CS0-003 CompTIA CyberSecurity Analyst CySA+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Mean time to contain is the metric that the cybersecurity team lead should include in the weekly executive briefs, as it measures how long it takes to stop the spread of malware that enters the network. Mean time to contain is the average time it takes to isolate and neutralize an incident or a threat, such as malware, from the time it is detected. Mean time to contain is an important metric for evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process, as well as the potential impact and damage of the incident or threat. A lower mean time to contain indicates a faster and more successful response, which can reduce the risk and cost of the incident or threat. Mean time to contain can also be compared with other metrics, such as mean time to detect or mean time to remediate, to identify gaps or areas for improvement in the incident response process. 

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that describes the relationship between four components of a cyberattack: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. It helps analysts understand the behavior and motivation of threat actors, as well as the tools and methods they use to compromise their targets12. References: Main Analytical Frameworks for Cyber Threat Intelligence, section 4; Strategies, tools, and frameworks for building an effective threat intelligence team, section 3.

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) can help the SOC analyst reduce the number of alarms by automating the process of removing duplicates and managing security alerts more efficiently. SOAR platforms enable security teams to define, prioritize, and standardize response procedures, which helps in reducing the workload and improving the overall efficiency of incident response by handling repetitive and low-level tasks automatically.

Improving employee training and awareness is the best option to address the issue of sensitive reports being disclosed via file sharing services. By educating employees about the risks of unapproved file sharing, the security protocols to follow, and the proper channels to use for sharing company information, an organization can significantly reduce the risk of sensitive data being accidentally or intentionally shared on insecure platforms. This human-centric approach addresses the root cause of the problem. Options A, C, and D are security controls that do not directly address the behavior of sharing sensitive files on unauthorized services.

The primary purpose ofdata classificationis to determine the value of data to the organization. This helps in definingprotection levels, access controls, and risk mitigation strategies.

Option A (Regulatory compliance requirements)is important but not the primary reason. Compliance is a result of data classification, not its purpose.

Option B (Facilitating DLP rules)is a secondary benefit, but classification is broader and not limited to DLP.

Option C (Prioritizing IT expenses)is unrelated to why organizations classify data​.

Thus,D is the correct answer, asclassification helps organizations prioritize data protection based on its value.

Segmenting the entire department from the network and reviewing each computer offline is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive. This step can help contain the malware infection and prevent it from spreading to other systems or networks. Reviewing each computer offline can help identify the source and scope of the infection, and determine the best course of action for recovery12. Turning on all systems, scanning for infection, and backing up data to a USB storage device is a risky step, as it can activate the malware and cause further damage or data loss. It can also compromise the USB storage device and any other system that connects to it. Identifying and removing the software installed on the impacted systems in the department is a possible step, but it should be done after segmenting the department from the network and reviewing each computer offline. Explaining that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimaging the devices is a drastic step, as it can result in data loss and downtime. It should be done only as a last resort, and after backing up the data and verifying its integrity. Logging on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups is a dangerous step, as it can expose the administrator credentials and privileges to the malware, and allow it to escalate its access and capabilities34. References: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Best Practices | SANS Institute, Malware Removal: How to Remove Malware from Your Device, How to Remove Malware From Your PC | PCMag

MITRE ATT&CK is a framework and knowledge base that describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by various adversaries in cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK can help security analysts compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization, as well as identify patterns, gaps, or trends in adversary behavior. MITRE ATT&CK can also help security analysts improve threat detection, analysis, and response capabilities, as well as share threat intelligence with other organizations or communities

Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity, such as a password, a PIN, a fingerprint, or a one-time code. MFA can reduce the impact of a credential leak because even if the attackers have the usernames and passwords of the employees, they would still need another factor to access the organization’s systems and resources. Password changes, system hardening, and password encryption are also good security practices, but they do not address the immediate threat of compromised credentials.

Step 1: Analyzing the SFTP Log

The SFTP log provides a record of file transfer and login activities:

User “sjames” logged in from several IP addresses:

192.168.10.32 and 192.168.10.37 (internal network IPs)

32.111.16.37 and 41.21.18.102 (external IPs)

We see file alterations in the /var/www directory, which is commonly the web directory.

Modified files: about_us.html, index.html

Suspicious activity:

192.168.11.102 and 41.21.18.102 modified the files.

32.111.16.37 had failed login attempts, indicating possible unauthorized access attempts.

The most suspicious IP here is 41.21.18.102, as it’s associated with direct file modifications, possibly indicating unauthorized access.

Step 2: Reviewing Netstat

The netstat output shows active connections and their states:

IP 41.21.18.102 has an ESTABLISHED connection with port 22, commonly used for SFTP.

IP 32.111.16.37 is also attempting connections, and 32.111.16.37 connections are in a TIME_WAIT state, showing prior connections were recently closed.

The netstat output reaffirms 41.21.18.102 is actively connected and potentially involved in malicious activities.

Step 3: Checking the HTTP Access Log

The HTTP Access log shows access to about_us.html:

32.111.16.37 repeatedly accessed /about_us.html with 404 errors, indicating attempts to reach non-existing pages.

41.21.18.102 accessed the 200 status code, showing successful page requests, but since this IP was modifying files directly on the server, it might be testing or verifying changes.

Again, 41.21.18.102 stands out as it matches both successful file modification and page request patterns, while 32.111.16.37 shows unsuccessful attempts.

Step 4: Selecting the IP of Concern

Based on the above analysis:

Answer: 41.21.18.102 should be the IP of concern due to its direct file modifications on critical web files (about_us.html, index.html).

Step 5: Identifying the Indicator of Compromise

Potential indicators include unauthorized file modifications:

Modified index.html file is the correct answer, as it indicates direct changes to website content and is often a clear sign of compromise.

Step 6: Selecting Corrective Actions

To mitigate and prevent further compromise:

Change the password on the “sjames” account: The account was used across various IPs, indicating potential account compromise.

Block external SFTP access: Restricting SFTP to internal IPs only would prevent unauthorized external modifications. Since 41.21.18.102 was external, this would stop similar threats.

Summary

IP of Concern: 41.21.18.102

Indicator of Compromise: Modified index.html file

Corrective Actions:

Change the password on the sjames account

Block external SFTP access

These selections address both the immediate security breach and implement a preventative measure against future unauthorized access.

The code snippet provided suggests an SQL injection vulnerability, indicated by the use of "1=1," which is a common SQL injection technique to bypass authentication. To mitigate this risk, validating user input is the most effective control, as it ensures that any input is properly sanitized and escapes potentially malicious characters before interacting with the database. This is a key principle from CompTIA Security+ guidelines on secure coding practices. Options A and B are unrelated to the vulnerability type here, and while access control (Option C) is generally good practice, it does not specifically prevent SQL injection.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solutions are implemented to streamline security operations and improve efficiency. Key benefits include:

C. Reduce repetitive tasks: SOAR solutions automate routine and repetitive tasks, which helps reduce analyst workload and minimize human error.

F. Generate reports and metrics: SOAR platforms can automatically generate comprehensive reports and performance metrics, allowing organizations to track incident response times, analyze trends, and optimize security processes.

Other options are less relevant to the core functions of SOAR:

A. Minimize security attacks: While SOAR can aid in quicker response, it does not directly minimize the occurrence of attacks.

B. Itemize tasks for approval: Task itemization for approval is more relevant to project management tools.

D. Minimize setup complexity: SOAR solutions often require significant setup and integration with existing tools.

E. Define a security strategy: SOAR is more focused on automating response rather than strategy definition.

Incident response playbooksprovide a structuredstep-by-step guidefor handling security incidents. Theydefine actions to takewhen specificthreat indicators or eventsoccur, ensuring acoordinated and consistent response​.

Option A (Prioritizing business-critical assets)relates more todisaster recovery (DR)than incident response.

Option C (Documenting asset management)is part ofIT governance, not incident response.

Option D (Defining DR sites)falls underbusiness continuity planning, not real-time incident handling.

