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CSQA CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Quality Policy is a:

Options:

A.

Statement of principles

B.

Mission of the company

C.

Vision of the company

D.

Statement of objectives

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Questions 5

When there is modification to the structure of a system, which testing type should be used?

Options:

A.

Recovery Testing

B.

Cycle Testing

C.

Regression Testing

D.

Equivalency Class Testing

E.

Structural Testing

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Questions 6

"Establish Functional Improvement Objectives" is a step in the ____________ of benchmarking.

Options:

A.

Planning Phase

B.

Analysis Phase

C.

Integration Phase

D.

Action Phase

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Questions 7

-- Exhibit –

CSQA Question 7

-- Exhibit --

In the Cost of Quality diagram shown, the COQ cost labeled "A" represents:

Options:

A.

Prevention Costs

B.

Failure Costs

C.

Appraisal Costs

D.

Cost of Production

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Questions 8

Processes add value to both management and the workers. Give three reasons why processes are needed from a management perspective, and three reasons why processes are needed from a worker's perspective.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 9

A "master list" of processes that support an organization in accomplishing its goals is known as a:

Options:

A.

Process Map

B.

Strategic Plan

C.

Tactical Work Plan

D.

Process Inventory

E.

Audit List

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Questions 10

Which one of the following is NOT a step for benchmarking to establish a baseline goal?

Options:

A.

Develop a clearly defined baseline in your organization

B.

Select a 'process model' for the organization

C.

Identify the organizations you desire to baseline against

D.

Compare baseline calculations

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Questions 11

One of the reasons a quality baseline needs to be established is:

Options:

A.

Identify missing requirements

B.

Identify perceived quality problems

C.

Measure other organizations' quality

D.

Prepare quality audits

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Questions 12

In the context of the PDCA cycle, Work Processes represent the _____ component and the Check Processes represent the ___________component.

Options:

A.

Do | Check

B.

Plan | Do

C.

Act | Check

D.

Do | Act

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Questions 13

Statement Testing is included in which of the following test data categories?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Structural

C.

Error Oriented

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Questions 14

Which of the following is the primary objective of a quality improvement program?

Options:

A.

Ensure our users are adequately trained in their work processes

B.

Reduce the defect rate in IT products and processes

C.

Identify the individuals responsible for poor quality

D.

Train workers in how to do quality work

E.

Identify processes that no longer work

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Questions 15

Good attributes of constructive criticism include:

Options:

A.

Do it privately

B.

Have the facts

C.

Be specific

D.

State the positive first

E.

All of the above

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Questions 16

Baselines should NOT be conducted:

Options:

A.

To determine where detailed investigation is required

B.

To identify problems / areas for quality improvement

C.

To evaluate individual performance

D.

To compare against external organizations

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Questions 17

Which one of the following is NOT one of the change control procedures?

Options:

A.

Proposed change should be formally approved

B.

Developers should make the program changes.

C.

An independent person, other than the person who made the change, should test the final revised program.

D.

Developer should provide access rights for the change in configuration management tool.

E.

The documentation system should be updated with all change sheets or change registers

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Questions 18

The check sheet is used to record data gathered over a period of time to determine frequency of an event.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 19

In a software system a control implemented to protect the security of the system is:

Options:

A.

Part of the overall system of internal controls

B.

Only part of an organization’s system of management controls

C.

Only part of the organization’s transaction process controls

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Questions 20

Which of the following is NOT one of the five types of listening?

Options:

A.

Therapeutic Listening

B.

Critical Listening

C.

Structured Listening

D.

Comprehensive Listening

E.

Discriminative Listening

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Questions 21

Checking if a date field on a screen gives an error on entering February 29 is an example of:

Options:

A.

Functional Testing

B.

Boundary Analysis

C.

White-Box Testing

D.

Error Guessing

E.

Performance Testing

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Questions 22

During a review, both the producer and product are reviewed.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 23

In a Waterfall Development Model, most risk management activity occurs close to milestones.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 24

Which task or tasks are helpful in building support for quality?

Options:

A.

Estimate the cost of quality

B.

Meet daily on quality

C.

Reward quality work

D.

All of the above

E.

A and C above

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Questions 25

Characteristics such as 'product based', 'defect detection', relates to:

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance

B.

Quality Control

C.

Quality Improvement

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Questions 26

Which of the following would be considered a standard unit of measurement?

Options:

A.

Cost per unit of work

B.

Lines of code

C.

Percent over budget

D.

Defect removal efficiency

E.

Defects per thousand lines of code

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Questions 27

A Standard states:

Options:

A.

What

B.

When

C.

Where

D.

Why

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Questions 28

Which of the following is not a planning activity?

Options:

A.

Environment Planning

B.

Capabilities and Opportunities Planning

C.

