CSSLP Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Questions and Answers

The Code of Ethics Canons in (ISC)2 code of ethics are as follows: Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure. Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally. Provide diligent and competent service to principals. Advance and protect the profession.

The economy of mechanism is a security design principle, which supports simple and comprehensive design and implementation of protection mechanisms, so that an unintended access path does not exist or can be readily identified and eliminated. Answer: D is incorrect. Separation of duties defines that the completion of a specific sensitivity activity or access to sensitive object depends on the satisfaction of multiple conditions. Answer: C is incorrect. Psychological acceptability defines the ease of use and intuitiveness of the user interface that controls and interacts with the access control mechanisms. Answer: A is incorrect. Least privilege maintains that an individual, process, or other type of entity should be given the minimum privileges and resources for the minimum period of time required to complete a task.

Audit trail or audit log comes under detective controls. Detective controls are the audit controls that are not needed to be restricted. Any control that performs a monitoring activity can likely be defined as a Detective Control. For example, it is possible that mistakes, either intentional or unintentional, can be made. Therefore, an additional Protective control is that these companies must have their financial results audited by an independent Certified Public Accountant. The role of this accountant is to act as an auditor. In fact, any auditor acts as a Detective control. If the organization in question has not properly followed the rules, a diligent auditor should be able to detect the deficiency which indicates that some control somewhere has failed. Answer: A is incorrect. Reactive or corrective controls typically work in response to a detective control, responding in such a way as to alert or otherwise correct an unacceptable condition. Using the example of account rules, either the internal Audit Committee or the SEC itself, based on the report generated by the external auditor, will take some corrective action. In this way, they are acting as a Corrective or Reactive control. Answer: C and D are incorrect. Protective or preventative controls serve to proactively define and possibly enforce acceptable behaviors. As an example, a set of common accounting rules are defined and must be followed by any publicly traded company. Each quarter, any particular company must publicly state its current financial standing and accounting as reflected by an application of these rules. These accounting rules and the SEC requirements serve as protective or preventative controls.

The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) of this project will be $68,250. Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Risk Management and Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF) where the Exposure Factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. As an example, if the Asset Value is reduced two thirds, the exposure factor value is .66. If the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. The result is a monetary value in the same unit as the Single Loss Expectancy is expressed. Here, it is as follows:

SLE = Asset Value * Exposure Factor

= 195,000 * 0.35

= $68,250

Answer: B, C, and D are incorrect. These are not valid SLE ' s for this project.

General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices:

Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer: B is incorrect. Assume environment data is not trustworthy principle is included in the General Principle 2. Answer: C is incorrect. Simplify the design principle is included in the General Principle 3.

The information system level is the tier 3. It addresses risks from an information system perspective, and is guided by the risk decisions at tiers 1 and 2. Risk decisions at tiers 1 and 2 impact the ultimate selection and deployment of requisite safeguards. This also has an impact on the countermeasures at the information system level. The RMF primarily operates at tier3 but it can also have interactions at tiers 1 and 2. Answer: A is incorrect. It is an invalid Tier description. Answer: D is incorrect. The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. Answer: C is incorrect. The mission and business process level is the Tier 2, and it addresses risks from the mission and business process perspective.

Brute force attack is the most likely cause of the account lockouts. In a brute force attack, unauthorized users attempt to log on to a network or a computer by using multiple possible user names and passwords. Windows 2000 and other network operating systems have a security feature that locks a user account if the number of failed logon attempts occur within a specified period of time, based on the security policy lockout settings. Answer: A is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else ' s IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer: C is incorrect. A SYN attack affects computers running on the TCP/IP protocol. It is a protocol-level attack that can render a computer ' s network services unavailable. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Answer: D is incorrect. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer, it is known as a PING attack.

ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development. Answer: C is incorrect. An encryption wrapper is a device that encrypts and decrypts the critical or all software codes at runtime. Answer: B is incorrect. Code obfuscation transforms the code so that it is less intelligible for a person. Answer: A is incorrect. Watermarking is the irreversible process of embedding information into a digital media. The purpose of digital watermarks is to provide copyright protection for intellectual property that is in digital form.

C and C++ programming languages are unmanaged code. Unmanaged code is compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system. Answer: C and B are incorrect. Java EE and Microsoft.Net are compiled into an intermediate code format.

An information system auditor is an individual who inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company ' s stated security objectives. He is responsible for reporting the senior management about the value of security controls by performing regular and independent audits. Answer: B is incorrect. A data owner determines the sensitivity or classification levels of data. Answer: A is incorrect. An informational systems security professional is an individual who designs, implements, manages, and reviews the security policies, standards, guidelines, and procedures of the organization. He is responsible to implement and maintain security by the senior-level management. Answer: C is incorrect. A senior management assigns overall responsibilities to other individuals.

The DAA issues one of the following four accreditation determinations: Approval to Operate (ATO): It is an authorization of a DoD information system to process, store, or transmit information. Interim Approval to Operate (IATO): It is a temporary approval to operate based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Interim Approval to Test (IATT): It is a temporary approval to conduct system testing based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Denial of Approval to Operate (DATO): It is a determination that a DoD information system cannot operate because of an inadequate IA design or failure to implement assigned IA Controls. Answer: E is incorrect. No such type of accreditation determination exists.

John will perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network. Fingerprinting is the easiest way to detect the Operating System (OS) of a remote system. OS detection is important because, after knowing the target system ' s OS, it becomes easier to hack into the system. The comparison of data packets that are sent by the target system is done by fingerprinting. The analysis of data packets gives the attacker a hint as to which operating system is being used by the remote system. There are two types of fingerprinting techniques as follows: 1.Active fingerprinting 2.Passive fingerprinting In active fingerprinting ICMP messages are sent to the target system and the response message of the target system shows which OS is being used by the remote system. In passive fingerprinting the number of hops reveals the OS of the remote system. Answer: D and B are incorrect. John should perform OS fingerprinting first, after which it will be easy to identify which services are running on the network since there are many services that run only on a specific operating system. After performing OS fingerprinting, John should perform networking mapping. Answer: C is incorrect. This is a pre-attack phase, and only after gathering all relevant knowledge of a network should John install a backdoor.

