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CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Questions 4

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

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Questions 5

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

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Questions 6

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

Options:

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

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Questions 7

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Options:

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

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Questions 8

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

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Questions 9

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

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Questions 10

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Questions 11

How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

Options:

A.

By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the quality standards set for the project

B.

By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%

C.

By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve processes and thus help to reduce the defect count

D.

By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

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Questions 12

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Options:

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

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Questions 13

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Questions 14

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Options:

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

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Questions 15

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

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Questions 16

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

Options:

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the defect is executed, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

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Questions 17

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

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Questions 18

Which of the following options BEST explain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

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Questions 19

A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.

Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?

Options:

A.

To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system

B.

To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component

C.

To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph

D.

To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

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Questions 20

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

Options:

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

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Questions 21

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

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Questions 22

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

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Questions 23

CTFL-Foundation Question 23

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

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Questions 24

Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software.

The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

• An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.

• A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.

The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.

The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.

CTFL-Foundation Question 24

Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

Options:

A.

a, d, c, b, e

B.

a, c, b, d, e

C.

e, a, b, c, d

D.

e, a, d, c, b

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Questions 25

A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.

Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

Options:

A.

Dynamic analysis tool

B.

Monitoring tool

C.

Configuration management tool

D.

Coverage measurement tool

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Questions 26

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

Options:

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

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Questions 27

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

Options:

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

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Questions 28

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

Options:

A.

Number of Test cases passed and failed

B.

Percentage of planned test cases designed

C.

Number of test plan review comments

D.

Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

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Questions 29

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Options:

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

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Questions 30

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Options:

A.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

B.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

C.

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

D.

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

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Questions 31

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

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Questions 32

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Options:

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

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Questions 33

Which of the following is most likely to cause failure in the implementation of a test tool?

Options:

A.

Underestimating the demand for a tool.

B.

The purchase price of the tool.

C.

No agreed requirements for the tool.

D.

The cost of resources to implement and maintain the tool.

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Questions 34

Which of the following defines the expected result of a test?

Options:

A.

Test case

B.

Test procedure

C.

Test execution schedule

D.

Test condition

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Questions 35

Consider the following pseudo code:

1 Begin

2 Read Time

3 If Time < 12 Then

4 Print(Time, "am")

5 Endif

6 If Time > 12 Then

7 Print(Time −12, "pm")

8 Endif

9 If Time = 12 Then

10 Print (Time, "noon")

11 Endif

12 End

If the test cases Time = 11 and Time = 15 were input, what level of decision coverage would be achieved?

Options:

A.

100% or 6/6

B.

50% or 3/6

C.

67% or 4/6

D.

83% or 5/6

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Questions 36

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

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Questions 37

In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:

_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.

_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.

_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Options:

A.

$28,000

B.

$1,500

C.

$33,501

D.

$5,000

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Questions 38

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

Options:

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

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Questions 39

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

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Questions 40

What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

Options:

A.

To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed

B.

To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met

C.

To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects

D.

To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

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Questions 41

Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?

Options:

A.

Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects.

B.

Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults.

C.

Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.

D.

Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.

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Questions 42

Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

Options:

A.

Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.

B.

Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and test ware.

C.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

D.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

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Questions 43

During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

Options:

A.

When the code is complete.

B.

When the design is complete.

C.

When the software requirements have been approved.

D.

When the first code module is ready for unit testing

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Questions 44

What is the main purpose of use case testing?

Options:

A.

To identify defects in process flows related to typical use of the system.

B.

To identify defects in the connections between components.

C.

To identify defects in the system related to extreme scenarios.

D.

To identify defects in the system related to the use of unapproved programming practices.

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Questions 45

Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correct order, starting with the most independent first?

Options:

A.

Tests designed by the author; tests designed by another member of the development team; tests designed by someone from a different company.

B.

Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by the author; tests designed by someone from a different company.

C.

Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team.

D.

Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by the author.

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Questions 46

The purpose of exit criteria is:

Options:

A.

Define when to stop testing

B.

End of test level

C.

When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition

D.

All of the above

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Questions 47

Which of the following could be a reason for a failure?

1) Testing fault

2) Software fault

3) Design fault

4) Environment Fault

5) Documentation Fault

Options:

A.