Assumptions and Potentials Planning

D.

Standards and Procedures Planning

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Questions 29

____________ Listening is when the listener is performing an analysis of what the speaker said.

Options:

A.

Therapeutic

B.

Critical

C.

Comprehensive

D.

Appreciative

E.

Discriminative

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Questions 30

Objective of assuring that the software / COTS can be integrated into the business system work flow is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

There is no disruption to normal operation

B.

Proper training can be given to users

C.

Manual system can be replaced

D.

None of the above

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Questions 31

As the type of product changes on the process maturity continuum, the work processes also change.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 32

______________is a statement of principles, and a broad guide to action.

Options:

A.

Quality Standards

B.

Quality Policy

C.

Quality Procedures

D.

Guidelines

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Questions 33

-- Exhibit –

CSQA Question 33

-- Exhibit --

In the diagram, the sections of the diagram labeled "A" and "B" represent larger portions of "DO" and "CHECK". Note that the top of the diagram represents a more creative process and lower portion a more defined process.

Options:

A.

A = DO, B = CHECK

B.

A = CHECK, B = DO

C.

A and B are same

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Questions 34

Which of the following management philosophies would be associated with a quality management philosophy as opposed to the traditional management philosophy?

Options:

A.

Competition

B.

Focus on Detection

C.

Teamwork

D.

Controlling

E.

Fire Fighting

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Questions 35

In the new quality management philosophy, the emphasis must be on:

Options:

A.

Defect Identification

B.

Quality Control

C.

Reducing Rework

D.

Catching Defects

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Questions 36

Which organization developed the generally accepted model for internal control?

Options:

A.

AICPA

B.

COSO

C.

CobiT

D.

ERME ISO

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Questions 37

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of Functional Testing?

Options:

A.

Potential of missing logical errors in software

B.

Its tests do not ensure that user requirements have been met

C.

Its tests may not mimic real-world situations

D.

None of the above

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Questions 38

Audits can be performed by the individuals involved in conducting the work.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 39

For contracted software, detailing the obligations of both contractual parties within the contract addresses:

Options:

A.

What is done?

B.

Who does it?

C.

When it is done?

D.

How it is done?

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Questions 40

Which of the following is not a process within Level 4 for maturing Quality Assurance Processes?

Options:

A.

Processes Aligned to Objectives

B.

Processes Integrated

C.

Process Optimization

D.

Process History Database

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Questions 41

The purpose of a security awareness program is to achieve all of the following objectives, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Have individuals understand their security roles or responsibility

B.

Have individuals understand the organization's security policy

C.

Have individuals implement security practices into their software

D.

Have individuals understand the security controls in place to protect IT resources

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Questions 42

Which of the following quality control activities is most effective in uncovering defects?

Options:

A.

Inspections

B.

Unit Testing

C.

Integration Testing

D.

System Testing

E.

Acceptance Testing

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Questions 43

If you were to download a software package, which had been developed and placed on the internet for general usage, the one thing you could not control is:

Options:

A.

Ability to test the software

B.

Defining the requirements

C.

Determining how the software will be used

D.

Training IT staff in how to use the software

E.

Deciding not to use the software

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Questions 44

The theory of levels of maturity is that organizations can skip a level if business needs require them to be at a higher maturity level.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 45

-- Exhibit –

CSQA Question 45

-- Exhibit --

The diagram is called a:

Options:

A.

Run Chart

B.

Pie Chart

C.

Bar Chart

D.

Pareto Chart

E.

Control Chart

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Questions 46

Process ___________ allows priorities to be set for defining or improving processes.

Options:

A.

Execution

B.

Management

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring

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Questions 47

Many managers use a metrics dashboard to present measurement data to the user of that data. Another name for a dashboard is:

Options:

A.

Subjective Measures

B.

Objective Measures

C.

Valid Measures

D.

Key Indicators

E.

Reliable Measures

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Questions 48

Many organizations have chosen to outsource all or part of their IT services. Assume you are an IT quality assurance manager and you have been asked by senior management in your organization about outsourcing. They want to know the answer to these two questions:

1. What are the major advantages to outsourcing software development?

2. What are the major disadvantages to outsourcing software development?

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 49

After establishing the team for conducting security baseline, the first step should be to:

Options:

A.

Set up the process

B.

Set the measures

C.

Set the requirements and goals

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Questions 50

Which of the following is / are level(s) for maturing the Deliverables Processes?

Options:

A.

Constraint Requirements

B.

Business Requirements

C.

Relational Requirements

D.

All of the above

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Questions 51

The concept of "just in time", as pioneered by Toyota, is only applicable to inventory control.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 52

Which of the following is NOT normally considered one of the questions that must be answered in performing quality planning?

Options:

A.

Where are we?

B.

Where do we want to go?

C.