Thus,B is the best answer, asplaybooks are designed to trigger appropriate responses to incidents​.

nessie.explosion should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest CVSSv3.1 exploitability score of 8.6. The exploitability score is a sub-score of the CVSSv3.1 base score, which reflects the ease and technical means by which the vulnerability can be exploited. The exploitability score is calculated based on four metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, and User Interaction. The higher the exploitability score, the more likely and feasible the vulnerability is to be exploited by an attacker12. nessie.explosion has the highest exploitability score because it has the lowest values for all four metrics: Network (AV:N), Low (AC:L), None (PR:N), and None (UI:N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network, without requiring any user interaction or privileges, and with low complexity. Therefore, nessie.explosion poses the greatest threat to the end user workstations, and should be remediated first. vote.4p, sweet.bike, and great.skills have lower exploitability scores because they have higher values for some of the metrics, such as Adjacent Network (AV:A), High (AC:H), Low (PR:L), or Required (UI:R). This means that the vulnerabilities are more difficult or less likely to be exploited, as they require physical proximity, user involvement, or some privileges34. References: CVSS v3.1 Specification Document - FIRST, NVD - CVSS v3 Calculator, CVSS v3.1 User Guide - FIRST, CVSS v3.1 Examples - FIRST

Determining the asset value of each system is the best action to perform first, as it helps to categorize and prioritize the systems based on the sensitivity of the data they host. The asset value is a measure of how important a system is to the organization, in terms of its financial, operational, or reputational impact. The asset value can help the security analyst to assign a risk level and a protection level to each system, and to allocate resources accordingly. The other actions are not as effective as determining the asset value, as they do not directly address the goal of promoting confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data. Interviewing the users who access these systems may provide some insight into how the systems are used and what data they contain, but it may not reflect the actual value or sensitivity of the data from an organizational perspective. Scanning the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist may help to identify and remediate some security issues, but it does not help to categorize or prioritize the systems based on their data sensitivity. Configuring alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits may help to detect and respond to some emerging threats, but it does not help to protect the systems based on their data sensitivity.

The lessons-learned register is an essential document that captures insights and feedback from past exercises or incidents, highlighting what went well and what did not. By utilizing this register, the SOC manager can identify specific areas for improvement and develop actionable steps to enhance future response efforts. According to CompTIA’s CySA+ and Security+ guidance, lessons learned fromtabletop exercises are crucial for iterative improvements in an incident response plan. Options A, B, and C are useful resources, but the lessons-learned register specifically focuses on reflection and improvement, which is the primary objective in this context.

Step 1: Reviewing the Vulnerability Remediation Timeframes

The remediation standards require servers to be patched based on their CVSS score:

CVSS > 9.0: Patch within 7 days

CVSS 7.9 - 9.0: Patch within 14 days

CVSS 5.0 - 7.9: Patch within 30 days

CVSS 0 - 5.0: Patch within 60 days

Step 2: Analyzing the Output Tab

From the Output tab:

Server 192.168.76.5 has a CVSS score of 9.2 for an unsupported Microsoft IIS version, indicating a critical vulnerability requiring a patch within 7 days.

Server 192.168.76.6 has a CVSS score of 7.4 for a missing secure attribute on HTTPS cookies, which falls in the 5.0 - 7.9 range, requiring a patch within 30 days.

Since the question asks for the server to be patched within 14 days, we need to focus on servers with CVSS 7.9 - 9.0:

None of the servers have a CVSS score that falls precisely in the 7.9 - 9.0 range.

However, 192.168.76.5, with a CVSS score of 9.2, has a vulnerability that necessitates a quick response and fits as it must be patched within the shortest timeframe (7 days, which includes 14 days).

The server that fits within a 14-day urgency, based on standard practices, would be 192.168.76.5.

Step 3: Reviewing the Environment Tab

The Environment Tab provides additional context for 192.168.76.5:

It’s in the dev environment, which is internal and not publicly accessible.

MFA is required, indicating security measures are already present.

Step 4: Selecting the Appropriate Technique and Mitigation

For 192.168.76.5, with the Microsoft IIS unsupported version:

Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release is the most suitable option, as upgrading IIS will resolve the unsupported software vulnerability by bringing it up-to-date with supported versions.

This technique addresses the root cause, which is the unpatched, outdated software.

Summary

Server to be patched within 14 calendar days: 192.168.76.5

Appropriate technique and mitigation: Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release

This approach ensures that the most critical vulnerabilities are addressed promptly, maintaining security compliance.

The correct answer is A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls.

A disaster recovery exercise is a simulation or a test of the disaster recovery plan, which is a set of procedures and resources that are used to restore the normal operations of an organization after a disaster or a major incident. The goal of a disaster recovery exercise is to provide metrics and test continuity controls, which are the measures that ensure the availability and resilience of the critical systems and processes of an organization. A disaster recovery exercise can help evaluate the effectiveness, efficiency, and readiness of the disaster recovery plan, as well as identify and address any gaps or issues .

The other options are not the best descriptions of the goal of a disaster recovery exercise. Verifying the roles of the incident response team (B) is a goal of an incident response exercise, which is a simulation or a test of the incident response plan, which is a set of procedures and roles that are used to detect, contain, analyze, and remediate an incident. Providing recommendations for handling vulnerabilities © is a goal of a vulnerability assessment, which is a process of identifying and prioritizing the weaknesses and risks in an organization’s systems or network. Performing tests against implemented security controls (D) is a goal of a penetration test, which is an authorized and simulated attack on an organization’s systems or network to evaluate their security posture and identify any vulnerabilities or misconfigurations.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:The command output shown indicates that the analyst used a TCP connection test to check if communication on port 443 (usually HTTPS) succeeded. Here’s why each option was or was not suitable:

A. nmap: While nmap can scan ports, it does not provide direct feedback on connection success or failure in the manner shown.

B. tnc (Test-NetConnection in PowerShell): This command in PowerShell is specifically designed to test connectivity to a specified port and IP address. The output (TcpTestSucceeded: False) is characteristic of the tnc command.

C. ping: The ping command only tests ICMP echo replies and does not indicate success or failure on specific ports.

D. tracert: tracert traces the path packets take to reach a host but does not provide a direct indication of port availability or success.

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a target’s network or server with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing external SaaS resources. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/

Vulnerability B is the vulnerability that the analyst should be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email. Vulnerability B is a remote code execution vulnerability in Microsoft Outlook that allows an attacker to run arbitrary code on the target system by sending a specially crafted email message. This vulnerability is very dangerous, as it does not require any user interaction or attachment opening to trigger the exploit. The attacker only needs to send an email to the victim’s Outlook account, and the code will execute automatically when Outlook connectsto the Exchange server. This vulnerability has a high severity rating of 9.8 out of 10, and it affects all supported versions of Outlook. Therefore, the analyst should prioritize patching this vulnerability as soon as possible to prevent potential compromise of the workstations.

According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official References: https://www.first.org/cvss/

After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of the compromise. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

Phishing attacks arebest mitigated through user education and training. The50% reduction in phishing attemptssuggests a strongawareness programthat improved employee vigilance​.

Option A (Patching)helps prevent exploits but does notdirectly reduce phishing attempts.

Option B (Configuration management)ensures proper system setup but does notaddress phishing prevention.

Option D (Threat modeling)is useful for security planning but does notactively reduce phishing attempts.

Thus,C is the correct answer, asawareness training significantly decreases phishing success rates by educating employees on email-based threats​.

Placing a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox is the best action to perform first, as it preserves all mailbox content, including deleted items and original versions of modified items, for potential legal or forensic purposes. A legal hold is a feature that allows an administrator to retain mailbox data for a user indefinitely or for a specified period, regardless of the user’s actions or retention policies. A legal hold can be applied to a mailbox using Litigation Hold or In-Place Hold in Exchange Server or Exchange Online. A legal hold can help to ensure that evidence of data exfiltration or other malicious activities is not lost or tampered with, and that the organization can comply with any legal or regulatory obligations. The other actions are not as urgent or effective as placing a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox, as they do not address the immediate threat of data loss or compromise. Enabling filtering on the web proxy may help to prevent some types of data exfiltration or malicious traffic, but it does nothelp to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Disabling the public email access with CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) may help to block or monitor the use of public email services by employees, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Configuring a deny rule on the firewall may help to block or monitor the network traffic from the employee’s laptop, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally.

