructure security controls

D.

Developing independent modules

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Questions 161

Which type of test would an organization perform in order to locate and target exploitable defects?

Options:

A.

Penetration

B.

System

C.

Performance

D.

Vulnerability

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Questions 162

When developing solutions for mobile devices, in which phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) should technical limitations related to devices be specified?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

Initiation

C.

Review

D.

Development

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Questions 163

Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?

Options:

A.

Consolidation of multiple providers

B.

Directory synchronization

C.

Web based logon

D.

Automated account management

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Questions 164

Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

Options:

A.

Packet filtering

B.

Port services filtering

C.

Content filtering

D.

Application access control

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Questions 165

At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?

Options:

A.

Link layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Session layer

D.

Application layer

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Questions 166

An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information?

Options:

A.

Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls

B.

Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)

C.

Require strong authentication for administrators

D.

Implement logical network segmentation at the switches

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Questions 167

Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

B.

Link Control Protocol (LCP)

C.

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

D.

Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP)

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Questions 168

Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)

C.

Stateful firewalls

D.

Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools

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Questions 169

Which type of control recognizes that a transaction amount is excessive in accordance with corporate policy?

Options:

A.

Detection

B.

Prevention

C.

Investigation

D.

Correction

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Questions 170

Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured

B.

A penetration test of the network will fail

C.

The network is compliant to industry standards

D.

All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified

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Questions 171

The type of authorized interactions a subject can have with an object is

Options:

A.

control.

B.

permission.

C.

procedure.

D.

protocol.

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Questions 172

Which of the following BEST represents the principle of open design?

Options:

A.

Disassembly, analysis, or reverse engineering will reveal the security functionality of the computer system.

B.

Algorithms must be protected to ensure the security and interoperability of the designed system.

C.

A knowledgeable user should have limited privileges on the system to prevent their ability to compromise security capabilities.

D.

The security of a mechanism should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation.

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Questions 173

Which of the following is an attacker MOST likely to target to gain privileged access to a system?

Options:

A.

Programs that write to system resources

B.

Programs that write to user directories

C.

Log files containing sensitive information

D.

Log files containing system calls

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Questions 174

Which of the following is a potential risk when a program runs in privileged mode?

Options:

A.

It may serve to create unnecessary code complexity

B.

It may not enforce job separation duties

C.

It may create unnecessary application hardening

D.

It may allow malicious code to be inserted

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Questions 175

Which of the following methods protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) by use of a full replacement of the data element?

Options:

A.

Transparent Database Encryption (TDE)

B.

Column level database encryption

C.

Volume encryption

D.

Data tokenization

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Questions 176

What should be the INITIAL response to Intrusion Detection System/Intrusion Prevention System (IDS/IPS) alerts?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the Incident Response Plan is available and current.

B.

Determine the traffic ' s initial source and block the appropriate port.

C.

Disable or disconnect suspected target and source systems.

D.

Verify the threat and determine the scope of the attack.

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Questions 177

What maintenance activity is responsible for defining, implementing, and testing updates to application systems?

Options:

A.

Program change control

B.

Regression testing

C.

Export exception control

D.

User acceptance testing

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Questions 178

What is the MOST important purpose of testing the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the efficiency of the plan

B.

Identifying the benchmark required for restoration

C.

Validating the effectiveness of the plan

D.

Determining the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

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Questions 179

The BEST method of demonstrating a company ' s security level to potential customers is

Options:

A.

a report from an external auditor.

B.

responding to a customer ' s security questionnaire.

C.

a formal report from an internal auditor.

D.

a site visit by a customer ' s security team.

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Questions 180

An external attacker has compromised an organization ' s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker ' s ability to gain further information?

Options:

A.

Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls

B.

Require strong authentication for administrators

C.

Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)

D.

Implement logical network segmentation at the switches

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Questions 181

Which of the following Disaster Recovery (DR) sites is the MOST difficult to test?

Options:

A.

Hot site

B.

Cold site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile site

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Questions 182

A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?

Options:

A.

Application

B.

Storage

C.

Power

D.

Network

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Questions 183

Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

Options:

A.

Examine the device for physical tampering

B.

Implement more stringent baseline configurations

C.

Purge or re-image the hard disk drive

D.

Change access codes

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Questions 184

An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements?

Options:

A.

Development, testing, and deployment

B.

Prevention, detection, and remediation

C.

People, technology, and operations

D.

Certification, accreditation, and monitoring

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Questions 185

Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?

Options:

A.

Install mantraps at the building entrances

B.

Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic

C.

Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public

D.

Hire a guard to protect the public area

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Questions 186

What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate?

Options:

A.

Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel

B.

Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present

C.

Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements

D.

Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan

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Exam Code: CISSP
Exam Name: Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP)
Last Update: May 26, 2026
Questions: 1485

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