How are we going to get there?

D.

When will it be done?

E.

If it fails, who is responsible?

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Questions 53

-- Exhibit –

CSQA Question 53

-- Exhibit --

The diagram is an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

Process Map Diagram

B.

Affinity Diagram

C.

Force Field Diagram

D.

Flowchart

E.

Cause-and-Effect Diagram

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Questions 54

Which party(s) is responsible to ensure protection of intellectual property rights included within a contract for software development?

Options:

A.

The contracting organization

B.

The organization that will develop software

C.

Both the contracting organization and the organization that will develop the software

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Questions 55

The factors that need to be addressed during contract negotiations for software developed by an outside organization include the following, except for:

Options:

A.

Adequacy of Control

B.

Life of Contract

C.

Warranty

D.

Multi-Contractor Problem Resolution

E.

Penalties for Non-performance

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Questions 56

Quality Assurance activities comes under:

Options:

A.

Cost of Quality

B.

Appraisal Costs

C.

Failure Costs

D.

Prevention Costs

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Questions 57

While contracting for outsourced software development, ___________ refers to the rights of the customer to run the application system in more than one location.

Options:

A.

Maintainability

B.

Transportability

C.

Security

D.

Reliability

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Questions 58

As per Crosby, to reduce Total Product Cost, the best approach is to:

Options:

A.

Increase prevention costs

B.

Increase appraisal and failure costs

C.

Reduce prevention costs

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Questions 59

As the maturity level increases, the cost per unit of work increases.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 60

Which of the criteria should be followed to select a process model such as CMMI or ISO?

Options:

A.

Applicability of the model to the organization’s goals and objectives

B.

Management commitment

C.

Need for baseline assessments

D.

Need for measurable goals and objectives

E.

All of the above

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Questions 61

A contract that will assure the contracting organization of effective ongoing operation maintenance of the contracted software should include which of the following contractual provisions?

Options:

A.

Speed of service

B.

Nearness of service

C.

Cost of service

D.

Competency of service personnel

E.

All of the above

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Questions 62

Which of the following types of testing is considered Dynamic Testing?

Options:

A.

Code Inspections

B.

System Reviews

C.

Code Analyzers

D.

Unit Testing

E.

Checklists

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Questions 63

Process mapping identifies or maps relationships with all the below mentioned activities except?

Options:

A.

Between processes and the organization's mission and goals

B.

Its process exit criteria and work products

C.

Its deliverables (products and services)

D.

Its functional units or roles (people)

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Questions 64

Processes containing only common causes of variation are considered stable.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 65

Many contracts contain provisions to determine how the contract will be changed in the event that some undetermined circumstance occurs. This provision in a contract is called:

Options:

A.

Compensation for Error

B.

Exercising Options

C.

Renegotiation

D.

Termination Provisions

E.

Cost Limitations

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Questions 66

As a Test Manager for the project team, you are required to develop the test schedule. List down the phases and high level activities that would become part of the schedule.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 67

An "offshore" development company has been selected to develop a new inventory control system for your business. Your manager has asked you to develop a plan that will alleviate his concerns about "knowledge transfer" from the development contractor to your company's staff. Briefly describe the plan you will present to your manager.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 68

You have performed an analysis of production level defects and concluded that many of these defects were introduced inadvertently when changes to other parts of the software were being made. What type of validation technique is used to identify defects caused by modifications to other parts of the code and when is this type of testing appropriate?

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 69

To produce quality products and services, it very important to have mature deliverables processes, which translates the customer requirements correctly throughout the life cycle phases. Briefly describe each level of the five-level model for Deliverables Processes maturity.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 70

Explain the difference between 'goals' and 'objectives'. Give two example goals with a corresponding objective.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 71

The relationship with the software development contractor and the customer is an ongoing relationship that must be kept viable and healthy. The contractor wants to sell more software development services to the customer and the customer wants software that works and can be enhanced and maintained.

List and describe four major concerns that arise in maintaining a relationship of harmony and good will between the customer and contractor.

Type your answer in the box provided. Use options on the box toolbar to edit your response as needed before moving to the next question.

Options:

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Questions 72

If a measure is considered valid, it means that:

Options:

A.

It is easy to be obtained

B.

It is objective

C.

It measures what it is intended to measure

D.

Two or more people can collect the same number

E.

It is robust

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Questions 73

Quality award given in Japan is:

Options:

A.

Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Awards

B.

Deming Prize

C.

Juran Prize

D.

Japanese Quality Award

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Questions 74

From a control perspective, detective controls are only effective when what other types of controls are implemented?

Options:

A.

Environmental Controls

B.

Preventive Controls

C.

Training Controls

D.

Corrective Controls

E.

Audit Controls

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Questions 75

Which has frequently been referred to as the most difficult task in getting people to use the process?