An on-path attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies network traffic between two parties. In this case, someone with internal access may be performing an on-path attack by forcing users into port 80, which is used for HTTP communication, instead of port 443, which is used for HTTPS communication. This would allow the attacker to compromise the user accounts and access the company’s internal portal.

Mitigate is the best term to describe the risk management principle that the company is exercising, as it means to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. By implementing a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities, the company is mitigating the threat of cyberattacks that could exploit those vulnerabilities and compromise the security or functionality of the systems. The other terms are not as accurate as mitigate, as they describe different risk management principles. Transfer means to shift theresponsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as an insurer or a contractor. Accept means to acknowledge the existence of a risk and decide not to take any action to reduce it, usually because the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high. Avoid means to eliminate the possibility of a risk by changing the plans or activities that could cause it, such as cancelling a project or discontinuing a service.

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.

The log entry "......\boot.ini" is indicative of a directory traversal attack, where an attacker attempts to access files and directories that are stored outside the web root folder.

The log snippet "......\boot.ini" is indicative of a directory traversal attack. This type of attack aims to access files and directories that are stored outside the web root folder. By manipulating variables that reference files with “../” (dot-dot-slash), the attacker may be able to access arbitrary files and directories stored on the file system.

A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the security weaknesses of a system or network. A vulnerability scan can help a security analyst to effectively identify the most security risks associated with a locally hosted server, such as missing patches, misconfigurations, outdated software, or exposed services. A vulnerability scan can also provide recommendations on how to remediate the identified vulnerabilities and improve the security posture of the server12 References: 1: What is a Vulnerability Scan? | Definition and Examples 2: Securing a server: risks, challenges and best practices - Vaadata

The signature of the malware is a unique identifier that can be used to compare it with known malware samples and their behaviors. Open-source threat intelligence sources provide information on various types of malware, their indicators of compromise, and their mitigation strategies. By cross-referencing the signature with these sources, the analyst can determine the type of malware and its telemetry. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: configuring the EDR to perform a full scan may not provide additional information on the malware type; transferring the malware to a sandbox environment may expose the analyst to further risks; logging in to the affected systems and running netstat may not reveal the malware activity.

The correct answer is A. Address space layout randomization.

Address space layout randomization (ASLR) is a security control that randomizes the memory address space of a process, making it harder for an attacker to exploit memory-based vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows1. ASLR can also prevent a security analyst from finding the proper memory address of a piece of malicious code, as the memory address changes every time the process runs2.

The other options are not the best explanations for why the memory address changes every time the process runs. Data execution prevention (B) is a security control that prevents code from being executed in certain memory regions, such as the stack or the heap3. Stack canary © is a security technique that places a random value on the stack before a function’s return address, to detect and prevent stack buffer overflows. Code obfuscation (D) is a technique that modifies the source code or binary of a program to make it more difficult to understand or reverse engineer. These techniques do not affect the memory address space of a process, but rather the execution or analysis of the code.

Rolling out a CDN is the best control to mitigate the Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. A CDN is a Content Delivery Network, which is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the web page, and the content delivery server. A CDN can help protect against Layer 4 DDoS attacks, which are volumetric attacks that aim to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target website by sending a large amount of traffic, such as SYN floods, UDP floods, or ICMP floods. A CDN can mitigate these attacks by distributing the traffic across multiple servers, caching the web content closer to the users, filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic, and providing scalability and redundancy for the website12. References: How to Stop a DDoS Attack: Mitigation Steps for Each OSI Layer, Application layer DDoS attack | Cloudflare

The correct answer is A. XML.

STIX and OpenloC are two standards for representing and exchanging cyber threat intelligence (CTI) information. STIX stands for Structured Threat Information Expression and OpenloC stands for Open Location and Identity Coordinates. Both standards use XML as the underlying data format to encode the information in a structured and machine-readable way. XML stands for Extensible Markup Language and it is a widely used standard for defining and exchanging data on the web. XML uses tags, attributes, and elements to describe the structure and meaning of the data. XML is also human-readable, as it uses plain text and follows a hierarchical and nested structure.

XML is not the only format that can be used to make STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines, but it is the most common and widely supported one. Other formats that can be used include JSON, CSV, or PDF, depending on the use case and the preferences of the information producers and consumers. However, XML has some advantages over other formats, such as:

XML is more expressive and flexible than JSON or CSV, as it can define complex data types, schemas, namespaces, and validation rules.

XML is more standardized and interoperable than PDF, as it can be easily parsed, transformed, validated, and queried by various tools and languages.

XML is more compatible with existing CTI standards and tools than other formats, as it is the basis for STIX 1.x, TAXII 1.x, MAEC, CybOX, OVAL, and others.

The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a public repository of standardized identifiers and descriptions for common cybersecurity vulnerabilities. It helps security analysts to identify, prioritize, and report on the most critical vulnerabilities in their systems and applications. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) is a collection of information and analysis on current and emerging cyber threats; Cyber Analytics Repository (CAR) is a knowledge base of analytics developed by MITRE based on the ATT&CK adversary model; ATT&CK is a globally-accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of various cybersecurity frameworks and standards, such as CVE, CTI, CAR, and ATT&CK, in chapter 1. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each framework and standard, such as CVE, which provides a common language for describing and sharing information about vulnerabilities1, page 28. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

Implementing segmentation with ACLs is the best solution to secure the network. Segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks, or segments, based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Segmentation can help improve the network performance, scalability, and manageability, as well as enhance the network security by isolating the sensitive or critical data and systems from the rest of the network. ACLs are Access Control Lists, which are rules or policies that specify which users, devices, or applications can access a network segment or resource, and which actions they can perform. ACLs can help enforce the principle of least privilege, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the network segments or resources12. Configuring logging and monitoring to the SIEM, deploying MFA to cloud storage locations, and rolling out an IDS are all good security practices, but they are not the best solution to secure the network. Logging and monitoring tothe SIEM can help detect and analyze the network events and incidents, but they do not prevent them. MFA can help authenticate the users who access the cloud storage locations, but it does not protect the network from attacks or breaches. IDS can help identify and alert the network intrusions, but it does not block them34 . References: Network Segmentation: What It Is and How to Do It Right, What is an Access Control List (ACL)? | IBM, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security, [What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? | IBM]

The correct answer is A. System hardening.

System hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its attack surface, applying patches and updates, configuring security settings, and implementing security controls. System hardening can help prevent or mitigate vulnerability events that may affect operating systems. Host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication are examples of security controls that can be applied to harden a system1.

The other options are not the best descriptions of the scenario. A hybrid network architecture (B) is a network design that combines on-premises and cloud-based resources, which may or may not involve system hardening. Continuous authorization © is a security approach that monitors and validates the security posture of a system on an ongoing basis, which is different from system hardening. Secure access service edge (D) is a network architecture that delivers cloud-based security services to remote users and devices, which is also different from system hardening.

SVR02 has a CVSS score of 7.1 and is exploitable, making itthe highest priority for remediation​.

SVR01 (CVSS 8.9) is not exploitable, so it is a lower risk.

SVR03 (CVSS 3.5) is exploitablebut has alower severitythan SVR02.

SVR04 (CVSS 6.7) is not exploitable, reducing its urgency.

Thus,B (SVR02) is the correct answer, as it presentsthe highest immediate risk​.

tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or thedestination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers

https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/

Part 1:

Part 2:

Based on the compliance report, I recommend the following changes for each server:

AppServ1: No changes are needed for this server.

AppServ2: Disable or upgrade TLS 1.0 and TLS 1.1 to TLS 1.2 on this server to ensure secure encryption and communication between clients and the server. Update Apache from version 2.4.17 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs.

AppServ3: Downgrade Apache from version 2.4.19 to version 2.4.18 or lower on this server to ensure compatibility and stability with the company’s applications and policies. Change the port number from 8080 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.