The Trademark law is a piece of legislation that contains the federal statutes of trademark law in the United States. The Act prohibits a number of activities, including trademark infringement, trademark dilution, and false advertising. Trademarks were traditionally protected in the United States only under State common law, growing out of the tort of unfair competition. Trademark law in the United States is almost entirely enforced through private lawsuits. The exception is in the case of criminal counterfeiting of goods. Otherwise, the responsibility is entirely on the mark owner to file suit in either state or federal civil court in order to restrict an infringing use. Failure to " police " a mark by stopping infringing uses can result in the loss of protection. Answer: D is incorrect. Copyright law of the United States governs the legally enforceable rights of creative and artistic works under the laws of the United States. Copyright law in the United States is part of federal law, and is authorized by the U.S. Constitution. The power to enact copyright law is granted in Article I, Section 8, Clause 8, also known as the Copyright Clause. This clause forms the basis for U.S. copyright law ( " Science " , " Authors " , " Writings " ) and patent law ( " useful Arts " , " Inventors " , " Discoveries " ), and includes the limited terms (or durations) allowed for copyrights and patents ( " limited Times " ), as well as the items they may protect. In the U.S., registrations of claims of copyright, recordation of copyright transfers, and other administrative aspects of copyright are the responsibility of the United States Copyright Office, a part of the Library of Congress. Answer: A is incorrect. The Espionage Act of 1917 was a United States federal law passed shortly after entering World War I, on June 15, 1917, which made it a crime for a person: To convey information with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the armed forces of the United States or to promote the success of its enemies. This was punishable by death or by imprisonment for not more than 30 years. To convey false reports or false statements with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the military or naval forces of the United States or to promote the success of its enemies and whoever when the United States is at war, to cause or attempt to cause insubordination, disloyalty, mutiny, refusal of duty, in the military or naval forces of the United States, or to willfully obstruct the recruiting or enlistment service of the United States. Answer: C is incorrect. Cyber law is a very wide term, which wraps up the legal issue related to the use of communicative, transactional and distributive aspect of networked information device and technologies. It is commonly known as INTERNET LAW. These Laws are important to apply as Internet does not tend to make any geographical and jurisdictional boundaries clear; this is the reason why Cyber law is not very efficient. A single transaction may involve the laws of at least three jurisdictions, which are as follows: 1.The laws of the state/nation in which the user resides 2.The laws of the state/nation that apply where the server hosting the transaction is located 3.The laws of the state/nation, which apply to the person or business with whom the transaction takes place

The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C & A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation Answer: F is incorrect. It is a Phase 3 activity.

The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C & A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. Answer: C, B, and A are incorrect. These phases do not take place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system.

The various methods of the HttpServletRequest interface are as follows: getRemoteUser(): It returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. isUserInRole(): It determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. getUserPrincipal(): It determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not defined in the

HttpServletRequest interface. The getCallerIdentity() method is used to obtain the java.security.Identity of the caller.

The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer: C is incorrect. The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company ' s operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work required, listing the resources to be used, and defining the management practices to be employed. Answer: B is incorrect. The business impact assessment is a method used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business. Answer: D is incorrect. The plan approval and implementation process involves creating enterprise-wide awareness of the plan, getting the final senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required.

Digital rights management (DRM) is an access control technology used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices. It describes the technology that prevents the uses of digital content that were not desired or foreseen by the content provider. DRM does not refer to other forms of copy protection which can be circumvented without modifying the file or device, such as serial numbers or keyfiles. It can also refer to restrictions associated with specific instances of digital works or devices. Answer: C is incorrect. Code signing is the process of digitally signing executables and scripts in order to confirm the software author, and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it is signed by use of a cryptographic hash. Answer: A is incorrect. A hypervisor is a virtualization technique that allows multiple operating systems (guests) to run concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating systems and checks their execution process. It provides isolation to the host ' s resources. The hypervisor is installed on server hardware. Answer: B is incorrect. Grid computing refers to the combination of computer resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.

Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows:

Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer: B is incorrect. Macof is a tool of the dsniff tool set and used to flood the local network with random MAC addresses. It causes some switches to fail open in repeating mode, and facilitates sniffing. Answer: C is incorrect. Sourcefire is the company that owns and maintains Snort. Answer: A is incorrect. NETSH is not a network intrusion detection system. NETSH is a command line tool to configure TCP/IP settings such as the IP address, Subnet Mask, Default Gateway, DNS, WINS addresses, etc.

Port scanning identifies open doors to a computer. Hackers and crackers use this technique to obtain unauthorized information.

Port scanning is the first basic step to get the details of open ports on the target system. Port scanning is used to find a hackable server with a hole or vulnerability. A port is a medium of communication between two computers. Every service on a host is identified by a unique 16-bit number called a port. A port scanner is a piece of software designed to search a network host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to check the security of their networks and by hackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromising it. Port scanning is used to find the open ports, so that it is possible to search exploits related to that service and application. Answer: D is incorrect. Phreaking is a process used to crack the phone system. The main aim of phreaking is to avoid paying for long- distance calls. As telephone networks have become computerized, phreaking has become closely linked with computer hacking. This is sometimes called the H/P culture (with H standing for Hacking and P standing for Phreaking). Answer: A is incorrect. It is defined as a system using a physical attribute for authenticating. Only authorized users are provided access to network or application. Answer: B is incorrect. It is described as a form of eavesdropping in which special equipments are used to pick up the telecommunication signals or data within a computer device.

Security Test and Evaluation (ST & E) occurs in Phase 3 of the DITSCAP C & A process. Answer: D is incorrect. The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C & A is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C & A level of effort, identify the main C & A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need Registration Negotiation Answer: A is incorrect. The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C & A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. The process activities of this phase are as follows: Configuring refinement of the SSAA System development Certification analysis Assessment of the Analysis Results Answer: B is incorrect. The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C & A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation

In order to accomplish the task, you should use the software testing technique. By using this technique you can determine compatibility of systems with custom applications or you can identify other unforeseen interactions. You can also use the software testing technique while you are upgrading software. Answer: B is incorrect. You can use the antivirus management to save the systems from viruses, unexpected software interactions, and the subversion of security controls. Answer: A is incorrect. You can use the safe software storage technique to ensure that the software and backup copies have not been modified without authorization. Answer: C is incorrect. You can use the backup control to perform back up of software and data.