Options:

A.

Determining the need for a process

B.

Writing the process

C.

Testing the process

D.

Deploying the process

E.

Improving the process

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Questions 76

Which of the following is / are used for determining the magnitude of the Risk?

Options:

A.

Using Personal Opinion or Team Consensus

B.

Using a Risk Formula

C.

Using Annual Loss Expectation (ALE) Estimation

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Questions 77

Determining which risks are likely to affect the project and documenting the characteristics of each is called ________ .

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Risk Management

C.

Risk

D.

Risk Identification

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Questions 78

Which of the following is the most difficult component of the decision making process?

Options:

A.

Identifying the individual to make a decision

B.

The decision voting process

C.

Achieving consensus among the involved parties

D.

Setting time to implement the decisions

E.

Encouraging the involved parties to contribute to the process

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Questions 79

Yield or productivity is the example of ___________ indicators.

Options:

A.

Process Input

B.

Process Output

C.

Process Definition

D.

Process Layout

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Questions 80

Within COTS software, attributes designed to "get you out of trouble" when you get into trouble is which aspect of a COTS software?

Options:

A.

Knowledge to Execute

B.

Understandability

C.

Quality of Communication

D.

Effectiveness of Help Routines

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Questions 81

The COSO Enterprise Risk Management model’s ____________ component ensures that management has a process in place to set objectives and that the chosen objectives support and align with the organization’s mission/vision.

Options:

A.

Information and Communication

B.

Objective Setting

C.

Risk Assessment

D.

Control Activities

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Questions 82

Stress-testing subjects a system to which of the following types of tests?

Options:

A.

Test Scripts

B.

System Requirements

C.

Large Volumes of Transactions

D.

Change to Transactions

E.

Error Conditions

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Questions 83

It is generally recognized that software testing should begin at which software development phase?

Options:

A.

Requirements Phase

B.

Internal Design Phase

C.

External Design Phase

D.

Build Phase

E.

After Software has Been Built

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Questions 84

When using a cause-and-effect diagram to build controls, the effect that is desired is the achievement of the control objective. The causes defined in the cause-and-effect diagram are listed for what purpose:

Options:

A.

To identify who is responsible for control

B.

To identify the control needed to achieve the control objective

C.

To quantify the risks associated with the control objective

D.

To match the causes to the COSO control model

E.

To match the causes to the enterprise risk management model

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Questions 85

When maturing the management process, movement will be from:

Options:

A.

Product Focus to Process Focus

B.

Process Focus to Product Focus

C.

Team Focus to Product Focus

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Questions 86

If you found, through testing software, that your IT project team was building software with an average of 58 defects per 1000 function points, this would be a:

Options:

A.

Baseline

B.

Benchmark

C.

Complexity Metric

D.

Size Measure

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Questions 87

Customer surveys are:

Options:

A.

Objective Baselines

B.

Subjective Baselines

C.

Predictive Baselines

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Questions 88

Who is responsible to ensure that the organization has sufficiently trained personnel to protect its IT resources?

Options:

A.

CIO / IT Director

B.

Management

C.

Delivery Manager

D.

Director

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Questions 89

__________ are used to determine whether the standards have been adhered to or not.

Options:

A.

Processes

B.

Templates

C.

Checklists

D.

Guidelines

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Questions 90

Which of the following tools / techniques is a facilitated technique where all teammates participate by individually ranking ideas, issues, concerns, and solutions; then the group achieves a consensus by combining the individual rankings?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Nominal Group Technique

C.

Force Field Analysis

D.

Affinity Diagram

E.

Benchmarking

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Questions 91

In terms of benefit compared to the control's cost, identify the correct sequence of controls in ascending order of cost.

Options:

A.

Preventive Control, Detective Control, Corrective Control

B.

Detective Control, Corrective Control, Preventive Control

C.

Preventive Control, Corrective Control, Detective Control

D.

Preventive Control, Detective Control, Corrective Control

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Questions 92

Which of the following is considered a metric?

Options:

A.

Lines of code

B.

Hours worked

C.

Pages of documentation

D.

Mean time to failure

E.

Number of staff assigned to a project

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Questions 93

Which answer below is NOT one of the seven steps for implementing an IT quality function?

Options:

A.

Develop a charter

B.

Identify a quality manager

C.

Staff and train the quality function

D.

Audit the use of quality tools

E.

Build support for quality

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Questions 94

A common term that is used today for contracting for software development is "performance based contracting." Performance based contracting means:

Options:

A.

The previous performance of a contractor is a critical success factor

B.

The performance criteria for a contractor will be defined in the contract

C.

The performance of the software will be defined in the contract

D.