AppServ4: Update Apache from version 2.4.16 to version 2.4.18 or greater on this server to fix any potential vulnerabilities or bugs. Change the port number from 8443 to either port 80 (for HTTP) or port 443 (for HTTPS) on this server to follow the default port convention and avoid any confusion or conflicts with other services.

The most likely vulnerability in this system is hard-coded credential. Hard-coded credential is a practice of embedding or storing a username, password, or other sensitive information in the source code or configuration file of a system or application. Hard-coded credential can pose a serious security risk, as it can expose the system or application to unauthorized access, data theft, or compromise if the credential is discovered or leaked by an attacker. Hard-coded credential can also make it difficult to change or update the credential if needed, as it may require modifying the code or file and redeploying the system or application. 

The best implementation to give the best central visibility into the events occurring throughout the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually is B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM.

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that helps organizations detect, analyze, and respond to security threats before they disrupt business1. SIEM tools collect, aggregate, and correlate log data from various sources across an organization’s network, such as applications, devices, servers, and users. SIEM tools also provide real-time alerts, dashboards, reports, and incident response capabilities to help security teams identify and mitigate cyberattacks2345.

By configuring the servers to forward logs to a SIEM, the security analysts can have a central view of potential threats and monitor security incidents across the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually. This can save time, improve efficiency, and enhance security posture2345.

Deploying a database to aggregate the logging (A) may not provide the same level of analysis, correlation, and alerting as a SIEM tool. Sharing the log directory on each server to allow local access © may not be scalable or secure for a large number of servers. Automating the emailing of logs to the analysts (D) may not be timely or effective for real-time threat detection and response. Therefore, B is the best option among the choices given.

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that helps analysts to understand the relationships between the adversary, the victim, the infrastructure, and the capability involved in an attack. It also enables analytical pivoting, which is the process of moving from one piece of information to another related one, and identifies knowledge gaps that need further investigation. 

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Performing a vulnerability scan during the recovery phase ensures that corrective actions, such as patches or configuration changes, have effectively addressed the vulnerabilities exploited during the incident. This step validates the system’s security before fully restoring operations.

Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management.

D (4: HTTPS traffic to an external IP - 5.29.1.5)

The log entry shows an internal system (172.16.1.30) communicating with an external IP (5.29.1.5) overTCP 443 (HTTPS)usingBrowser.exe.

HTTPS traffic to an unknown external IP could indicate data exfiltration, as attackers often use encrypted channels to disguise stolen data transfers.

G (7: FTP traffic to an external backup server - bank.backup.com)

The log entry indicates that an internal machine (172.16.1.25) is transferring data tobank.backup.comusingFTP (port 21)andFileZilla.

FTP is a major concern because it is an outdated, unencrypted protocolthat can be exploited for data exfiltration. If unauthorized, this could be a serious data breach.

Other Options:

A (ARP traffic) → Not a concern(Just address resolution)

B (RPC Kerberos traffic) → Normal for authentication

C (SMB traffic) → Internal file sharing

**E (DNS traffic) → Common, though could be exfiltration in some cases, but not in this log)

F (WUS traffic) → Appears to be Windows Update Service traffic, likely legitimate

D ("grnail.com") is a suspicious domain that resembles "gmail.com."

The high "bytes out" value (525,984 bytes) indicates potential data exfiltration.

Attackers often use typosquatting (e.g., "grnail.com" instead of "gmail.com") to trick users into visiting malicious sites.

Why Not Other Options?

A (Netflix, B YouTube, C TikTok) → Large downloads, but expected behavior for streaming sites.

E (Google Translate) → Low data volume, no exfiltration risk.

F (Office.com) → Microsoft service, no indication of malicious activity.

The malicious activity that was most likely attempted is SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery). This is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerable web application to make requests to other resources on behalf of the web server. In this case, the attacker tried to use the fopen function to access the local loopback address (127.0.0.1) on port 16, which could be a service that is not intended to be exposed to the public. The connection was refused, indicating that the port was closed or filtered. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Software and Application Security, page 66.

The scan output where ports are marked as “closed” suggests the use of ahalf-open or SYN scan. In a SYN scan, the scanner sends only the initial SYN packet and does not complete the TCP handshake. If a SYN-ACK is received, the port is open; if a RST is received, it is closed. This scanning method is also referred to as astealth scanand is frequently used to avoid detection.

The MTTD (Mean Time To Detect) is calculated by averaging the time elapsed in detecting incidents. From the given data: (180+150+170+140)/4 = 160 minutes. This is the correct answer according to the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide1, Chapter 4, page 161. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4, page 153; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, page 161.

Command and control (C2) is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 enables the adversary to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels. C2 allows the adversary to maintain persistence, exfiltrate data, execute commands, deliver payloads, or spread to other systems or networks.

The security administrator should investigate shtml.exe next, as it is a potential vulnerability that allows remote code execution on the web server. Nikto scan results indicate that the web server is running Apache on Windows, and that the shtml.exe file is accessible in the /scripts/ directory. This file is part of the Server Side Includes (SSI) feature, which allows dynamic content generation on web pages. However, if the SSI feature is not configured properly, it can allow attackers to execute arbitrary commands on the web server by injecting malicious code into the URL or the web page12. Therefore, the security administrator should check the SSI configuration and permissions, and remove or disable the shtml.exe file if it is not needed. References: Nikto-Penetration testing. Introduction, Web application scanning with Nikto

 Select the command that generated the output in tab 1:

netstat -bo

 Select the command that generated the output in tab 2:

tasklist

 Identify the file responsible for the malicious behavior:

cmd.exe

Select the command that generated the output in tab 1: The output in tab 1 displays active network connections, which can be generated using the netstat command with options to display the owning process ID.

Select the command that generated the output in tab 1:

netstat -bo

Select the command that generated the output in tab 2: The output in tab 2 lists the running processes with their PIDs and memory usage, which can be generated using the tasklist command.

Select the command that generated the output in tab 2:

tasklist

Identify the file responsible for the malicious behavior: To identify the malicious file, we compare the hashes of the current files against the baseline hashes. From the provided data:

The hash for cmd.exe in the current state (tab 3) is 372ab227fd5ea779c211a1451881d1e1.

The baseline hash for cmd.exe (tab 4) is a2cdef1c445d3890cc3456789058cd21.

Since these hashes do not match, cmd.exe is the file responsible for the malicious behavior.

According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, the best technique to provide the necessary assurance for embedded software that drives centrifugal pumps at a power plant is formal methods. Formal methods are a rigorous and mathematical approach to software development and verification, which can ensure the correctness and reliability of critical software systems. Formal methods can be used to specify, design, implement, and verify embedded software using formal languages, logics, and tools1.

Containerization, manual code reviews, and static and dynamic analysis are also useful techniques for software assurance, but they are not as rigorous or comprehensive as formal methods. Containerizationis a method of isolating and packaging software applications with their dependencies, which can improve security, portability, and scalability. Manual code reviews are a process of examining the source code of a software program by human reviewers, which can help identify errors, vulnerabilities, and compliance issues. Static and dynamic analysis are techniques of testing and evaluating software without executing it (static) or while executing it (dynamic), which can help detect bugs, defects, and performance issues1.

 The script uses PowerShell syntax, such as cmdlets, parameters, variables, and comments. PowerShell is a scripting language that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems.

Threat modelingis aproactiveapproach used toidentify, analyze, and mitigate potential threatsbefore they impact production systems. It is especially useful in early development stages to anticipate vulnerabilities and attack paths​.

Option B (Penetration testing)is areactive measureperformed on deployed systems, rather than prior to production.

Option C (Bug bounty)programs incentivize external researchers but do not proactively model risksbefore deployment.

Option D (SDLC training)improves security awareness but does notactively assess risks.

Thus,A (Threat modeling) is the best choice, as it enablesearly identification and mitigation of security risks​.

The analyst will be creating TTPs (Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures). TTPs describe the behavior, methods, and patterns used by attackers during a cyber attack. By focusing on TTPs, the analyst can develop a dynamic detection strategy that identifies malicious activities based on the observed behavior and patterns, rather than relying on static indicators like signatures or IOCs (Indicators of Compromise).