2 is a valid reason; 1, 3, 4 & 5 are not

B.

1, 2, 3, 4 are valid reasons; 5 is not

C.

1, 2, 3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not

D.

All of them are valid reasons for failure

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Questions 48

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

Options:

A.

Top down

B.

Big-bang

C.

Bottom up

D.

Functional incrementation.

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Questions 49

Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

Options:

A.

Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.

B.

Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.

C.

It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.

D.

The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.

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Questions 50

One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

Options:

A.

Lack of technical documentation

B.

Lack of test tools on the market for developers

C.

Lack of training

D.

Lack of Objectivity

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Questions 51

Which of the following is in the correct order (typically)?

Options:

A.

Unit testing, system testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing.

B.

System testing, unit testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing.

C.

Acceptance testing, system testing, maintenance testing, unit testing.

D.

Unit testing, maintenance testing, system testing, acceptance testing.

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Questions 52

Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same. B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved. C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

Options:

A.

A, C and D and E are true; B is false.

B.

A, C and E are true; B and D are false.

C.

C and D are true; A, B and E are false.

D.

B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

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Questions 53

Which is the best definition of complete testing..?

Options:

A.

You have discovered every bug in the program

B.

You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program

C.

You have reached the scheduled ship date

D.

You have completed every test in the test plan

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Questions 54

The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design.

B.

Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design.

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.

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Questions 55

Which of the following is not true of regression testing?

Options:

A.

It can be carried out at each stage of the life cycle.

B.

It serves to demonstrate that the changed software works as intended.

C.

It serves to demonstrate that software has not been unintentionally changed.

D.

It is often automated.

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Questions 56

What test roles (or parts in the testing process) is a developer most likely to perform?

(i) Executing component integration tests.

(ii) Static analysis.

(iii) Setting up the test environment.

(iv) Deciding how much testing should be automated.

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Questions 57

To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data:

Options:

A.

Stub

B.

Driver

C.

Proxy

D.

None of the above

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Questions 58

What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

Options:

A.

to know when a specific test has finished its execution

B.

to ensure that the test case specification is complete

C.

to set the criteria used in generating test inputs

D.

to determine when to stop testing

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Questions 59

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Options:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 60

Complete statement and branch coverage means..?

Options:

A.

That you have tested every statement in the program

B.

That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program

C.

That you have tested every IF statement in the program

D.

That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

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Questions 61

Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

Options:

A.

Defects

B.

Trends analysis

C.

Test Effectiveness

D.

Time Spent Testing

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Questions 62

Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Boundary value analysis

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Questions 63

Which of the following are examples of iterative development models?

(i) V-model

(ii) Rapid Application Development model

(iii) Waterfall model

(iv) Agile development model

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(ii) and (iii)

C.

(ii) and (iv)

D.

(iii) and (iv)

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Questions 64

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

Options:

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

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Questions 65

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Options:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

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Questions 66

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

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Questions 67

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

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Questions 68

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

Options:

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

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Questions 69

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

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Questions 70

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Options:

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

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Questions 71

When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the beginning of the project

B.

As soon as requirements have been approved

C.

As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted

D.

At any time before UAT begins

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Questions 72

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 73

A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.

Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

Options:

A.

Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the component level only

B.

Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels

C.

Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure based testing at the integration level only

D.

Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

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Questions 74

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

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Questions 75

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

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Questions 76

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

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Questions 77

What is the value of static code analysis?

Options:

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

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Questions 78

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation Question 78

Options:

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

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Questions 79

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation Question 79

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.

(i) X-Z-V-W

(ii) W-Y-U-U

Options:

A.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

B.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S4 and (ii) = S2 –S4 – S4 – S4 – S2

C.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

D.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 - S4 – S2 and (ii) = S2 –S3 – S4 –S4 – S4

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Questions 80

Refer to the exhibit

The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

CTFL-Foundation Question 80

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.

Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

Options:

A.

b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h

B.

a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h

C.

c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f

D.

d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

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Questions 81

A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL-Foundation Question 81

Options:

A.

S2 and O4

B.

S4 and O2

C.

S4 and O4

D.

S2 and O2

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Exam Code: CTFL-Foundation
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level
Last Update: May 4, 2026
Questions: 272

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