The contractor will receive a bonus if performance exceeds the contract provisions

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Questions 95

If the input product to a workbench does not meet the entry criteria, it should be accepted to save time and reworked later in the process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 96

A standard must be measurable, attainable, and necessary. What is meant by 'attainable' in this context?

Options:

A.

Given current resources and time frame; the standard can reasonably be complied with every time.

B.

Given current resources; the standard can reasonably be complied within this time frame.

C.

Given current time frame; the standard can reasonably be complied with given resources.

D.

Given current resources and time frame; the standard can reasonably be complied with in this cycle.

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Questions 97

Prerequisites for quality planning is / are:

Options:

A.

IT vision, mission, and goals documented

B.

Management support for planning

C.

Planners competent in the planning process

D.

All of the above

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Questions 98

Which type of control method does not cause interpersonal problems?

Options:

A.

Automatic

B.

Peer Reviews

C.

Supervisory

D.

Third Party

E.

None of the above

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Questions 99

Which of the following is considered a product measure?

Options:

A.

Overall development time

B.

Average level of experience of development staff

C.

Rate time

D.

Quality

E.

Time spent fixing errors

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Questions 100

The Quality Manager is in the business of selling quality.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 101

COTS software is normally developed prior to an organization selecting that software for its use.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 102

Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?

Options:

A.

Automatic

B.

Auditors

C.

Peer Reviews

D.

Supervisory

E.

Third Party

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Questions 103

Which of the following is NOT a QFD Horizontal Deployment?

Options:

A.

Functional Deployment

B.

Information Deployment

C.

Customer Deployment

D.

Task Deployment

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Questions 104

The team member is told what to do, and then how to check that what was done was done correctly. This statement shows relationship between:

Options:

A.

Plan and Do Processes

B.

Plan and Check Processes

C.

Do and Check Processes

D.

Do and Act Processes

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Questions 105

In the broad context of comparing quality assurance activities and quality control activities in an IT organization, which of the following would be considered a quality assurance activity?

Options:

A.

Developing Test Plans

B.

Conducting Design Inspections

C.

Developing Test Processes

D.

Performing Acceptance Testing

E.

Performing Regression Testing

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Questions 106

Organizations use many ways to determine the size of a program. Which of the following methods for measuring the size of a program can be used before the coding process is complete?

Options:

A.

Lines of code

B.

Programmer hours expended to write the code

C.

Function points

D.

Cyclomatic complexity

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Questions 107

Risk management is not an independent auditing process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 108

When contracting for software development, what is the correct sequence of events in the contracting life cycle?

Options:

A.

Contract negotiations, selection of an outside organization, operation and maintenance

B.

Selection of an outside organization, contract negotiations, operation and maintenance

C.

Operation and maintenance, contract negotiations, selection of an outside organization

D.

Selection of an outside organization, operation and maintenance, contract negotiations

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Questions 109

The development of the approach for process deployment is much harder than the actual deployment of the process.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 110

Which of the following is not a major component for quality management for the workgroup?

Options:

A.

Improvement processes

B.

Disciplined approach on continuous improvement

C.

Changing the culture

D.

Accomplishing an organization's mission

E.

Integrating new management techniques into day-to-day activities

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Questions 111

In which phase of the Quality Function's maturation does the organization's objectives move from Quality Control to Quality Assurance?

Options:

A.

Initial Phase

B.

Intermediate Phase

C.

Final Phase

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Questions 112

These five components (environment, risk assessment, control activities, information communication, and monitoring) are associated with which of the following control models:

Options:

A.

COSO Internal Control Framework Model

B.

ISO Model

C.

Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award Model

D.

Enterprise Risk and Management Model

E.

CobiT Model

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Questions 113

The focus of post-implementation reviews or post mortems is to:

Options:

A.

Correct the defects

B.

Improve the process

C.

Plan future projects

D.

Fix the blame for bad quality

E.

None of the above

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Questions 114

Which of the following is a characteristic of hardware compatibility?

Options:

A.

Disk Storage Unit Capacity

B.

Version of Operating System in Use

C.

Name of Operating System

D.

Program Compatibility

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Questions 115

Conducting software inspections would be considered which of the following cost-of-quality categories?

Options:

A.

Prevention

B.

Failure

C.

Appraisal

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Questions 116

Which of the following processes is / are within the Defect Management level for maturing the Quality Control Processes?

Options:

A.

Defect Database

B.

Defect Reporting

C.

Defect Analysis

D.

All of the above

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Questions 117

What should post-implementation audits NOT be used for?

Options:

A.

Determine if system objectives were met

B.

Determine if standards were followed

C.

Determine who is to blame for project problems

D.

Determine if IT quality objectives were achieved

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Questions 118

Which of the following is the measurement of your current level of performance:

Options:

A.

Baseline

B.

Benchmark

C.

Assessment

D.

