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CTFL_Syll2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

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Questions 5

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

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Questions 6

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 6

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.

(i)X-Z-V-W

(ii)W-Y-U-U

Options:

A.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

B.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S4 and (ii) = S2 –S4 – S4 – S4 – S2

C.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

D.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 - S4 – S2 and (ii) = S2 –S3 – S4 –S4 – S4

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Questions 7

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Options:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

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Questions 8

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

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Questions 9

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 9

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

Options:

A.

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B.

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

C.

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

D.

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

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Questions 10

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 10

Options:

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

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Questions 11

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

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Questions 12

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

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Questions 13

The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829). Which sentence is correct?

Options:

A.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

B.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

C.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

D.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

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Questions 14

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

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Questions 15

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

Options:

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

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Questions 16

Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Variables that are never used

B.

Coding standard violations

C.

Memory leaks

D.

Uncalled functions and procedures

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Questions 17

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

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Questions 18

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

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Questions 19

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

Options:

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

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Questions 20

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

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Questions 22

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

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Questions 23

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

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Questions 24

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

Options:

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

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Questions 25

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

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Questions 26

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

Options:

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

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Questions 27

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Options:

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

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Questions 28

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

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Questions 29

Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the component test level only

B.

At all test levels

C.

At integration testing and system testing levels only

D.

At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

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Questions 30

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 30

Options:

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

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Questions 31

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Questions 32

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

Options:

A.

To identify the requirements for using a tool

B.

To make a selection between alternative tools

C.

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

D.

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

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Questions 33

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

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Questions 34

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

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Questions 35

A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.

Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

Options:

A.

Performance, Usability, Regression.

B.

System, Load, Fail-over.

C.

Performance, Load, Stress.

D.

Load, Volume and Component.

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Questions 36

Which type of automation test design is used in the example below?

An automation team designs an automation framework for testing of their web-based applications. Realizing that they need to use different data for different test cycles, they decide not to hard-code any data

in their scripts Instead they read all the data from text files while test execution is in progress.

Options:

A.

Dynamic test design

B.

Data-driven

C.

Keyword-driven

D.

Data coverage analysis

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Questions 37

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good testing, independent of the development life cycle model?

Options:

A.

Each test level has objectives specific for the test level

B.

Testers are involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available

C.

Every development activity is matched by a corresponding testing activity.

D.

Testers are involved in reviewing documents as soon the documents are approved.

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Questions 38

What one of the following would be a typical objective of running a pilot project when introducing a new tool into an organisation?

Options:

A.

To establish whether the tool is available for a free trial period (and for how long).

B.

To provide training, coaching, and mentoring for users of the tool.

C.

To develop a clear set of requirements and objective criteria against which the tool can be evaluated.

D.

To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determining what would need to change.

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Questions 39

Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?

I. Static analysis can be used instead of dynamic testing.

II Static analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.

III. Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.

IV. Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.

Options:

A.

II. Ill

B.

I. IV

C.

I. II

D.

III. IV

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Questions 40

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches a tester's ability to communicate about defects, test results, and other test Information well?

Options:

A.

Emphasizing the benefits of testing

B.

Taking a command-and-control approach with the project learn

C.

Being firm and assertive with test findings and information

D.

Writing subjective defect reports and review findings

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Questions 41

You need to test a vending machine for light drinks The machine has a button for each of the drinks it contains

Pressing a button before inserting coins, will display the cost of the drink

Pressing the same button after inserting enough coins will dispense the drink and provide change if needed)

If the machine is out of the specific drink, and the button for this drink is pressed, the machine displays "Sold Out" (regardless if coins were inserted or not).

Which test technique is most suitable for this situation?

Options:

A.

State transition testing

B.

Equivalence class testing

C.

Boundary value testing

D.

Use-case testing

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Questions 42

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

B.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the metrics-based approach

C.

Burndown chads used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach

D.

Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach

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Questions 43

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

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Questions 44

Your agile project has scheduled a final sprint before release to fix and re-test all open defects with a priority level of 3 or above.

The following defect report shows the defect fields that are currently being captured on the system.

