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CTFL4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL 4.0 Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

Options:

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

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Questions 5

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Only developers and testers should be involved in retrospectives, as involving people in other roles is very likely to prevent developers and testers from having open and constructive discussions that really help identify process improvements.

B.

Retrospectives can be very effective in identifying process improvements and can also be very efficient and cost-effective especially since, unlike reviews, they do not require any follow-up activities

C.

On Agile projects, well-conducted retrospectives at the end of each iteration can help the team reduce and sometimes even eliminate the need for dairy stand-up meetings.

D.

During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle.

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Questions 6

An application is subjected to a constant load for an extended period of time as part of a performance test While running this test, the response time of the application steadily slows down, which results in a requirement not being met This slowdown is caused by a memory leak where the application code does not properly release some of the dynamically allocated memory when it is no longer needed. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The slowdown is a failure while the memory leak is a defect

B.

The slowdown is a defect while the memory leak is an error.

C.

The slowdown is an error; the memory leak is a defect.

D.

The slowdown is a defect; the memory leak is a failure.

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Questions 7

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Questions 8

Which of the following statements best describe Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

A collaborative approach that allows every stakeholder to contribute to how the software component must behave.

B.

Expresses the behavior of an application with test cases written in Given When Then format.

C.

Is used to develop code guided by automated test cases.

D.

A psychological technique in which the team's behavior in agile teams is evaluated.

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Questions 9

Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

Options:

A.

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

C.

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

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Questions 10

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive. Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is TRUE?

Options:

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced.

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing.

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

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Questions 11

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies to checklist-based testing ?

Options:

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

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Questions 12

Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?

Options:

A.

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

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Questions 13

Which statement is true regarding confirmation testing and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Confirmation testing confirms the quality of the test being run while regression testing ensures that the software still works after a change has been made.

B.

Confirmation testing is an optional activity whilst regression testing is not negotiable.

C.

Confirmation testing aims to verify that a defect has been resolved and regression testing ensuring that existing functionality still works after a change.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

E.

TESTER Involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

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Questions 14

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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Questions 15

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 16

Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?

Options:

A.

Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

B.

Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.

C.

Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.

D.

Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.

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Questions 17

Consider the following iteration planning tasks where a tester can provide value:

    Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks)

    Estimate test effort for all testing tasks

    Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object

Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?

Options:

A.

Determining the test strategy

B.

Participating in the detailed risk analysis of user stories and determining their testability

C.

Planning the testing for the release

D.

Writing testable user stories and acceptance criteria

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Questions 18

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Options:

A.

Test design

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test implementation

D.

Test execution

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Questions 19

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

Options:

A.

Q1

B.

Q2

C.

Q3

D.

Q4

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Questions 20

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

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Questions 21

Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?

Options:

A.

The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.

B.

Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.

C.

Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.

D.

Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.

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Questions 22

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

Options:

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Questions 24

A typical objective of testing is to

Options:

A.

Determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases.

B.

Verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements.

C.

Plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy

D.

Verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

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Questions 25

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes black-box test techniques?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.

B.

In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software's implementation.

C.

Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object's specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.

D.

Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.

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Questions 26

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects

[1]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads.

[ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user,

[iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan.

[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

[ii] and [IV] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks

B.

[ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [IV] are project risks.

C.

[i], and [iV] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks

D.

[i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [IV] is a project risk.

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Questions 27

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

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Questions 28

To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column)

Topic Description

Options:

A.

How the system performs the specific behaviour.

8: Quality characteristics B: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task.

B.

Scenarios C: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.

C.

Business rules D; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.

D.

External interfaces E: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.

E.

A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D

F.

A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D

G.

A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E

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Questions 29

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

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Questions 30

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.

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Questions 31

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

Options:

A.

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

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Questions 32

Which of the statements correctly describes when a whole team approach may NOT be suitable?

Options:

A.

When a high level of test independence may be required.

B.

When acceptance tests need to be created.

C.

When a test automation approach needs to be determined.

D.

When the team dynamics need to be improved.

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Questions 33

In which one of the following test techniques are test cases derived from the analysis of the software architecture?

Options:

A.

Black-box test techniques.

B.

Experience-based test techniques.

C.

Checklist-based test techniques.

D.

White-box test techniques.

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Questions 34

Which of the following is not an example of a typical content of a test completion report for a test project?

Options:

A.

The additional effort spent on test execution compared to what was planned

B.

The unexpected test environment downtime that resulted in slower test execution

C.

The residual risk level if a risk-based test approach was adopted

D.

The test procedures of all test cases that have been executed

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Questions 35

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

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Questions 36

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Questions 37

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard.

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning.

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

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Questions 38

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

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Questions 39

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

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Questions 40

Which ONE of the following options is a PRODUCT risk and NOT a PROJECT risk ?

Options:

A.

Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.

B.

Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.

C.

Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.

D.

Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.

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Questions 41

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

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Questions 42

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

When running test case TC_59 , the actual result for t = 35 degrees Celsius is OUTPUT = X instead of the expected output.

Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?

Options:

A.

Identification of the test object and test environment

B.

A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported

C.

Description of the structure of the test team

D.

Expected results and actual results

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Questions 43

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY NOT part of a test progress report ?

Options:

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

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Questions 44

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

Options:

A.

The developer

B.

The customer

C.

The development manager

D.

The test leader

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Questions 45

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Questions 46

Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?

Options:

A.

Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code

B.

Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques

C.

Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems

D.

Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code

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Questions 47

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Questions 48

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

CTFL4 Question 48

Options:

A.

S0- > S1- > S2- > S3- > S5- > S1

B.

S0- > S1- > S2- > S3- > S5- > S1- > S2- > S3

C.

S0- > S1- > S2~ > S3- > S4

D.

S0- > S1 - > S2- > S3- > S5- > S3- > S4

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Questions 49

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

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Questions 50

What is test oracle?

Options:

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Questions 51

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

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Questions 52

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Questions 53

Select which of the following statements describe the key principles of software testing?

i. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence.

ii. Testing everything Is possible.

iii. Early testing Is more expensive and is a waste of time.

iv. Defects cluster together.

v. Testing is context dependent.

vi. Beware of the pesticide paradox.

vii. Absence of errors is a fallacy.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv, v, vi and vii

B.

I, ii, v. vi and vii

C.

iii. iv, v. vi and vii

D.

ii, iii, iv, v and vi

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Questions 54

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.

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Questions 55

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Options:

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

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Questions 56

Which of the following characterizations applies to a test tool used for the analysis of a developer's code prior to its execution?

Options:

A.

Tool support for test design and implementation.

B.

Tool support for static testing.

C.

Tool support for test execution and logging.

D.

Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

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Exam Code: CTFL4
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL 4.0 Exam
Last Update: May 10, 2026
Questions: 188

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