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CPHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is one advantage of avoluntaryerror reporting system over amandatoryerror reporting system?

Options:

A.

Voluntary systems guarantee legal privilege in all states

B.

Voluntary systems typically elicit more frontline reports and near-misses

C.

Voluntary systems eliminate the need for root cause analysis

D.

Voluntary systems replace peer review and credentialing

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Questions 5

When a hospital notes that most errors are occurring at the “sharp end,” what does that mean?

Options:

A.

Errors are occurring in billing and contracting

B.

Errors occur during direct caregiver–patient interaction (frontline care)

C.

Errors occur only in device manufacturing

D.

Errors are exclusively leadership decisions

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Questions 6

What is the voluntary relinquishment by the insurer or self-insurer of the right to recover from a third party?

Options:

A.

Waiver of subrogation

B.

Coinsurance

C.

Underwriting

D.

Experience rating

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Questions 7

If there is no OSHA standard for a given potential health hazard, OSHA may:

Options:

A.

Govern it under the General Duty Clause

B.

Have no authority at all

C.

Transfer it to the FDA

D.

Ignore it if it is expensive

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the BEST reason for the selection of defense counsel?

Options:

A.

proximity to the facility

B.

percentage of defense verdicts

C.

area of expertise

D.

fee schedule

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Questions 9

A claims manager needs to open a loss reserve and perform an investigation of an event. They review the patient demographics, the nature and extent of the injury, and other liability factors. Which of the following would be helpful to the claims manager in determining a loss reserve?

Options:

A.

comparable verdicts in the county

B.

the surgery center's claims history

C.

the patient's total medical bills

D.

amount of insurance allowed per occurrence

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Questions 10

All of the following are examples of an adverse drug event EXCEPT

Options:

A.

administration of a drug by the wrong route.

B.

a drug reaction experienced by the patient.

C.

controlled substance inventory discrepancy.

D.

an error in ordering or dispensing a drug.

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Questions 11

Which of the following is a program of the Food and Drug Administration FDA post market surveillance system for medical devices that requires healthcare facilities to report patient deaths or injuries related to a medical device?

Options:

A.

Safe Medical Devices Act SMDA

B.

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act EMTALA

C.

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 OSHA

D.

Patient Safety Organization PSO

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Questions 12

Aside from clinical risk exposures, which of the following should be evaluated as part of a risk assessment concerning telemedicine?

Options:

A.

operational

B.

behavioral

C.

public awareness

D.

financial

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Questions 13

Supervisors who conduct job interviews may ask which of the following questions?

Options:

A.

Are you currently taking a prescription medication?

B.

Do you plan to have children?

C.

Can you meet the organization's attendance requirement?

D.

Are you a citizen of the United States?

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Questions 14

An organization's chief of orthopedics has scheduled an implant of a new artificial hip for the next day. The chief developed the artificial hip while working as a consultant for a medical device company. The device has not yet been approved by the FDA or the Institutional Review Board. The risk manager's best immediate course of action is to

Options:

A.

contact the FDA to clarify the status of the device.

B.

verify the informed consent for the procedure.

C.

call a special meeting of the Institutional Review Board.

D.

call the chief of surgery to discuss canceling the procedure.

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Questions 15

An organization's CEO has requested that the risk manager develop policies and procedures for the risk management department. The risk manager should consider developing policies for all of the following EXCEPT

Options:

A.

coordination of responses to subpoenas.

B.

departmental accountability for occurrence reporting.

C.

risk management reporting process to the governing body.

D.

responses to freedom of information requests.

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Questions 16

An appropriate way to complete the verification read-back of a complete order, as required by The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals, is to have the person receiving the order

Options:

A.

write the information down before reading it back.

B.

immediately repeat the information.

C.

have a witness verify that the information is repeated back correctly.

D.

document the date and time the order was received.

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Questions 17

Which of the following are proactive elements of a workplace violence prevention program?

Options:

A.

pre-employment background screening, training, rounding, and active shooter drills

B.

de-escalation, law enforcement notification, restraining order, and victim support

C.

notification to Drug Enforcement Agency of drug theft and crisis intervention

D.

medical record documentation of events and emergency command center activation

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Questions 18

The Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 includes provisions to

    amend the Public Health Service Act to establish procedures for the voluntary confidential reporting of medical errors.

    enable the creation of patient safety organizations PSOs.

    require mandatory reporting to PSOs.

    classify patient safety work product reported to PSOs as privileged and confidential.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 19

An employer is not required to offer a reasonable accommodation to a job applicant with a qualified disability unless

Options:

A.

the applicant proves the disability.