Keystroke logging is used by attackers to record everything a person types, including usernames, passwords, and account information. Keystroke logging is a method of logging and recording user keystrokes. It can be performed with software or hardware devices. Keystroke logging devices can record everything a person types using his keyboard, such as to measure employee ' s productivity on certain clerical tasks. These types of devices can also be used to get usernames, passwords, etc. Answer: D is incorrect. Wiretapping is used to eavesdrop on voice calls. Eavesdropping is the process of listening in on private conversations. It also includes attackers listening in on network traffic. Answer: C is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else ' s IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer: A is incorrect. Packet sniffing is a process of monitoring data packets that travel across a network. The software used for packet sniffing is known as sniffers. There are many packet-sniffing programs that are available on the Internet. Some of these are unauthorized, which can be harmful for a network ' s security.

Abbreviated interview consists of informal and ad hoc interviews. Answer: D is incorrect. Substantial interview consists of informal and structured interviews. Answer: A is incorrect. Comprehensive interview consists of formal and structured interviews. Answer: B is incorrect. There is no such type of interview in NIST SP 800-53A.

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives a copy of an object that is marked as " secret " , he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the appropriate permission. Answer: B is incorrect. DAC is an access control model. In this model, the data owner has the right to decide who can access the data. Answer: A is incorrect. Role-based access control (RBAC) is an access control model. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization. For example, a backup administrator is responsible for taking backups of important data. Therefore, he is only authorized to access this data for backing it up. However, sometimes users with different roles need to access the same resources. This situation can also be handled using the RBAC model. Answer: C is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Policy Access Control.

Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. The Continuous Monitoring process consists of the following three main activities: Configuration management and control Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system Status reporting and documentation The objective of these tasks is to observe and evaluate the information system security controls during the system life cycle. These tasks determine whether the changes that have occurred will negatively impact the system security. Answer: A and C are incorrect. Security accreditation decision and security accreditation documentation are the two tasks of the security accreditation phase.

Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced. Answer: D is incorrect. The acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer: C is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.

The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

The Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA) is an agency of the United States Department of Defense responsible for the development of new technology for use by the military. DARPA has been responsible for funding the development of many technologies which have had a major effect on the world, including computer networking, as well as NLS, which was both the first hypertext system, and an important precursor to the contemporary ubiquitous graphical user interface. DARPA supplies technological options for the entire Department, and is designed to be the " technological engine " for transforming DoD. Answer: D is incorrect. The Defense Information Systems Agency is a United States Department of Defense combat support agency with the goal of providing real-time information technology (IT) and communications support to the President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, the military Services, and the Combatant Commands. DISA, a Combat Support Agency, engineers and provides command and control capabilities and enterprise infrastructure to continuously operate and assure a global net-centric enterprise in direct support to joint warfighters, National level leaders, and other mission and coalition partners across the full spectrum of operations. Answer: B is incorrect. The Defense Technical Information Center (DTIC) is a repository of scientific and technical documents for the United States Department of Defense. DTIC serves the DoD community as the largest central resource for DoD and government-funded scientific, technical, engineering, and business related information available today. DTIC ' s documents are available to DoD personnel and defense contractors, with unclassified documents also available to the public. DTIC ' s aim is to serve a vital link in the transfer of information among DoD personnel, DoD contractors, and potential contractors and other U.S. Government agency personnel and their contractors. Answer: A is incorrect. The Defense-wide Information Assurance Program (DIAP) protects and supports DoD information, information systems, and information networks, which is important to the Department and the armed forces throughout the day-to-day operations, and in the time of crisis. The DIAP uses the OSD method to plan, observe, organize, and incorporate IA activities. The role of DIAP is to act as a facilitator for program execution by the combatant commanders, Military Services, and Defense Agencies. The DIAP staff combines functional and programmatic skills for a comprehensive Defense-wide approach to IA. The DIAP ' s main objective is to ensure that the DoD ' s vital information resources are secured and protected by incorporating IA activities to get a secure net-centric GIG operation enablement and information supremacy by applying a Defense-in-Depth methodology that integrates the capabilities of people, operations, and technology to establish a multi-layer, multidimensional protection.

The various DoD policy series are as follows:

The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process), in 2006. DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8510.01 establishes a standard DoD-wide process with a set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit an Automated Information System (AIS) that will maintain the Information Assurance (IA) posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) throughout the system ' s life cycle. DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. It identifies four phases: 1.System Definition 2.Verification 3.Validation 4.Re-Accreditation

The principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power-on-self-test) are as follows: It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself. It discovers size and verifies system memory. It discovers, initializes, and catalogs all system hardware. It delegates control to other BIOS if it is required. It provides a user interface for system ' s configuration. It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices. It executes the bootstrap program. Answer: F is incorrect. The BIOS does not interrupt the execution of all running programs.

The public or commercial data classification is also built upon a four-level model, which are as follows: Public Sensitive Private Confidential Each level (top to bottom) represents an increasing level of sensitivity. The public level is similar to unclassified level military classification system. This level of data should not cause any damage if disclosed. Sensitive is a higher level of classification than public level data. This level of data requires a greater level of protection to maintain confidentiality. The Private level of data is intended for company use only. Disclosure of this level of data can damage the company. The Confidential level of data is considered very sensitive and is intended for internal use only. Disclosure of this level of data can cause serious damage to the company. Answer: C and E are incorrect. Unclassified and secret are the levels of military data classification.

The vulnerability, port, and network scanning tools are used in penetration testing. Vulnerability scanning is a process in which a Penetration Tester uses various tools to assess computers, computer systems, networks or applications for weaknesses. There are a number of types of vulnerability scanners available today, distinguished from one another by a focus on particular targets. While functionality varies between different types of vulnerability scanners, they share a common, core purpose of enumerating the vulnerabilities present in one or more targets. Vulnerability scanners are a core technology component of Vulnerability management. Port scanning is the first basic step to get the details of open ports on the target system. Port scanning is used to find a hackable server with a hole or vulnerability. A port is a medium of communication between two computers. Every service on a host is identified by a unique 16-bit number called a port. A port scanner is a piece of software designed to search a network host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to check the security of their networks and by hackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromising it. Port scanning is used to find the open ports, so that it is possible to search exploits related to that service and application. Network scanning is a penetration testing activity in which a penetration tester or an attacker identifies active hosts on a network, either to attack them or to perform security assessment. A penetration tester uses various tools to identify all the live or responding hosts on the network and their corresponding IP addresses. Answer: C is incorrect. This option comes under vulnerability scanning.

The Clark-Wilson security model dictates that subjects can only access objects through applications. Answer: A is incorrect. The Biba model does not let subjects write to objects at a higher integrity level. Answer: B is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula model has a simple security rule, which means a subject cannot read data from a higher level. Answer: D is incorrect. There is no such model as Biba-Clark model.

Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network, or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Following are the areas that can be exploited in a penetration test: Kernel flaws: Kernel flaws refer to the exploitation of kernel code flaws in the operating system. Buffer overflows: Buffer overflows refer to the exploitation of a software failure to properly check for the length of input data. This overflow can cause malicious behavior on the system. Race conditions: A race condition is a situation in which an attacker can gain access to a system as a privileged user. File and directory permissions: In this area, an attacker exploits weak permissions restrictions to gain unauthorized access of documents. Trojan horses: These are malicious programs that can exploit an information system by attaching themselves in valid programs and files. Social engineering: In this technique, an attacker uses his social skills and persuasion to acquire valuable information that can be used to conduct an attack against a system.

The various principle documents of transformation are as follows: CNSSP 22: It establishes a national risk management policy for national security systems. CNSSI 1199: It creates the technique in which the national security community classifies the information and information systems with regard to confidentiality, integrity, and availability. CNSSI 1253: It combines DCID 6/3, DOD Instructions 8500.2, NIST SP 800-53, and other security sources into a single cohesive repository of security controls. CNSSI 1253 A. It offers the techniques to assess adequacy of each security control. CNSSI 1260: It provides guidance to organizations with the characterization of their information and information systems. NIST 800-37, Revision 1: It defines the certification and accreditation (C & A) process. The NIST 800-37, Revision 1 is a combination of DNI, DoD, and NIST.

In private cloud, the cloud infrastructure is operated exclusively for an organization. The private cloud infrastructure is administered by the organization or a third party, and exists on premise and off premise.

A cold site provides an office space, and in some cases basic equipment. However, you will need to restore your data to that equipment in order to use it. This is a much less expensive solution than the hot site. Answer: D is incorrect. A hot site has equipment installed, configured and ready to use. This may make disaster recovery much faster, but will also be more expensive. And a school district can afford to be down for several hours before resuming IT operations, so the less expensive option is more appropriate. Answer: C is incorrect. A warm site is between a hot and cold site. It has some equipment ready and connectivity ready. However, it is still significantly more expensive than a cold site, and not necessary for this scenario. Answer: B is incorrect. Off site is not any type of backup site terminology.

The various objectives of the DoD 8500 series are as follows: Protecting information Defending systems Providing command and control and situational awareness Making sure that the information assurance is integrated into processes Increasing security awareness throughout the DoD ' s workforce

Technical Controls are also known as Logical Controls. These controls include the following: Implementing and maintaining access control mechanisms Password and resource management Identification and authentication methods Security devices Configuration of the infrastructure Answer: F is incorrect. It is a part of Administrative Controls.

NIACAP is a process, which provides a standard set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit systems that maintain the information assurance and the security posture of a system or site. Answer: D is incorrect. DITSCAP is a process, which establishes a standard process, a set of activities, general task descriptions, and a management structure to certify and accredit the IT systems that will maintain the required security posture. Answer: A is incorrect. The NSA-IAM evaluates information systems at a high level and uses a subset of the SSE-CMM process areas to measure the implementation of information security on these systems. Answer: C is incorrect. ASSET is a tool developed by NIST to automate the process of self-assessment through the use of the questionnaire in NIST.

The SCM process defines the need to trace changes, and the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the planned enhancements that are supposed to be included in the release. It identifies four procedures that must be defined for each software project to ensure that a sound SCM process is implemented. They are as follows: 1.Configuration identification: Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end- user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. 2.Configuration change control: Configuration change control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item ' s attributes and to re-baseline them. 3.Configuration status accounting: Configuration status accounting is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. 4.Configuration audits: Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.

The tools that produce secure software have the following features: They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses. They decrease the attack surface. They employ software security constraints, protections, and services. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that are caused by the behavior of insecure software. Answer: E is incorrect. This feature is not required for these tools.

There are two types of compositional constructs: 1.External constructs: The various types of external constructs are as follows: Cascading: In this type of external construct, one system gains the input from the output of another system. Feedback: In this type of external construct, one system provides the input to another system, which in turn feeds back to the input of the first system. Hookup: In this type of external construct, one system communicates with another system as well as with external entities. 2.Internal constructs: The internal constructs include intersection, union, and difference.

The various security controls in the SDLC deployment phase are as follows: Secure Installation: While performing any software installation, it should kept in mind that the security configuration of the environment should never be reduced. If it is reduced then security issues and overall risks can affect the environment. Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing: Vulnerability assessments (VA) and penetration testing (PT) is used to determine the risk and attest to the strength of the software after it has been deployed. Security Certification and Accreditation (C & A): Security certification is the process used to ensure controls which are effectively implemented through established verification techniques and procedures, giving organization officials confidence that the appropriate safeguards and countermeasures are in place as means of protection. Accreditation is the provisioning of the necessary security authorization by a senior organization official to process, store, or transmit information.

Risk Adjustments: Contingency plans and exceptions should be generated so that the residual risk be above the acceptable threshold.

A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner, and therefore, might be required to be analyzed along with its generic group. A Configuration item (CI) is an IT asset or a combination of IT assets that may depend and have relationships with other IT processes. A CI will have attributes which may be hierarchical and relationships that will be assigned by the configuration manager in the CM database. The Configuration Item (CI) attributes are as follows: 1.Technical: It is data that describes the CI ' s capabilities which include software version and model numbers, hardware and manufacturer specifications, and other technical details like networking speeds, and data storage size. Keyboards, mice and cables are considered consumables. 2.Ownership: It is part of financial asset management, ownership attributes, warranty, location, and responsible person for the CI. 3.Relationship: It is the relationship among hardware items, software, and users. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are incorrect definitions of a variant with regard to Configuration Management.

Exception management is a process in which experienced personnel and software tools are used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure or connectivity issues. It increases the efficiency of business processes and contributes in the progress of business. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk Management is used to identify, assess, and control risks. It includes analyzing the value of assets to the business, identifying threats to those assets, and evaluating how vulnerable each asset is to those threats. Risk Management is part of Service Design and the owner of the Risk Management is the Risk Manager. Risks are addressed within several processes in ITIL V3; however, there is no dedicated Risk Management process. ITIL V3 calls for " coordinated risk assessment exercises " , so at IT Process Maps we decided to assign clear responsibilities for managing risks. Answer: D is incorrect. Change Management is used to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. A change is " an event that results in a new status of one or more configuration items (CI ' s) " approved by management, cost effective, enhances business process changes (fixes) - with a minimum risk to IT infrastructure. The main aims of Change Management are as follows: Minimal disruption of services Reduction in back-out activities Economic utilization of resources involved in the change

The getUserPrincipal() method determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: C is incorrect. The getRemoteUser() method returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: B is incorrect. The isUserInRole() method determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. Answer: D is incorrect. The getCallerPrincipal() method is used to identify a caller using a java.security.Principal object. It is not used in the HttpServletRequest interface.