ISO 27001 is an international standard that establishes a framework for implementing, maintaining, and improving an information security management system (ISMS). It helps organizations demonstrate their commitment to protecting their data and complying with various regulations and best practices. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: PCI DSS is a standard that focuses on protecting payment card data; COBIT is a framework that provides guidance on governance and management of enterprise IT; ITIL is a framework that provides guidance on service management and delivery.

A social engineering attack is underway is the most likely explanation for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co, while the site’s standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company’s domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company’s VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company’s employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

The correct answer is A. To ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court.

Proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response because they ensure the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in case it needs to be presented in court. Evidence that is mishandled, tampered with, or poorly documented may not be accepted by the court or may be challenged by the opposing party. Therefore, incident responders should follow the best practices and standards for evidence collection, preservation, analysis, and reporting1.

The other options are not reasons why proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response. They are rather outcomes or benefits of conducting a thorough and effective incident response process. A lessons-learned analysis (B) is a way to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response team and improve their performance for future incidents. A postmortem analysis © is a way to determine the root cause, impact, and timeline of the incident and provide recommendations for remediation and prevention. A root cause analysis (D) is a way to identify the underlying factors that led to the incident and address them accordingly.

To improve the detection of known attacks and behavioralIndicators of Compromise (IoCs), the best approach is tointegrate with an open-source threat intelligence feed. Threat intelligence feeds provide up-to-date information on known malicious IPs, domains, file hashes, and behavioral patterns that attackers use​.

Option A (randomly generating and storing hash values)is impractical, as there are an infinite number of possible files.

Option B (alerting on any system change)would lead to excessive noise and false positives, making the system difficult to manage.

Option D (manually adding signatures)is useful but is not scalable or as timely as an external intelligence feed​.

Thus, the correct answer isC, as integrating an open-source threat intelligence feed enhances the SIEM’s ability to detect and respond to real-world threats​.

Penetration testing is the best strategy to evaluate the security of the software without the source code. Penetration testing is a type of security testing that simulates real-world attacks on the software to identify and exploit its vulnerabilities. Penetration testing can be performed on the software as a black box, meaning that the tester does not need to have access to the source code or the internal structure of the software. Penetration testing can help the analyst to assess the security posture of the software, the potential impact of the vulnerabilities, and the effectiveness of the existing security controls12. Static testing, vulnerability testing, and dynamic testing are other types of security testing, but they usually require access to the source code or the internal structure of the software. Static testing is the analysis of the software code or design without executing it. Vulnerability testing is the identification and evaluation of the software weaknesses or flaws. Dynamic testing is the analysis of the software code or design while executing it345. References: Penetration Testing - OWASP, What is a Penetration Test and How Does It Work?, Static Code Analysis | OWASP Foundation, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices, Dynamic Testing - OWASP

When a patch cannot be deployed due to conflicting routine system upgrades, updating the risk register and requesting a change to the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a practical approach. It allows for re-evaluation of the risk and adjustment of the SLA to reflect the current situation.

The correct answer is B. Adversary emulation.

Adversary emulation is a technique that involves mimicking the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of a specific threat actor or group to test the effectiveness of the security controls and incident response capabilities of an organization1. Adversary emulation can help identify and address the gaps and weaknesses in the security posture of an organization, as well as improve the readiness and skills of the security team. Adversary emulation can also help measure the dwell time, which is the duration that a threat actor remains undetected inside the network2.

The other options are not the best techniques to meet the CISO’s goals. Vulnerability scanning (A) is a technique that involves scanning the network and systems for known vulnerabilities, but it does not simulate a real attack or test the incident response capabilities. Passive discovery © is a technique that involves collecting information about the network and systems without sending any packets or probes, but it does not identify or exploit any vulnerabilities or test the security controls. Bug bounty (D) is a program that involves rewarding external researchers or hackers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an organization’s systems or applications, but it does not focus on a specific threat actor or group.

MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for the development of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, in government, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help security professionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensive framework of TTPs.

The output shows that port 80 is open and running an HTTP service, indicating that the host could potentially be vulnerable to web-based attacks. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: the host is responsive to the ICMP request, as shown by the “Host is up” message; the host is not running a mail server, as there is no SMTP or POP3 service detected; the host is not allowing unsecured FTP connections, as there is no FTP service detected.References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition123, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of nmap, a popular network scanning tool, in chapter 5. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each option in nmap, such as “-sV” for version detection2, page 195. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

Transfer is the risk management principle that is accomplished by purchasing cyber insurance. Transfer is a strategy that involves shifting the risk or its consequences to another party, such as an insurance company, a vendor, or a partner. Transfer does not eliminate the risk, but it reduces the potential impact or liability of the risk for the original party. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance that covers the losses and damages resulting from cyberattacks, such as data breaches, ransomware, denial-of-service attacks, or network disruptions. Cyber insurance can help transfer the risk of cyber incidents by providing financial compensation, legal assistance, or recovery services to the insured party. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

The best option to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address is C. Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline.

Data enrichment is the process of adding more information and context to raw data, such as IP addresses, by using external sources. Data enrichment can help analysts to gain more insights into the nature and origin of the threats they face, and to prioritize and respond to them accordingly. Dataenrichment for IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) means that the IPS can use enriched data to block or alert on malicious traffic based on various criteria, such as geolocation, reputation, threat intelligence, or behavior. By adding data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline, analysts can leverage the IPS’s capabilities to filter out known-malicious IP addresses before they reach the SIEM, or to tag them with relevant information for further analysis. This can save time and resources for the analysts, and improve the accuracy and efficiency of the SIEM.

The other options are not as effective or efficient as data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Joining an information sharing and analysis center (ISAC) specific to the company’s industry (A) can provide valuable threat intelligence and best practices, but it may not be timely or comprehensive enough to cover all possible malicious IP addresses. Uploading threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format (B) can help the IPS to identify and block malicious IP addresses based on standardized indicators of compromise, but it may require manual or periodic updates and integration with the SIEM. Reviewing threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert (D) can help analysts to verify and contextualize the malicious IP addresses, but it may be too late or too slow to prevent or mitigate the damage. Therefore, C is the best option among the choices given.

SLA (Service Level Agreement) is the best term to describe the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m., as it reflects the agreement between a service provider and a customer that specifies the services, quality, availability, and responsibilities that are agreed upon. An SLA is a common type of document that is used in various industries and contexts, such as IT, telecom, cloud computing, or outsourcing. An SLA typically includes metrics and indicators to measure the performance and quality of the service, such as uptime, response time, or resolution time. An SLA also defines the consequences or remedies for any breaches or failures of the service, such as penalties, refunds, or credits. An SLA can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, improve productivity, and strengthen relationships. The other terms are not as accurate as SLA, as they describe different types of documents or concepts. LOI (Letter of Intent) is a document that outlines the main terms and conditions of a proposed agreement between two or more parties, before a formal contract is signed. An LOI is usually non-binding and expresses the intention or interest of the parties to enter into a future agreement. An LOI can help to clarify the key points of a deal, facilitate negotiations, or demonstrate commitment. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that describes a mutual agreement or cooperation between two or more parties, without creating any legal obligations or commitments. An MOU is usually more formal than an LOI, but less formal than a contract. An MOU can help to establish a common ground, define roles and responsibilities, or outline expectations and goals. KPI (Key Performance Indicator) is a concept that refers to a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization or individual is achieving its key objectives or goals. A KPI is usually quantifiable andspecific, such as revenue growth, customer satisfaction, or employee retention. A KPI can help to track progress, evaluate performance, or identify areas for improvement.

The correct answer is D. Registry.

The registry is a database that stores system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. The registry contains information about the hardware, software, users, and preferences of the system. The registry can be accessed and modified using the Registry Editor tool (regedit.exe) or the command-line tool (reg.exe). The registry is organized into five main sections, called hives, which are further divided into subkeys and values.