Audit

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Questions 119

As the continuum of work processes move or evolve towards creative processes, the mix of written procedures and people skills change.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 120

COQ is also known as 'Price of Non-Conformance'.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 121

Laws and regulations affecting the products produced and operated are generally addressed in which planning activity:

Options:

A.

Business or Activity Planning

B.

Environment Planning

C.

Capabilities Planning

D.

Assumptions Planning

E.

Policies Planning

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Questions 122

A test case tested data values at 0, 9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51, 100. Which black-box technique was most likely used to generate these data points.

Options:

A.

Error Guessing

B.

Boundary Analysis

C.

Equivalence Partitioning

D.

Data Sampling

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Questions 123

If your IT organization adopted function points as the means to measure program size, this would enable you to estimate programming staff because you would know a program of 200 function points is twice as large as a program of 100 function points. This type of data is called:

Options:

A.

Nominal Data

B.

Ordinal Data

C.

Interval Data

D.

Ratio Data

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Questions 124

While unit testing should be done, it is not necessary to spend the time and effort to develop and document the unit test plan and cases because it is conducted by the developers themselves.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 125

When listening to a speaker, the speaker's verbal, vocal, and body channels always convey the same message.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 126

Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?

Options:

A.

Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended

B.

Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system

C.

Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications

D.

Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function

E.

None of the above

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Questions 127

In the PDCA cycle, if a check detects an abnormality, then record the abnormality and continue the work per the procedure.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 128

Tactical Planning answers the question:

Options:

A.

What to do?

B.

How to do it?

C.

What objectives need to be accomplished?

D.

How IT customers will be satisfied?

E.

How customer satisfaction will be exceeded?

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Questions 129

You have been requested to develop a “customer satisfaction” baseline. Even though many of the measures will be subjective, you have been told to make them quantitative when possible. Describe what quantitatively subjective means.

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Questions 130

One of the means to describe a work task or activity is a workbench; a workbench is a graphical representation of a work task. As a Quality Assurance Manager, one of your work tasks is to provide quality training for the IT staff. Describe the components on the workbench that you would use to train a single individual in the quality principles and indicate the entrance and exit criteria as well as the activity that you would perform for each component of the workbench.

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Questions 131

There are many potential risks associated with new technology. New technologies must be integrated without compromising software quality. The QA analyst has three roles in integrating new technology. Describe each of these roles of the QA analyst.

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Questions 132

What strategy should a Quality Manager recommend to senior management, if the organization wants to move from maturity level 2 to a higher level? Why?

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Questions 133

One of the key attributes of an effective quality environment is integrity and ethical values. Briefly explain four ways that integrity and ethical values are established in a quality environment.

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Questions 134

Two terms that are associated with quality management are mission and vision. Describe these two terms. Then, as a means of differentiating the two, briefly describe a mission for the quality assurance function and a vision for the quality assurance function.

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Questions 135

As the Test Manager of your project team you are responsible for tracking the defects and delivering a tested system, which is 'fit for use'. Design a defect tracking process so that the defects are prioritized and fixed on time.

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Questions 136

The following is an argument against measurement that was raised in a team meeting, "Measurement has a high cost, requires too much investment and the return is too low." Provide a counter-argument to that statement.

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Questions 137

Describe the major components of acquisition life cycle for contracted software?

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Questions 138

One of the steps recommended in any software development project is to identify risks and estimate the magnitude of those risks. This will assure that risks are properly addressed throughout the development process, as well as assuring that the high-magnitude risks will be recognized and addressed.

Your IT management has asked you how to best estimate the magnitude of a risk. List below what you believe would be a reasonable method your IT organization could use to determine the magnitude of a risk.

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Questions 139

Explain how a Force Field Analysis is performed and used.

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Questions 140

Your senior management wants to initiate a major process change in the organization and has asked you how to get people to follow the changed approach to the process. What tactics would you recommend for deploying the changed approach?

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Questions 141

Define the terms:

1. Preventive Controls

2. Detective Controls

3. Corrective Control.

List and describe two controls in each of these three categories of control.

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Questions 142

It is very important 'to evaluate how employees feel about their manager or leader' to assess the climate of a specific organization or group. An assessment of an organization's 'climate' discovers if the employees' satisfaction level is positive or negative.

Options:

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Questions 143

How can quality be quantified? Provide an explanation and illustrate with an example.

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Questions 144

There are four main "testing stages" in a structured software development process. Name the four testing stages and describe what the primary purpose of that test stage is.

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Questions 145

Describe five control methods for checking the quality of the work or product.

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Questions 146

Dr. W. Edward Deming stated 14 Quality Principles for organizations to use in becoming a world-class organization. Listed below are four of Dr. Deming's Quality Principles.

Explain what you believe is required to implement each of these four quality principles.