The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster or disruption in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in business continuity. It includes the time for trying to fix the problem without a recovery, the recovery itself, tests and the communication to the users. Decision time for user representative is not included. The business continuity timeline usually runs parallel with an incident management timeline and may start at the same, or different, points. In accepted business continuity planning methodology, the RTO is established during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) by the owner of a process (usually in conjunction with the Business Continuity planner). The RTOs are then presented to senior management for acceptance. The RTO attaches to the business process and not the resources required to support the process. Answer: B is incorrect. The Recovery Time Actual (RTA) is established during an exercise, actual event, or predetermined based on recovery methodology the technology support team develops. This is the time frame the technology support takes to deliver the recovered infrastructure to the business. Answer: D is incorrect. The Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO) is used in Business Continuity Planning in addition to Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO). It applies data consistency objectives to Continuous Data Protection services. Answer: C is incorrect. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It is the point in time to which data must be recovered as defined by the organization. The RPO is generally a definition of what an organization determines is an " acceptable loss " in a disaster situation. If the RPO of a company is 2 hours and the time it takes to get the data back into production is 5 hours, the RPO is still 2 hours. Based on this RPO the data must be restored to within 2 hours of the disaster.

The features of SIEM products are as follows: Graphical user interface (GUI): It is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing all available data that are associated with the problems. Security knowledge base: It includes information on known vulnerabilities, log messages, and other technical data. Incident tracking and hacking: It has robust workflow features to track and report incidents. Asset information storage and correlation: It gives higher priority to an attack that affects a vulnerable OS or a main host. Answer: B is incorrect. SIEM product does not have this feature.

The residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that still conceives these dangers even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). Answer: B is incorrect. In information security, security risks are considered as an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability. In other words, security risk is a probabilistic function of a given threat agent exercising a particular vulnerability and the impact of that risk on the organization. Security risks can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks. Answer: C is incorrect. Vulnerability is a weakness or lack of safeguard that can be exploited by a threat, thus causing harm to the information systems or networks. It can exist in hardware , operating systems, firmware, applications, and configuration files. Vulnerability has been variously defined in the current context as follows: 1.A security weakness in a Target of Evaluation due to failures in analysis, design, implementation, or operation and such. 2.Weakness in an information system or components (e.g. system security procedures, hardware design, or internal controls that could be exploited to produce an information-related misfortune.) 3.The existence of a weakness, design, or implementation error that can lead to an unexpected, undesirable event compromising the security of the system, network, application, or protocol involved.

Snort is a signature-based intrusion detection system. Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows: Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer: B is incorrect. StealthWatch is a behavior-based intrusion detection system. Answer: A is incorrect. RealSecure is a network-based IDS that monitors TCP, UDP and ICMP traffic and is configured to look for attack patterns. Answer: C is incorrect. Tripwire is a file integrity checker for UNIX/Linux that can be used for host-based intrusion detection.

The NIACAP roles are nearly the same as the DITSCAP roles. Four minimum participants (roles) are required to perform a NIACAP security assessment: IS program manager: The IS program manager is the primary authorization advocate. He is responsible for the Information Systems (IS) throughout the life cycle of the system development. Designated Approving Authority (DAA): The Designated Approving Authority (DAA), in the United States Department of Defense, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk. Certification agent: The certification agent is also referred to as the certifier. He provides the technical expertise to conduct the certification throughout the system life cycle. User representative: The user representative focuses on system availability, access, integrity, functionality, performance, and confidentiality in a Certification and Accreditation (C & A) process. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance Manager (IAM) is one of the key participants in the DIACAP process.

Configuration identification is known as the decomposition process of a verification system into Configuration Items. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item ' s attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Configuration control is a means of ensuring that system changes are approved before being implemented. Only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.

A sabotage attack is an attack that causes software to fail. It also prevents the intended users from accessing software. A sabotage attack is referred to as a denial of service (DoS) or compromise of availability. Answer: B is incorrect. The reconnaissance attack enables an attacker to collect information about software and operating environment. Answer: D is incorrect. The disclosure attack exposes the revealed data to an attacker. Answer: A is incorrect. The enabling attack delivers an easy path for other attacks.

Only acceptance is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events. Often sharing is used for low probability and low impact risk events regardless of the positive or negative effects the risk event may bring the project. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: C is incorrect. Sharing is a positive risk response that shares an opportunity for all parties involved in the risk event. Answer: B is incorrect. Transference is a negative risk event that transfers the risk ownership to a third party, such as vendor, through a contractual relationship. Answer: D is incorrect. Mitigation is a negative risk event that seeks to lower the probability and/or impact of a risk event.

The data owner is responsible for ensuring that the appropriate security controls are in place, for assigning the initial classification to the data to be protected, for approving access requests from other parts of the organization, and for periodically reviewing the data classifications and access rights. Data owners are primarily responsible for determining the data ' s sensitivity or classification levels, whereas the data custodian has the responsibility for backup, retention, and recovery of data. The data owner delegates these responsibilities to the custodian. Answer: B, A, and C are incorrect. These are not the valid answers.

Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. Over-the-air provisioning is required for end-to-end encryption or other security purposes in order to deliver copyrighted software to a mobile device. For example, use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust. Answer: D and C are incorrect. The use of device properties for unique identification and the use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks are the security challenges in digital rights management (DRM). Answer: B is incorrect. The use of software and hardware to meet the deployment goals is a distracter.

Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item ' s attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration audits confirm that the configuration identification for a configured item is accurate, complete, and will meet specified program needs. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed. Answer: A is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle.

Use a consistent coding style is one of the principles and practices that contribute to defensive coding. This principle defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it. For this purpose, all programmers of a team must follow the same guidelines. Answer: D is incorrect. Keep code simple and small defines that it is easy to verify the software security when a programmer uses small and simple code base. Answer: A is incorrect. Make code forward and backward traceable defines that traceability is necessary in order to validate requirements, prevent defects, and find and solve inconsistencies among all objects generated in the SDLC phases. Answer: B is incorrect. Review code during and after coding defines that code must be examined in order to identify coding errors in modules.