B.

withholding the reasonable accommodation creates an unsafe condition.

C.

the applicant requests the accommodation.

D.

the employer recognizes that the accommodation is necessary.

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Questions 20

What is responsible for many HIPAA privacy violations in practice?

Options:

A.

Impermissible access/disclosure (including “snooping” without a job-related need)

B.

Correctly authorized disclosures

C.

Proper encryption practices

D.

De-identification

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Questions 21

The due diligence process in acquisitions is undertaken to:

Options:

A.

Reduce unanticipated costs and risks; support valuation and post-acquisition performance

B.

Hide liabilities

C.

Avoid reviewing contracts

D.

Remove compliance requirements

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Questions 22

Which of the following is the most reliable measure of the effectiveness of an educational program?

Options:

A.

analysis of written evaluations

B.

observable changes in human behavior

C.

reduced frequency of claims or suits

D.

reduced severity of claims or suits

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Questions 23

When conducting an investigation of a liability claim, which of the following steps should be included?

    providing the RCA to the insurance company

    determining the applicable standard of care

    assessing the applicable legal principles

    obtaining an incident report from the claimant

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 24

What are risk treatment strategies?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance, risk retention, risk transfer (and risk reduction/mitigation)

B.

Public relations, branding, advertising

C.

Litigation, denial, delay

D.

Staff vacation scheduling

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Questions 25

Which of the following documents will an insurance underwriter use to provide an insurance quote?

Options:

A.

certificate of insurance

B.

declaration page

C.

certificate of need

D.

application

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Questions 26

A hospital has opted to open an anticoagulation clinic. As this is a high-risk medication, a risk manager wants to conduct a risk assessment before opening the clinic. The BEST tool to use would be a

Options:

A.

root cause analysis RCA.

B.

failure mode and effects analysis FMEA.

C.

cause and effect diagram.

D.

scatter diagram.

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Questions 27

A clear directive to a nurse is:

Options:

A.

“Be careful.”

B.

“Monitor the infusion pump’s operation at defined intervals and document checks.”

C.

“Do your best.”

D.

“If you have time, look at it.”

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Questions 28

What in particular is the process chain in a laboratory subject to?

Options:

A.

Standardization only

B.

Variability across pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical phases

C.

Zero human factors influence

D.

Exclusively equipment failure

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Questions 29

Per The Joint Commission and CMS patient visitation standards, a hospital may restrict an individual's ability to visit a patient if the visitor

Options:

A.

is not the patient's immediate family member.

B.

is known to be a drug seeker in the community.

C.

administered the patient an unknown drug via IV.

D.

is not the patient's designated healthcare surrogate.

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Questions 30

All of the following are valid reasons for performing risk management review of policies and procedures EXCEPT

Options:

A.

ensuring consistency between practice and policy.

B.

identifying potential risk exposures.

C.

monitoring compliance with standards.

D.

maintaining staff competency.

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Questions 31

The Joint Commission requires that after a healthcare organization becomes aware of a sentinel event, it must complete a root cause analysis and action plan within how many days?

Options:

A.

30

B.

45

C.

60

D.

75

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Questions 32

The enterprise risk management process extends beyond clinical risk management by

Options:

A.

ensuring its strategic priority at the senior leadership and governance levels.

B.

maintaining risks in silos as the best risk management approach.

C.

comparing the organization's internal and external environment for efficacy.

D.

analyzing the organization's medication administration program.

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Questions 33

For a risk management program to be effective, it needs:

Options:

A.

Organizational commitment, visibility/access, and physician engagement

B.

Only a policy manual

C.

Only insurance coverage

D.

Only incident reporting software

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Questions 34

The ultimate goal of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) is to:

Options:

A.

Optimize risk mitigation and risk financing aligned to organizational objectives

B.

Eliminate all risk permanently

C.

Transfer all risk to patients

D.

Replace clinical governance

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Questions 35

An HMO advertises it is “the best” and its physicians can manage any illness/injury. A patient relies on this and is injured. The patient might sue the HMO for:

Options:

A.

Apparent agency / negligent misrepresentation / vicarious liability (depending on facts and jurisdiction)

B.

Only weather damage

C.

Only EMTALA penalties

D.

Only OSHA violations

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Exam Code: CPHRM
Exam Name: Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM)
Last Update: Feb 13, 2026
Questions: 119

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