The other options are not the best descriptions of where the analyst can find system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. config.ini (A) is a file that stores configuration settings forsome applications, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values. ntds.dit (B) is a file that stores the Active Directory data for a domain controller, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values. Master boot record © is a section of the hard disk that contains information about the partitions and the boot loader, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) logs provide visibility into network traffic patterns and can help detect insecure or unusual connections. These logs will show if non-secure protocols are used, potentially revealing exposed credentials. According to CompTIA CySA+, IDS logs are essential for identifying malicious activity related to communications and network intrusions. Options like DNS (A) and tcpdump (B) provide network details, but IDS specifically monitors for intrusions and unusual activities relevant to security incidents.

AUSB drop attackis acommon method for delivering ransomware, where an attacker leaves infected USB drives in strategic locations,tricking employees into plugging them into corporate devices​.

Option B (LFI - Local File Inclusion)exploitsweb applications, but the scenario lacksnetwork intrusion indicators.

Option C (Cross-site request forgery - CSRF)is used forexploiting authenticated web sessions, not ransomware delivery.

Option D (SQL injection)is used fordatabase exploitation, not file encryption malware.

Thus,A (USB drop) is the correct answer, asphysical malware introduction is a known ransomware attack vector​.

The first step for the security team when receiving a legal hold request is to notify the relevant departments to preserve all potentially relevant information. This ensures that no data is altered, deleted, or otherwise tampered with, which is critical for maintaining the integrity of the evidence. Preserving information includes emails, documents, and any other data that might be relevant to the legal matter. Establishing a chain of custody and backing up data are also important steps, but notifying the involved parties is the immediate priority to prevent data loss.

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR)solutions allow organizations tointegrate security tools, automate response actions, and aggregate threat intelligence. This matches the organization's goal ofthreat detection, real-time analysis, and data aggregation​.

Option A (DLP - Data Loss Prevention)is focused ondata securityrather than threat aggregation and response automation.

Option B (Heuristics)is amethod for threat detection, not aplatformfor security automation.

Option D (NAC - Network Access Control)manages device access rather than handling security automation.

Thus,C (SOAR) is the correct answer, asit automates threat detection, intelligence integration, and real-time response​.

The correct answer is A. 121.19.30.221.

Based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, the host that warrants additional investigation is 121.19.30.221, because it is the only host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range.

The log files show the following information:

The IP addresses of the hosts that accessed the web server

The date and time of the access

The file path of the requested resource

The number of bytes transferred

The organization’s priorities are:

Unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts

Denial of service attempts are more important than ensuring vendor data access

According to these priorities, the most serious threat to the organization is unauthorized data disclosure, which occurs when sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, altered, or used by an individual unauthorized to do so123. Therefore, the host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range poses the highest risk to the organization.

The file that contains sensitive data is /reports/2023/financials.pdf, as indicated by its name and path. This file was accessed by two hosts: 121.19.30.221 and 216.122.5.5. However, only 121.19.30.221 is not from the partner vendor’s range, which is 216.122.5.x. Therefore, 121.19.30.221 is a potential unauthorized data disclosure threat and warrants additional investigation.

The other hosts do not warrant additional investigation based on the log files and the organization’s priorities.

Host 134.17.188.5 accessed /index.html multiple times in a short period of time, which could indicate a denial of service attempt by flooding the web server with requests45. However, denial of service attempts are less critical than unauthorized data disclosure according to the organization’s priorities, and there is no evidence that this host succeeded in disrupting the web server’s normal operations.

Host 202.180.1582 accessed /images/logo.png once, which does not indicate any malicious activity or threat to the organization.

Host 216.122.5.5 accessed /reports/2023/financials.pdf once, which could indicate unauthorized data disclosure if it was not authorized to do so. However, this host is from the partner vendor’s range, which is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access according to the organization’s requirements.

Therefore, based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, host 121.19.30.221 warrants additional investigation as it poses the highest risk of unauthorized data disclosure to the organization.

The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event is the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis, as it reflects the main goal and benefit of this problem-solving approach. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a process of discovering the root causes of problems in order to identify appropriate solutions. A root cause is the core issue or factor that sets in motion the entire cause-and-effect chain that leads to the problem. A root cause analysis assumes that it is more effective to systematically prevent and solve underlying issues rather than just treating symptoms or putting out fires. A root cause analysis can be performed using various methods, tools, and techniques that help to uncover the causes of problems, such as events and causal factor analysis, change analysis, barrier analysis, or fishbone diagrams. A root cause analysis can help to improve quality, performance, safety, or efficiency by finding and eliminating the sources of problems. The other options are not as accurate as the root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event, as they do not capture the essence or value of conducting a root cause analysis. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented is a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting timelines can help to establish the sequence of events and actions that led to the problem, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting is also a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting and reporting incidents can help to communicate and share information about problems and solutions, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process is another possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Developing recommendations can help to implement solutions and prevent future problems, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes.

Vulnerability 2 has the highest impact metrics, specifically the highest attack vector (AV) and attack complexity (AC) values. This means that the vulnerability is more likely to be exploited and more difficult to remediate.

JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) is commonly used for transmitting data in web applications and would be suitable for updating dashboards that integrate various data sources. It's lightweight and easy to parse and generate.

Wiresharkis apacket capture and analysis toolthat allows analysts to inspect network traffic and detectcleartext credentialssent over protocols like HTTP, FTP, and Telnet​.

Option A (OpenVAS)is avulnerability scanner, not a network analysis tool.

Option B (Angry IP Scanner)identifiesactive hosts, but does not analyze packet contents.

Option D (Maltego)is used forOSINT and network reconnaissance, not packet inspection.

Thus,C (Wireshark) is the correct answer, as itcaptures and analyzes network packets to identify unencrypted passwords​.

Automation is the best concept to describe the example, as it reflects the use of technology to perform tasks or processes without human intervention. Automation can help to improve efficiency, accuracy, consistency, and scalability of various operations, such as identity and access management (IAM). IAM is a security framework that enables organizations to manage the identities and access rights of users and devices across different systems and applications. IAM can help to ensure that only authorized users and devices can access the appropriate resources at the appropriate time and for the appropriate purpose. IAM can involve various tasks or processes, such as authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, auditing, or reporting. Automation can help to simplify and streamline these tasks or processes by using software tools or scripts that can execute predefined actions or workflows based on certain triggers or conditions. For example, automation can help to create, update, or delete user accounts in bulk based on a file or a database, rather than manually entering or modifying each account individually. The example in the question shows that an API is used to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system. An API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and exchange data with each other. An API can help to enable automation by providing a standardized and consistent way to access and manipulate data or functionality of a software component or system. The example in the question shows that an API is used to automate the process of inserting bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system, rather than manually entering each request one by one. The other options are not correct, as they describe different concepts or techniques. Command and control is a term that refers to the ability of an attacker to remotely control a compromised system or device, such as using malware or backdoors. Command and control is not related to what is described in the example. Data enrichment is a term that refers to the process of enhancing or augmenting existing data with additional information from external sources, such as adding demographic or behavioral attributes to customer profiles. Data enrichment is not related to what is described in the example. Single sign-on is a term that refers to an authentication method thatallows users to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as using a single username and password for different websites or services. Single sign-on is not related to what is described in the example.

The first action that should be completed to remediate the findings is to perform proper sanitization on all fields. Sanitization is a process that involves validating, filtering, or encoding any user input or data before processing or storing it on a system or application. Sanitization can help prevent various types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, or command injection, that exploit unsanitized input or data to execute malicious scripts, commands, or queries on a system or application. Performing proper sanitization on all fields can help address the most critical and common vulnerability found during the vulnerability assessment, which is XSS.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:A Service Level Agreement (SLA) defines the expectations, requirements, and metrics for third-party services, including response times and responsibilities during an event. Here’s an overview of each option:

A. BIA (Business Impact Analysis)

Explanation: BIA is used to assess potential impacts of disruptions to business operations, but it does not specify third-party response requirements.

B. DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan)

Explanation: DRP provides recovery procedures for internal systems and services but does not directly establish third-party obligations.

C. SLA (Service Level Agreement)

Explanation: SLAs set clear expectations for third-party services, including response times, performance metrics, and specific requirements during incidents. SLAs ensure accountability for external providers during critical events.

D. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding)

Explanation: An MOU defines general terms and intentions between parties but lacks the specific performance metrics required in an SLA.

Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data, while preserving the original format and structure of the data. This way, the data can be used for testing purposes without revealing the actual Pll information. Data masking is one of the best practices for data analysis of confidential data1. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 343; Best Practices for Data Analysis of Confidential Data

Reviewing the code and debugging the code are two methods that can help a developer identify and fix runtime errors in the code. Reviewing the code involves checking the syntax, logic, and structure of the code for any errors or inconsistencies. Debugging the code involves running the code in a controlled environment and using tools such as breakpoints, watches, and logs to monitor the execution and find the source of errors. Both methods can help improve the quality and security of the code. 

Mean time to detect (MTTD) is a metric that measures how quickly an organization can identify a security incident or a malicious actor in the environment. Reducing MTTD can improve visibility and reporting of threats, as well as prevent lateral movement and data exfiltration by detecting them sooner.

A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving orsending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. References: Mobile device forensics, Section: Acquisition

The best practice for securing access to sensitive data is to implement multifactor authentication (MFA), which combines multiple factors of authentication to enhance security.

Option B (Biometrics + Device with a Personalized Code) uses two strong factors:

Biometrics (something you are)

A device with a personalized code (something you have)This combination significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access​.

Option A (Randomized Code) is good but weaker than biometrics because it relies only on something you have.

Option C (Passphrase) is single-factor authentication, which is susceptible to brute-force attacks​.

Option D (One-time Code + Push Notification) is useful, but email-based authentication can be vulnerable to phishing and MITM attacks.

Fuzzing is a process used to test applications by inputting unexpected or random data to see how the application behaves. This method is particularly effective in identifying vulnerabilities such as buffer overflows, input validation errors, and other anomalies that could cause the application to crash or behave unexpectedly. By using fuzzing, the security team can ensure the new application is robust and capable of handling unexpected strings with anomalous formats without crashing.

The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification.

An incident manager should work with the legal and public relations entities to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice. The legal entity can provide guidance on the legal implications and obligations of disclosing the incident, such as compliance with data protection laws, contractual obligations, and liability issues. The public relations entity can help craft the appropriate message and tone for the public communication, as well as manage the reputation and image of the organization in the aftermath of the incident. These two entities can help the incident manager balance the need for transparency and accountability with the need for confidentiality and security12. References: Incident Communication Templates, Incident Management: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian

 The first thing that must be done when starting an investigation is to secure the scene. Securing the scene involves isolating and protecting the area where the incident occurred, as well as any potential evidence or witnesses. Securing the scene can help prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence, as well as any interference or obstruction of the investigation.

The Cyber Kill Chain methodology provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage. It is divided into seven stages: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control, and actions on objectives. It helps network defenders understand and prevent cyberattacks by identifying the attacker’s objectives and tactics. References: The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a Cyberattack

Integrating an IT service delivery ticketing system to track remediation and closure is the best approach to ensure all vulnerabilities are patched in accordance with the SLA. A ticketing system is a software tool that helps manage, organize, and track the tasks and workflows related to IT service delivery, such as incident management, problem management, change management, and vulnerability management. A ticketing system can help the security team to prioritize, assign, monitor, and document the remediation of the vulnerabilities, and to ensure that they are completed within the specified time frame and quality standards. A ticketing system can also help the security team to communicate and collaborate with other teams, such as the IT operations team, the development team, and the business stakeholders, and to report on the status and progress of the remediation efforts12. Creating a compensating control item, accepting the risk, and requesting an exception are not the best approaches to ensure all vulnerabilitiesare patched in accordance with the SLA, as they do not address the root cause of the problem, which is the large number of critical and high findings that require patching. These approaches may also introduce more risks or challenges for the security team, such as compliance issues, resource constraints, or business impacts3 . References: What is a Ticketing System? | Freshservice ITSM Glossary, Vulnerability Management Best Practices, Compensating Controls: An Impermanent Solution to an IT … - Tripwire, [Risk Acceptance in Information Security - Infosec Resources], [Exception Management - ISACA]

The vulnerability scan shows that the version information is visible in the http-server-header, which can be exploited by attackers to identify vulnerabilities specific to that version. Removing or obfuscating this information can enhance security.

XDR logs will confirm the malware infection because XDR is a system that collects and analyzes data from multiple sources, such as endpoints, networks, cloud applications, and email security, to detect and respond to advanced threats12. XDR can provide a comprehensive view of the attack chain and the context of the malware infection. Firewall logs, IDS logs, and MFA logs are not sufficient to confirm the malware infection, as they only provide partial or indirect information about the network traffic, intrusion attempts, or user authentication. References: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA, XDR: definition and benefits for MSPs| WatchGuard Blog, Extended detection and response - Wikipedia

SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface · Arachni/arachni Wiki · GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) platforms help automate and orchestrate incident response tasks, including phishing triage.

SOAR reduces triage time by automatically:

Parsing phishing emails (checking headers, links, attachments).

Running automated playbooks to check for known malicious indicators.

Escalating real threats while dismissing false positives.

Why Not Other Options?

B (Increase security awareness) → Helps prevent phishing but does NOT reduce triage time.

C (Implement EDR) → EDR is useful for endpoint protection but does NOT specifically reduce phishing triage time.

D (Install a "Report Phishing" button) → Helps report phishing but does NOT automate the triage process.

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) would have reduced the complexity of identity and access management in cloud-based assets. CASBs provide visibility into cloud application usage, data protection, and governance for cloud-based services.

The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is:

function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F “.in-addr” ’{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo “$1 | $info” }

This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies

Data exfiltration is the theft or unauthorized transfer or movement of data from a device or network. It can occur as part of an automated attack or manually, on-site or through an internet connection, and involve various methods. It can affect personal or corporate data, such as sensitive or confidential information. Data exfiltration can be prevented or detected by using compression, encryption, authentication, authorization, and other controls1

The network activity shows that a device on the network is sending an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. This could indicate that the device is compromised by malware or an insider threat, and that the email is used to exfiltrate data from the network to an external party. The email could contain attachments, links, or hidden data that contain the stolen information. The timing of the email could be designed to avoid detection by normal network monitoring or security systems.

The OWASP Web Security Testing Guide (WSTG) includes a section on threat modeling, which is a structured approach to identify, quantify, and address the security risks associated with an application. The first step in the threat modeling process is decomposing the application, which involves creating use cases, identifying entry points, assets, trust levels, and data flow diagrams for the application. This helps to understand the application and how it interacts with external entities, as well as to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities1. The other options are not part of the OWASP WSTG threat modeling process.

Regular expressions are powerful tools for searching text based on specific patterns, making them ideal for parsing Linux log files to detect security events with repeatable patterns. In Bash, regular expressions can be used in commands like grep or awk to efficiently filter log data. CompTIA CySA+emphasizes the use of regular expressions in log analysis for pattern matching, a common requirement for identifying suspicious activities in log files. Options B, C, and D are less suited for this specific task due to their limited pattern-matching capabilities or platform constraints.

Agent-based scansare runlocally on hostsvia installed agents, whichsignificantly reduces network trafficwhile allowing in-depth visibility and accurate scanning. They’re ideal for bandwidth-limited or sensitive networks.

Credentialed scans (A)still transmit data over the network.

Individual scans (B)is ambiguous and not a standard term.

Baseline scans (C)focus on policy compliance, not reducing traffic.

?Reference:

Chapple & Seidl – Vulnerability Management, Chapter 6: Scanning Techniques

CS0-003 Domain 2.1 – Vulnerability Scanning Methods

During an incident, the legal team plays a crucial role in handling regulatory compliance and reviewing legal implications, such as contractual obligations and reporting requirements. Advising on regulatory reporting (Option C) ensures the organization meets legal mandates, while reviewing contracts (Option B) can address new or emergency services needed during the incident. According to CompTIA CySA+ and Security+ guidelines, these legal responsibilities are vital for compliance and risk management.Options related to staffing, damage assessments, and clearances typically fall under operational or HR responsibilities rather than legal purview.