Perl, .NET, and PHP are examples of the application programming interface (API). API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools that users can use to work with a component, application, or operating system. It consists of one or more DLLs that provide specific functionality. API helps in reducing the development time of applications by reducing application code. Most operating environments, such as MS-Windows, provide an API so that programmers can write applications consistent with the operating environment. Answer: A is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page.

Process redundancy permits software to run simultaneously on multiple geographically distributed locations, with voting on results. It prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data.

The service-oriented logical design modeling establishes service relationships and message exchange paths. It also addresses service visibility and crafts service logical compositions.

A trademark is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified. Its uniqueness makes the product noticeable among the same type of products. For example, Pentium and Athlon are brand names of the CPUs that are manufactured by Intel and AMD, respectively. The trademark law protects a company ' s trademark by making it illegal for other companies to use it without taking prior permission of the trademark owner. A trademark is registered so that others cannot use identical or similar marks. Answer: C is incorrect. A trade secret is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known. It helps a business to obtain an economic advantage over its competitors or customers. In some jurisdictions, such secrets are referred to as confidential information or classified information. Answer: B is incorrect. A copyright is a form of intellectual property, which secures to its holder the exclusive right to produce copies of his or her works of original expression, such as a literary work, movie, musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a defined, yet extendable, period of time. It does not cover ideas or facts. Copyright laws protect intellectual property from misuse by other individuals. Answer: D is incorrect. A patent is a set of exclusive rights granted to anyone who invents any new and useful machine, process, composition of matter, etc. A patent enables the inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others from using his invention.

The concept of availability ensures reliable and timely access to data or resources. In other words, availability ensures that the systems are up and running when needed. The availability concept also ensures that the security services are in working order. Answer: A and D are incorrect. The concept of integrity ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes. It also ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes. Answer: B is incorrect. Accountability determines the actions and behaviors of an individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual. Audit trails and logs support accountability.

The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. It includes the following points: The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks. During risk assessment, the methods and procedures the organization plans to use, to evaluate the significance of the risks identified. The types and extent of risk mitigation measures the organization plans to employ, to address identified risks. The level of risk tolerance. According to the environment of operation, how the organization plans to monitor risks on an ongoing basis, given the inevitable changes to organizational information system.

The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, in order to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.Answer: D is incorrect. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 3.

Qualitative risk analysis is a high-level, fast review of the risk event. Qualitative risk analysis qualifies the risk events for additional analysis.

The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C & A is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C & A level of effort, identify the main C & A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need Registration Negotiation Answer: D is incorrect. Initial Certification Analysis is a Phase 2 activity.

Certification and Accreditation (C & A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C & A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C & A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls.

A hot site is a duplicate of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. It provides the backup facility, which is maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility.

A hot site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. A hot site is located off site and provides the best protection. It is an exact replica of the current data center. In case a disaster struck to the data center, administrators just need to take the backup of recent data in hot site and the data center is back online in a very short time. It is very expensive to create and maintain the hot site. There are lots of third party companies that provide disaster recovery solutions by maintaining hot sites at their end. Answer: A is incorrect. A cold site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. This is the least expensive disaster recovery solution, usually having only a single room with no equipment. All equipment is brought to the site after the disaster. It can be on site or off site. Answer: D is incorrect. Mobile sites are self-reliant, portable shells custom-fitted with definite telecommunications and IT equipment essential to meet system requirements. These are presented for lease through commercial vendors. Answer: C is incorrect. A warm site is, quite logically, a compromise between hot and cold sites. Warm sites will have hardware and connectivity already established, though on a smaller scale than the original production site or even a hot site. These sites will have backups on hand, but they may not be complete and may be between several days and a week old. An example would be backup tapes sent to the warm site by courier.

The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C & A are as follows:

Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

The various coding practices that are helpful in simplifying the code are as follows: Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow the proper coding standards. Software should implement the functions that are defined in the software specification. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursion, and GoTo statements. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a complex function. The processes should have only one entry point and minimum exit points. Interdependencies should be minimum so that a process module or component can be disabled when it is not needed, or replaced when it is found insecure or a better alternative is available, without disturbing the software operations. Programmers should use object-oriented techniques to keep the code simple and small. Some of the object-oriented techniques are object inheritance, encapsulation, and polymorphism. Answer: D is incorrect. Processes should have only one entry point and the minimum number of exit points.

The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk.

The subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C & A phase are as follows: Register system with DoD Component IA Program. Assign IA controls. Assemble DIACAP team. Develop DIACAP strategy. Initiate IA implementation plan. Answer: F is incorrect. Validation activities are conducted in the second phase of the DIACAP process, i.e., Implement and Validate Assigned IA Controls.

A penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration test is to determine feasibility of an attack and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full security audit. Answer: C is incorrect. Risk analysis is the science of risks and their probability and evaluation in a business or a process. It is an important factor in security enhancement and prevention in a system. Risk analysis should be performed as part of the risk management process for each project. The outcome of the risk analysis would be the creation or review of the risk register to identify and quantify risk elements to the project and their potential impact. Answer: D is incorrect. Compliance checking performs the reviews for safeguards and controls to verify whether the entity is complying with particular procedures, rules or not. It includes the inspection of operational systems to guarantee that hardware and software controls have been correctly implemented and maintained. Compliance checking covers the activities such as penetration testing and vulnerability assessments. Compliance checking must be performed by skilled persons, or by an automated software package. Answer: B is incorrect. Baselining is a method for analyzing the performance of computer networks. The method is marked by comparing the current performance to a historical metric, or " baseline " . For example, if a user measured the performance of a network switch over a period of time, he could use that performance figure as a comparative baseline if he made a configuration change to the switch.

The Industrial Property law and the Copyright law are the components of the Intellectual Property law.

NIACAP has four levels of certification. These levels ensure that the appropriate C & A are performed for varying schedule and budget limitations. The certifier must analyze the system ' s business functions. The certifier determines the degree of confidentiality, integrity, availability, and accountability, and then recommends one of the following NIACAP certification levels: Level 1 - Basic Security Review Level 2 - Minimum Analysis Level 3 - Detailed Analysis Level 4 - Comprehensive Analysis Answer: B and F are incorrect. No such types of levels exist.

Dumpster diving technique is used for searching paper disposal areas for unshredded or otherwise improperly disposed-of reports. Answer: B is incorrect. In scanning and probing technique, various scanners, like a port scanner, can reveal information about a network ' s infrastructure and enable an intruder to access the network ' s unsecured ports. Answer: D is incorrect. Demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange to try to locate modems that are attached to the network. Answer: A is incorrect. In sniffing technique, protocol analyzer can be used to capture data packets that are later decoded to collect information such as passwords or infrastructure configurations.

The Information Protection Policy (IPP) is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE when classifying the needed security functionality. The IPP document consists of the threats to the information management and the security services and controls needed to respond to those threats. Answer: B is incorrect. The IMM is the source document describing the customer ' s needs based on identifying users, processes, and information. Answer: C is incorrect. The System Security Context is the output of SE and ISSEP. It is the translation of the requirements into system parameters and possible measurement concepts that meet the defined requirements. Answer: D is incorrect. The Concept of Operations (CONOPS) is a document describing the characteristics of a proposed system from the viewpoint of an individual who will use that system. It is used to communicate the quantitative and qualitative system characteristics to all stakeholders. CONOPS are widely used in the military or in government services, as well as other fields. A CONOPS generally evolves from a concept and is a description of how a set of capabilities may be employed to achieve desired objectives or a particular end state for a specific scenario.

Security Test and Evaluation (ST & E) is a component of risk assessment. It is useful in discovering system vulnerabilities. According to NIST SP 800-42 (Guideline on Network Security Testing), ST & E is used for the following purposes: To assess the degree of consistency between the system documentation and its implementation To determine the adequacy of security mechanisms, assurances, and other properties to enforce the security policy To uncover design, implementation, and operational flaws that may allow the violation of security policy Answer: A is incorrect. ST & E is not used for the implementation of the system architecture.

In the programming and training phase of the SDLC, the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications, and proper documentation and training are provided. Answer: D is incorrect. During the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer: A is incorrect. During the design phase, systems requirements are incorporated into design. This phase specifies to include controls that support the auditing of the system. Answer: B is incorrect. During the evaluation and acceptance phase, the system and data are validated, all the control requirements and the user requirements are met by the system.

Graybox testing is a combination of whitebox testing and blackbox testing. In graybox testing, the test engineer is equipped with the knowledge of system and designs test cases or test data based on system knowledge. The security tester typically performs graybox testing to find vulnerabilities in software and network system. Answer: C is incorrect. Whitebox testing is a testing technique in which an organization provides full knowledge about the infrastructure to the testing team. The information, provided by the organization, often includes network diagrams, source codes, and IP addressing information of the infrastructure to be tested. Answer: A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer: B is incorrect. Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced.

The CIA (Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability) triangle is concerned with three facets of security. Confidentiality is the concern that data be secure from unauthorized access. Answer: B and C are incorrect. The CIA (Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability) triangle is concerned with three facets of security. Integrity is the concern that data not be altered without it being traceable. Availability is the concern that the data, while being secured, is readily accessible. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality may be implemented with encryption but encryption is just a technique to obtain confidentiality.

The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

C & A consists of four phases in a DITSCAP assessment. These phases are the same as NIACAP phases. The order of these phases is as follows: 1.Definition: The definition phase is focused on understanding the IS business case, the mission, environment, and architecture. This phase determines the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve Certification & Accreditation (C & A). 2.Verification: The second phase confirms the evolving or modified system ' s compliance with the information. The verification phase ensures that the fully integrated system will be ready for certification testing. 3.Validation: The third phase confirms abidance of the fully integrated system with the security policy. This phase follows the requirements slated in the SSAA. The objective of the validation phase is to show the required evidence to support the DAA in accreditation process. 4.Post Accreditation: The Post Accreditation is the final phase of DITSCAP assessment and it starts after the system has been certified and accredited for operations. This phase ensures secure system management, operation, and maintenance to save an acceptable level of residual risk.

A trade secret is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known. It helps a business to obtain an economic advantage over its competitors or customers. In some jurisdictions, such secrets are referred to as confidential information or classified information. Answer: A is incorrect. A copyright is a form of intellectual property, which secures to its holder the exclusive right to produce copies of his or her works of original expression, such as a literary work, movie, musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a defined, yet extendable, period of time. It does not cover ideas or facts. Copyright laws protect intellectual property from misuse by other individuals. Answer: B is incorrect. A utility model is an intellectual property right to protect inventions. Answer: D is incorrect. A cookie is a small bit of text that accompanies requests and pages as they move between Web servers and browsers. It contains information that is read by a Web application, whenever a user visits a site. Cookies are stored in the memory or hard disk of client computers. A Web site stores information, such as user preferences and settings in a cookie. This information helps in providing customized services to users. There is absolutely no way a Web server can access any private information about a user or his computer through cookies, unless a user provides the information. A Web server cannot access cookies created by other Web servers.

The mission and business process level is the Tier 2. It addresses risks from the mission and business process perspective. It is guided by the risk decisions at Tier 1. The various Tier 2 activities are as follows: It defines the core missions and business processes for the organization. It also prioritizes missions and business processes, with respect to the goals and objectives of the organization. It defines the types of information that an organization requires, to successfully execute the stated missions and business processes. It helps in developing an organization-wide information protection strategy and incorporating high-level information security requirements. It specifies the degree of autonomy for the subordinate organizations.

The first action of a management program to implement information security is to have a security program in place. The objectives of a security program are as follows: Protect the company and its assets Manage risks by identifying assets, discovering threats, and estimating the risk Provide direction for security activities by framing of information security policies, procedures, standards, guidelines and baselines Information classification Security organization Security education Answer: C is incorrect. System classification is not one of the objectives of a security program.

Decomposition and definition sequence includes the following processes: System security analysis Security requirements allocation Software security requirements analysis High level software design Detailed software design Answer: A is incorrect. This process is included in the integration and verification sequence of the Vee model.

The configuration management system ensures that proposed changes to the project ' s scope are reviewed and evaluated for their affect on the project ' s product. Configuration Management System is a subsystem of the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented procedures used to identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a product, result, service, or component of the project. It also controls any changes to such characteristics, and records and reports each change and its implementation status. It includes the documentation, tracking systems, and defined approval levels necessary for authorizing and controlling changes. Audits are performed as part of configuration management to determine if the requirements have been met. Answer: B is incorrect. The scope change control system focuses on reviewing the actual changes to the project scope. When a change to the project ' s scope is proposed, the configuration management system is also invoked. Answer: C is incorrect. The cost change control system is responsible for reviewing and controlling changes to the project costs. Answer: D is incorrect. Integrated change control examines the affect of a proposed change on the project as a whole.

According to the PMBOK, " Like many things in project management, the more it is done the easier the practice becomes. " Answer: B is incorrect. This answer is not the best choice for the project. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk management likely becomes more difficult in project execution that in other stages of the project. Answer: C is incorrect. Risk management does become easier the more often it is done.

There are four risk responses available for a negative risk event. The risk response strategies for negative risks are: Avoid: It involves altering the project management plan to remove the threats completely. Transfer: It requires shifting some or all of the negative effects of a threat including the ownership of response, to a third party. Mitigate: It implies a drop in the probability and impact of an unfavorable risk event to be within suitable threshold limits. Accept: It delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk occurs. It is used for both negative and positive risks. Answer: C is incorrect. There are four responses for negative risk events. Answer: A is incorrect. There are four, not three, responses for negative risk events. Do not forget that acceptance can be used for negative risk events. Answer: B is incorrect. There are seven total risk responses, four of which can be used for negative risk events.

User data constraint is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification 2.4. It sets up a requirement to receive the constrained requests over a protected layer connection, such as TLS (Transport Layer Security). The user data constraint offers guarantee (NONE, INTEGRAL, and CONFEDENTIAL) for the transportation of data between client and server. If a request does not have user data constraint, the container accepts the request after it is received on a connection. Answer: C is incorrect. Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer: B is incorrect. Authorization constraint is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification 2.4. It sets up a requirement for authentication and names the authorization roles that can access the URL patterns and HTTP methods as defined by the security constraint. In the absence of a security constraint, the container accepts the request without requiring any user authentication. If no authorization role is specified in the authorization constraint, the container cannot access constrained requests. The wildcard character " * " specifies all authorization role names that are defined in the deployment descriptor. Answer: D is incorrect. It is not a security constraint element.

When you are hiring a third party to own risk, it is known as transference risk response. Transference is a strategy to mitigate negative risks or threats. In this strategy, consequences and the ownership of a risk is transferred to a third party. This strategy does not eliminate the risk but transfers responsibility of managing the risk to another party. Insurance is an example of transference. Answer: B is incorrect. The act of spending money to reduce a risk probability and impact is known as mitigation. Answer: A is incorrect. Exploit is a strategy that may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Answer: D is incorrect. When extra activities are introduced into the project to avoid the risk, this is an example of avoidance.

The various patterns applicable to aspects of authentication in the Web applications are as follows: Account lockout: It implements a limit on the incorrect password attempts to protect an account from automated password-guessing attacks. Authenticated session: It allows a user to access more than one access-restricted Web page without re-authenticating every page. It also integrates user authentication into the basic session model. Password authentication: It provides protection against weak passwords, automated password-guessing attacks, and mishandling of passwords. Password propagation: It offers a choice by requiring that a user ' s authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user ' s data. Answer: B and C are incorrect. Secure assertion and partitioned application patterns are applicable to software assurance in general.

The following are the effects of loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability in a high level potential impact: It might cause a severe degradation in or loss of mission capability to an extent. It might result in a major damage to organizational assets. It might result in a major financial loss. It might result in severe harms such as serious life threatening injuries or loss of life.

The following can be used to accomplish authentication: 1.Password 2.Biometrics 3.Token A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove identity, or gain access to a resource.

In such a situation, John will use the SuperScan tool to find the open ports and applications on the We-are-secure network. SuperScan is a TCP/UDP port scanner. It also works as a ping sweeper and hostname resolver. It can ping a given range of IP addresses and resolve the host name of the remote system. The features of SuperScan are as follows: It scans any port range from a built-in list or any given range. It performs ping scans and port scans using any IP range. It modifies the port list and port descriptions using the built in editor. It connects to any discovered open port using user-specified " helper " applications. It has the transmission speed control utility. Answer: C, A, and B are incorrect. RIPE, ARIN, and APNIC are the Regional Internet Registries (RIR) that manage, distribute, and register public IP addresses within their respective regions. These can be used as passive tools by an attacker to determine the network range.

Teardrop is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled. In this attack, corrupt packets are sent to the victim ' s computer by using IP ' s packet fragmentation algorithm. As a result of this attack, the victim ' s computer might hang. Answer: D is incorrect. Smurf is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and flooding. Answer: C is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower case to find a password. There are many programs available on the Internet to automate and execute dictionary attacks. Answer: A is incorrect. A password guessing attack occurs when an unauthorized user tries to log on repeatedly to a computer or network by guessing usernames and passwords. Many password guessing programs that attempt to break passwords are available on the Internet. Following are the types of password guessing attacks: Brute force attack Dictionary attack

The following procedural patterns are defined by the DARPA paper in order to perform secure software development practices: Build the server from the ground up: It includes the following features: Build the server from the ground up. Identify the default installation of the operating system and applications. Support hardening procedures to remove unnecessary services. Identify a vulnerable service for ongoing risk management. Choose the right stuff: It defines guidelines to select right commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) components and decide whether to use and build custom components. Document the server configuration: It supports the creation of an initial configuration baseline and tracks all modifications made to servers and application configurations.

Patch proactively: It supports in applying patches as soon as they are available rather than waiting until the systems cooperate. Red team the design: It supports an independent security assessment from the perspective of an attacker in the quality assurance or testing stage. An independent security assessment is helpful in addressing a security issue before it occurs. Answer: A is incorrect. Hidden implementation pattern is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to software assurance in general. Hidden implementation limits the ability of an attacker to distinguish the internal workings of an application. Answer: E is incorrect. Password propagation is not defined in the DARPA paper. This pattern is applicable to aspects of authentication in a Web application. Password propagation provides an alternative by requiring that a user ' s authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user ' s data.

The different tasks performed by the owner are as follows: He makes the original determination to decide what level of classification the information requires, which is based on the business requirements for the safety of the data. He reviews the classification assignments from time to time and makes alterations as the business needs change. He delegates the responsibility of the data safeguard duties to the custodian. He specifies controls to ensure confidentiality, integrity and availability. Answer: C is incorrect. This task is performed by the custodian and not by the owner.