1. Create consistency of purpose in the company.

2. Institute modern aids to training on the job.

3. Drive out fear.

4. Look carefully at work standards.

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Options:

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Questions 147

Event identification, control activities, and risk response are included in which of the following internal control models?

Options:

A.

COSO Internal Control Model

B.

COSO Enterprise Risk Management Model

C.

CobiT Model

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Questions 148

In addition to meeting business functions requirements, critical success factors must be present in COTS software for it to be successful. List and describe five critical success factors that should be included when evaluating COTS software.

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Options:

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Questions 149

Explain the PDCA cycle, and describe how the PDCA cycle can be used for continuous process improvement.

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Options:

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Questions 150

In a measurement program 'managing by process' means to use processes to achieve the desired results. This phase consists of steps to implement measurement in a process by identifying the contributors to achieving the desired process results.

If a desired process result is to produce a work product on-time, identify three process contributors that could positively or negatively impact producing the work product on-time. For each of the contributors explain how you would measure it.

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Options:

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Questions 151

Compliance Assessments can be done through:

Options:

A.

First party audit

B.

Second party audit

C.

Third party audit

D.

All of the above

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Questions 152

Mode is the measures of central tendency. What does it represent?

Options:

A.

Average of the items in the population

B.

Sum of the items in the population

C.

Items are repeated most frequently

D.

Item at which half the items in the population are below this item and half the items are above this item

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Questions 153

The concept of continuous improvement as applied to quality means:

Options:

A.

Employees will continue to get better

B.

Processes will be improved by many small improvements

C.

Processes will be improved through a few large improvements

D.

Improved technology will be added to the process, such as acquiring CASE tools

E.

The functionality of the products will be enhanced

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Questions 154

Successful IT security programs consist of all the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Developing an IT security policy that reflects business needs

B.

Informing users of their IT security responsibilities

C.

Establishing processes for monitoring and reviewing the program

D.

Gathering data on violations only

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Questions 155

The first question of the six basic quality planning questions is, "Where are we?". Describe what should be addressed in:

1. Business or Activity Planning

2. Environment Planning

3. Capabilities and Opportunities Planning

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Options:

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Questions 156

Define the terms measurement dashboard and key indicators.

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Options:

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Questions 157

Process improvement is most effective when __________ are involved in improving the process.

Options:

A.

Users of the Process

B.

Quality Assurance Function

C.

Staff

D.

Management

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Questions 158

An objective for conducting a 'baseline study' can be to identify quantitatively 'potential problems'.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 159

The plan of organization in methods and procedures adopted by management to ensure that resource use is consistent with laws, regulations, and policies; that resources are safeguarded against waste, loss, and misuse; and that reliable data are obtained, maintained, and fairly disclosed in reports. The previous statement is the definition of:

Options:

A.

Auditing

B.

Internal Control

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Truth in Reporting

E.

Risk Analysis

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Questions 160

As processes mature, there is a decrease in cycle time to produce a product.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 161

Severity levels for defects should be defined at the start of the project:

Options:

A.

To maintain common understanding

B.

To assign severity of defects consistently

C.

To maintain common understanding and assign severity consistently

D.

None of the above

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Questions 162

Boundary analysis techniques are used to create test cases that divide equivalence partitioned groups.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 163

For maturing the management process at Level 3, which of the following should be in focus?

Options:

A.

Employee Suggestion System

B.

End-user Feedback System

C.

Employee Surveys

D.

Quality Planning

E.

None of the above

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Questions 164

Which of the following factors should NOT be considered when defining a Control Method?

Options:

A.

Risk Severity

B.

Cost, Effort, and Cycle Time Impact

C.

Strength of the Control Method

D.

Unavailability of Appropriate Resources and People

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Questions 165

If you use the PDCA cycle for managing processes, which activity is associated with the planning component?

Options:

A.

Process Definition

B.

Process Mapping

C.

Process Measurement

D.

Process Improvement

E.

Process Controls

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Questions 166

The variable COUNTRY can have the response Afghanistan, Albania, … , Zimbabwe. The data type of the variable COUNTRY is:

Options:

A.

Ratio

B.

Ordinal

C.

Nominal

D.

Interval

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Questions 167

The objective for having a common body of knowledge for quality assurance is:

Options:

A.

Define needed skills

B.

Define a profession

C.

Basis for developing the examination

D.

Lead a profession

E.

All of the above

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Questions 168

From a control perspective, there are two systems that are needed to process business transactions. One is a system that processes transactions and the other is:

Options:

A.

System that documents transaction processing

B.

System that trains the users in the software system

C.

System that controls the transaction processing

D.

System that tracks defects in the business system

E.

System that measures performance

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Questions 169

Evaluating and quantifying the risks, controls, and vulnerabilities is called _________ .

Options:

A.

Risk Analysis

B.