An Office document with a malicious macro was opened is the most likely explanation for the suspicious activity on the company laptop, as it reflects the common technique of using macros to execute PowerShell commands that download and run malware. A macro is a piece of code that canautomate tasks or perform actions in an Office document, such as a Word file or an Excel spreadsheet. Macros can be useful and legitimate, but they can also be abused by threat actors to deliver malware or perform malicious actions on the system. A malicious macro can be embedded in an Office document that is sent as an attachment in a phishing email or hosted on a compromised website. When the user opens the document, they may be prompted to enable macros or content, which will trigger the execution of the malicious code. The malicious macro can then use PowerShell, which is a scripting language and command-line shell that is built into Windows, to perform various tasks, such as downloading and running malware from a remote URL, bypassing security controls, or establishing persistence on the system. The log excerpt shows that PowerShell was used to download a string from a URL using the WebClient.DownloadString method, which is a common way to fetch and execute malicious code from the internet. The log also shows that PowerShell was used to invoke an expression (iex) that contains obfuscated code, which is another common way to evade detection and analysis. The other options are not as likely as an Office document with a malicious macro was opened, as they do not match the evidence in the log excerpt. A credential-stealing website was visited is possible, but it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL. A phishing link in an email was clicked is also possible, but it does not explain what happened after the link was clicked or how PowerShell was involved. A web browser vulnerability was exploited is unlikely, as it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL.

USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems. The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.

 XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website. XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application’s processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official References:

https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe

https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf

https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.html

The CEO should initiate an alert to department managers to speak privately with affected staff. This is because the trade secret is confidential and should not be disclosed to the public. Additionally, the CEOshould verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments to ensure compliance with data protection laws.

The vulnerability with the highest CVSS score and an active exploit is Microsoft CVE-2021-34527 (PrintNightmare). Although only present on two instances, its high severity (8.4) and exploitable nature make it a priority. PrintNightmare is a well-known remote code execution vulnerability, which can be a critical risk. According to CompTIA CySA+ and vulnerability management practices, prioritizing based on severity and exploitability is essential, even over the number of instances. Other vulnerabilities listed are less severe or lack active exploitation.

A sandbox environment is a safe and isolated way to analyze malware without affecting the organization’s network. An online service can provide a sandbox environment without requiring the security analyst to set up a virtual host or use an RDP session. Disconnecting and using an existing infected asset is risky and may not provide accurate results. References: Malware Analysis: Steps & Examples, Dynamic Analysis

Determining what attack the odd characters are indicative of is the next step that should be taken after reviewing web server logs and noticing several entries with the same time stamps, but all contain odd characters in the request line. This step can help the analyst identify the type and severity of the attack, as well as the possible source and motive of the attacker. The odd characters in the request line may indicate that the attacker is trying to exploit a vulnerability or inject malicious code into the web server or application, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, or command injection. The analyst can use tools and techniques such as log analysis, pattern matching, signature detection, or threat intelligence to determine what attack the odd characters are indicative of, and then proceed to the next steps of incident response, such as containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) technology aggregates and analyzes activity from many different resources across your IT infrastructure. The description of correlating information from various sources and triggering notifications aligns with the capabilities of a SIEM system.

Reimaging the device is the most effective way to eliminate persistent malware because some sophisticated malware, such as rootkits and firmware-level threats, can survive traditional scans and removals.

If a system keeps getting reinfected after cleaning, it may indicate a deeply embedded persistent threat, possibly in:

The Master Boot Record (MBR) or EFI firmware.

A compromised system restore point.

A hidden backdoor left by the malware.

Why Not Other Options?

A (Update and scan in safe mode) → Might help, but if malware is persistent, it will likely return.

C (Upgrade OS) → Does not necessarily remove malware; some malware survives OS upgrades.

D (Secondary scanner) → Useful for detection but does not guarantee complete removal.

Best Practice:

Replace the hard drive to eliminate firmware-level infections.

Reimage the system from a known-good source.

Update the OS and security patches before reconnecting to the network.

A risk score is a numerical value that represents the potential impact and likelihood of a vulnerability being exploited. It can help to identify the potential loss incurred by an issue and prioritize remediation efforts accordingly. https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cysa-cs0-003-study-guide

The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK.

MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and data. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements .

The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) © is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups.

The best action that would allow the analyst to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers is to upload the binary to an air gapped sandbox for analysis. An air gapped sandbox is an isolated environment that has no connection to any external network or system. Uploading the binary to an air gapped sandbox can prevent any communication or interaction between the binary and the attackers, as well as any potential harm or infection to other systems or networks. An air gapped sandbox can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and observe the behavior, functionality, or characteristics of the binary. 

From the logs, PC3 showsoutlook.exe spawning excel.exe at 1:15 PM, and laterexcel.exe spawning procdump.exe at 1:16 PM. This is highly suspicious becauseoutlook.exe should not normally launch Excel, andprocdump.exe is often used by attackers to dump process memory, which is a common technique in credential theft​.

PC1:Running expected Windows processes (wininit.exe spawning services.exe and lsass.exe).

PC2:Running a browser process (chrome.exe) from explorer.exe, which is normal.

PC3:Highly suspicious behavior (Excel spawning procdump.exe).

PC4:Running mstsc.exe (Remote Desktop) from explorer.exe, which is expected.

PC5:Running Firefox from explorer.exe, which is normal.

Thus,PC3 should be prioritized for investigationdue to its potential involvement in credential theft.

The correct answer is B. Metrics.

The Metrics section of the vulnerability report provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Metrics section contains the CVE dictionary entry and the CVSS base score of the vulnerability. CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures and it is a standardized system for identifying and naming vulnerabilities. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System and it is a standardized system for measuring and rating the severity of vulnerabilities.

The CVSS base score is a numerical value between 0 and 10 that reflects the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability, such as its exploitability, impact, and scope. The CVSS base score is composed of three metric groups: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Base metric group consists of six metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, Scope, and Impact. The Impact metric measures the effect of a vulnerability on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the affected resources.

In this case, the CVSS base score of the vulnerability is 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The Impact metric of the CVSS base score is 6.0, which indicates a high impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, the Metrics section provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs.

The other sections of the vulnerability report do not provide information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Payloads section contains links to request and response payloads that demonstrate how the vulnerability can be exploited. The Payloads section can help an analyst to understand how the attack works, but it does not provide a quantitative measure of the impact. The Vulnerability section contains information about the type, group, and description of the vulnerability. The Vulnerability section can help an analyst to identify and classify the vulnerability, but it does not provide a numerical value of the impact. The Profile section contains information about the authentication, times viewed, and aggressiveness of the vulnerability. The Profile section can help an analyst to assess the risk and priority of the vulnerability, but it does not provide a specific measure of the impact on data confidentiality.

OWASP ZAP (Zed Attack Proxy) is a tool recommended for quickly testing web applications for vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, path traversal, and cross-site scripting. It is an open-source web application security scanner that helps identify security issues in web applications during the development and testing phases.

SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation, and response, which is a term that describes a set of tools, technologies, or platforms that can help streamline, standardize, and automate security operations and incident response processes and tasks. SOAR can help minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations by reducing manual work, human errors, response time, or complexity. SOAR can also help enhance collaboration, coordination, efficiency, or effectiveness of security operations and incident response teams.

An important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident is to identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures. The lessons-learned step is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents

Increasing training and awareness for all staff is the best way to address the issue of employees being enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and running downloaded files when prompted by phone calls. This issue is an example of social engineering, which is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. Social engineering can take many forms, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, or impersonation. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and train the staff on how to recognize and avoid common social engineering tactics, such as:

Verifying the identity and legitimacy of the caller or sender before following their instructions or clicking on any links or attachments

Being wary of unsolicited or unexpected requests for information or action, especially if they involve urgency, pressure, or threats

Reporting any suspicious or anomalous activity to the security team or the appropriate authority

Following the organization’s policies and procedures on security awareness and best practices

Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered