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CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Options:

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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Questions 5

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Options:

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

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Questions 6

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Options:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

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Questions 7

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

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Questions 8

What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i)The exit criteria.

(ii)The budget.

(iii)How big the test team is.

(iv)The product's risk profile.

(v)How good the testing tools are.

(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

Options:

A.

i and ii and iv and vi

B.

i and ii and iii and vi

C.

ii and iii and iv and v

D.

i and ii and v and vi

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Questions 9

How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

Options:

A.

By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the quality standards set for the project

B.

By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%

C.

By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve processes and thus help to reduce the defect count

D.

By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

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Questions 10

Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

B.

Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered

C.

Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques

D.

Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

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Questions 11

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

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Questions 12

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Questions 13

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

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Questions 14

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

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Questions 15

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation Question 15

Options:

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

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Questions 16

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 17

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation Question 17

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

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Questions 18

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Questions 19

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

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Questions 20

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

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Questions 21

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

Options:

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 22

When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the beginning of the project

B.

As soon as requirements have been approved

C.

As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted

D.

At any time before UAT begins

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Questions 23

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii

B.

ii, iii

C.

i, iii, iv

D.

i, ii, iii, v

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Questions 24

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

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Questions 25

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

Options:

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

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Questions 26

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Questions 27

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Options:

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

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Questions 28

CTFL-Foundation Question 28

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

Options:

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

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Questions 29

CTFL-Foundation Question 29

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

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Questions 30

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.

What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

Options:

A.

Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B.

Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

C.

Provide support for the test team using the tool

D.

Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

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Questions 31

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

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Questions 32

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Options:

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

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Questions 33

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

Options:

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

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Questions 34

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

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Questions 35

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

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Questions 36

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

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Questions 37

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design

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Questions 38

Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited

B.

Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing

C.

Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis

D.

Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation

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Questions 39

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Options:

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

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Questions 40

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

Options:

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

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Questions 41

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

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Questions 42

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

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Questions 43

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

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Questions 44

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

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Questions 45

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

Options:

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

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Questions 47

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

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Questions 48

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

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Questions 49

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

Options:

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

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Questions 50

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

Options:

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

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Questions 51

Which of the following optionsBESTexplain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

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Questions 52

What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?

(i) Executing component integration tests.

(ii) Static analysis.

(iii) Setting up the test environment.

(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Questions 53

Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication

ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix

iii. Early test design can find faults

iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements

v. Early test design takes more effort

Options:

A.

i, iii & iv are true. ii & v are false

B.

iii is true, i, ii, iv & v are false

C.

iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false

D.

i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false

E.

i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

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Questions 54

Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?

(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.

(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.

(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.

(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Questions 55

Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Options:

A.

Defects

B.

Trends analysis

C.

Test Effectiveness

D.

Time Spent Testing

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Questions 56

Failure is _________

Options:

A.

Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the program

B.

Bug found before product Release

C.

Bug found after product Release

D.

Bug found during Design phase

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Questions 57

Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

Options:

A.

Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products.

B.

For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.

C.

Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software.

D.

The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.

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Questions 58

One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

Options:

A.

Lack of technical documentation

B.

Lack of test tools on the market for developers

C.

Lack of training

D.

Lack of Objectivity

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Questions 59

What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?

Options:

A.

The types of test techniques to be employed.

B.

The total tests needed to provide 100 per cent coverage.

C.

An estimation of the total cost of testing.

D.

Only that test execution is effective at reducing risk.

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Questions 60

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Options:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 61

What is the benefit of independent testing?

Options:

A.

More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.

B.

Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers

C.

Independent testers do not need extra education and training.

D.

Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.

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Questions 62

Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions

B.

To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126

C.

To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions

D.

To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing

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Questions 63

The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

Options:

A.

Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

B.

Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

C.

Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

D.

Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

E.

Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

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Questions 64

Which option is part of the ‘implementation and execution’ area of the fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Developing the tests.

B.

Comparing actual and expected results.

C.

Writing a test summary.

D.

Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases.

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Questions 65

Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

Options:

A.

It does not require familiarity with the code.

B.

It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.

C.

It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.

D.

Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

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Questions 66

For which of the following activities in the fundamental test process would an incident management tool be most useful?

Options:

A.

Test planning and control

B.

Test analysis and design

C.

Test implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 67

What do static analysis tools analyze?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Test cases

C.

Requirements

D.

Program code

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Questions 68

Which of the following types of test tool are most likely to include traceability functions?

(i) Performance testing tool

(ii) Requirements management tool

(iii) Configuration management tool

(iv) Static analysis tool

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Questions 69

During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

Options:

A.

Execution

B.

Design

C.

Planning

D.

Check Exit criteria completion

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Questions 70

What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

Options:

A.

To know when a specific test has finished its execution

B.

To ensure that the test case specification is complete

C.

To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

D.

To know when test planning is complete

E.

To plan when to stop testing

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Questions 71

A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

Options:

A.

an error

B.

a fault

C.

a failure

D.

a defect

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Questions 72

Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.

ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.

iii) Assigning resources.

iv) Building the test environment.

v) Writing test conditions.

Options:

A.

i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.

B.

ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.

C.

iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.

D.

i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

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Questions 73

Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:

Options:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 74

Which of these are objectives for software testing?

Options:

A.

Determine the productivity of programmers

B.

Eliminate the need for future program maintenance

C.

Eliminate every error prior to release

D.

Uncover software errors

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Questions 75

In the MASPAR case study..?

Options:

A.

Security failures were the result of untested parts of code

B.

The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system

C.

An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost every input value to find its two special-case failures

D.

All the above

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Questions 76

Which of the following is not true of regression testing?

Options:

A.

It can be carried out at each stage of the life cycle.

B.

It serves to demonstrate that the changed software works as intended.

C.

It serves to demonstrate that software has not been unintentionally changed.

D.

It is often automated.

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Questions 77

Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Boundary value analysis

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Questions 78

Which of the following are the most important factors to be taken into account when selecting test techniques?

(i) Tools available.

(ii) Regulatory standards.

(iii) Experience of the development team.

(iv) Knowledge of the test team.

The need to maintain levels of capability in each technique.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iv)

C.

(iii) and (iv)

D.

(i) and (v)

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Questions 79

Of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

Options:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

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Questions 80

What is the value of static code analysis?

Options:

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

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Questions 81

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Options:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

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Exam Code: CTFL-Foundation
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
Last Update: Dec 7, 2024
Questions: 272

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