Risk Planning

C.

Risk

D.

Risk Management

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Questions 170

A process that is effected by an organization's board of directors, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of operations, reliability and financial reporting and compliance with applicable law and regulations is called:

Options:

A.

Corporate Governance

B.

System of Internal Control

C.

Code of Ethics

D.

Software Security

E.

Risk Analysis

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Questions 171

Which quality pioneer gave the concept of 'zero defects' ?

Options:

A.

Dr. Deming

B.

Philip Crosby

C.

Joseph Juran

D.

William Perry

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Questions 172

Which item below is NOT a statistical process control technique?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Sophisticated statistical tools and analysis

C.

Dashboards to be used in managing processes

D.

Process mapping

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Questions 173

Customer software requirements are an attribute of a:

Options:

A.

Product / Service

B.

Process

C.

Metric

D.

Architecture

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Questions 174

When comparing the ratio of testers to developers in your organization with the ratio of testers to developers in another organization, this would be:

Options:

A.

Baselining

B.

Benchmarking

C.

ROI Analysis

D.

Measurement

E.

None of the above

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Questions 175

A type of "Review" where the producer of the material facilitates the review is a:

Options:

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Inspection

C.

Peer Review

D.

Test Readiness Review

E.

All of the above

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Questions 176

Which of the following would be measured subjectively to develop a baseline:

Options:

A.

Number of people assigned a project

B.

Projects completed on schedule

C.

Understandability of training material

D.

Lines of code

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Questions 177

In the CobiT Model, defining and managing service levels, performance, problems and incidences is a component of:

Options:

A.

Plan and Organize

B.

Acquire and Implement

C.

Deliver and Support

D.

Monitor

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Questions 178

Which of the following models uses this four part cyclE. (part one - plan and organize; part two - acquire and implement; part three - deliver and support; part four - monitor)?

Options:

A.

COSO Model

B.

ISO Model

C.

Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award Model

D.

Enterprise Risk and Management Model

E.

CobiT Model

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Questions 179

If you had seven programs and the size in function points were 80, 20, 20, 60, 40, 50, and 150. What is the median size of those seven programs in function points?

Options:

A.

20

B.

30

C.

40

D.

50

E.

60

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Questions 180

Which of the following is NOT classified as a management tool?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Affinity Diagram

C.

Matrix

D.

Pie Chart

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Questions 181

Which of the following is NOT a component of a workbench? (A workbench is a graphic representation of a process.)

Options:

A.

Entrance Criteria (Inputs)

B.

Exit Criteria (Deliverables)

C.

Work Procedures

D.

Check Procedures

E.

Process Contract

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Questions 182

Management expresses their commitment to quality through:

Options:

A.

Total Quality Management

B.

Cost-of-Quality

C.

Quality Policy

D.

Vision

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Questions 183

Critical Success Factors (CSF) are those criteria or factors that:

Options:

A.

Are critical to be defined

B.

Must be present in acquired software

C.

Are very desirable in the acquired software

D.

Will be defined during acceptance testing

E.

Are limited to functional requirements

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Questions 184

The person who accepts personal responsibility for the success of quality management without being assigned the responsibility is called____________ .

Options:

A.

Quality Analyst

B.

Quality Manager

C.

Quality Champion

D.

Quality Controller

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Questions 185

Attribute of a product or service is called:

Options:

A.

Process

B.

Six Sigma

C.

JIT

D.

Quality

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Questions 186

Capability Maturity Model(s) (CMMs) are defined and managed by:

Options:

A.

Software Engineering Institute

B.

Malcolm Baldrige Organization

C.

International Standards Organization

D.

Quality Assurance Institute

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Questions 187

Which of the following activities should occur before processes are defined to ensure that the most critical processes are defined first.

Options:

A.

Do

B.

Design

C.

Implementation

D.

Check

E.

None of the above

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Questions 188

The primary responsibility of quality lies with:

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Senior Management

C.

Testing Team

D.

Developer

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Questions 189

Security passwords should be changed:

Options:

A.

On a regular basis

B.

Whenever somebody leaves an area

C.

When password compromise is suspected

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Questions 190

The objective of integrating business and quality planning in a single planning cycle is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

Resources should be involved in both strategic and tactical planning

B.

Adequate resources and time are available to perform the quality activities.

C.

Individuals executing the business plan cannot differentiate the quality planning from the business planning.

D.

Both business staff and the quality staff should be involved in IT planning

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Questions 191

The main objectives of process mapping is / are to understand:

Options:

A.

How a process contributes to meeting the organization's mission and goals?

B.

Who is responsible for the process?

C.

How the process interfaces to produce the organization's outcomes?

D.

All of the above

E.

None of the above

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Exam Code: CSQA
Exam Name: CSQA Certified Software Quality Analyst
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 639

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