Title: Unable to add excursions to pre-paid cruises

Date raised: 21/05/18

Author: Emma Rigby

Status: Fixed

What occurred: I went to book an excursion for a pre-paid cruise but received an error message saying, ‘Facility not available’. I can book excursions on cruises that have not yet been fully paid.

What should have occurred: Requirement 3.12 says clearly that customers can add excursions after cruises have been fully paid so the facility should have been available (when an additional amount may now need to be paid).

Priority: 2

Software build: 2.1

Test level: System test

Environment details: System test 3

Which of ONE of the following additional defect report fields would be MOST beneficial for the sprint team to add?

Options:

A.

Severity.

B.

Test Script Id.

C.

Actual results.

D.

Expected results.

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Questions 45

A supermarket rewards its customers with discounts on certain products depending on how much the customer spends over a twelve-month period. The discounts are:

• 5% discount - once £500 has been spent.

• 10% discount - once a further £500 has been spent.

• 15% discount - once a further £1000 has been spent.

• 20% discount - once a further £2000 has been spent.

The following test cases have been written: TC1 -£500 spent TC2 - £2000 spent

How many more test cases must be written to achieve 100% 2-pomt boundary value analysis for the discount scheme?

Options:

A.

4

B.

6

C.

7

D.

8

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Questions 46

What is a peer review?

Options:

A.

An informal review without moderator

B.

A review done by developers and testers together

C.

A review done by developers only

D.

A review done by colleagues at the same organizational level

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Questions 47

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

Options:

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

C.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

D.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

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Questions 48

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

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Questions 49

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Options:

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

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Questions 50

Which of the following is a correct statement about informal reviews?

Options:

A.

The usefulness of an informal review is highly variable and strongly dependent on the reviewers

B.

Informal review must be done by the author of the reviewed material, before it is submitted for formal review

C.

The moderator of an informal review should not be the author of the reviewed material

D.

An informal review has no impact on the quality of the product, just on the level of knowledge of the reviewers while Structural tests can be performed at Unit test level

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Questions 51

Which of the following activities do NOT belong to test implementation and execution?

Options:

A.

Checking if the preconditions of test execution have been met

B.

Logging of test results

C.

Test data generation

D.

Prioritizing test conditions

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Questions 52

Which of the following test types are non-functional tests?

I) Acceptance test

II) Regression test

III) Stress test

IV) Component test

V) Reliability test

Options:

A.

I, III and V

B.

I. II and IV

C.

II. Ill and V

D.

III and V

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Questions 53

Which of the following statements regarding incidents is NOT true?

Options:

A.

Incidents should be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution.

B.

The discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes need to be logged as incidents

C.

Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised during development

D.

Incidents may be raised during development, review, testing or use of a software product

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Questions 54

After a record of poor-quality software releases (incorrect menu selection options, new features that do not work, users allowed to change security levels without administrator rights), you have been asked to review the test capability in your company.

You have limited time to do the review before the next project, which type of testing would be MOST appropriate to review first?

Options:

A.

Functional testing.

B.

Non-functional testing.

C.

Performance testing.

D.

Structural testing.

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Questions 55

Which of the following is an approach that can be used for exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Time-boxed test sessions are created, during which a tester uses a test charter containing test objectives to guide the testing.

B.

A tester methodically executes tests from a list of possible failures, based on experience, defect and failure data.

C.

A tester analyses, designs and implements tests based on external rules and standards.

D.

Tests are designed based on the guidance of stakeholders and experts outside the test team.

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Questions 56

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

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Questions 57

Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test process (leaving out the activity of control which should take place in parallel to all the other activities)?

Options:

A.

Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.

B.

Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.

C.

Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing

D.

Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities

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Questions 58

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Execution.

B.

Test Planning.

C.

Test Design.

D.

Test Analysis.

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Questions 59

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 59

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

Options:

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

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Questions 60

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

D.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

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Questions 61

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Options:

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

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Questions 62

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

Options:

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

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Questions 63

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

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Questions 64

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

Options:

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

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Questions 65

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

Options:

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

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Questions 66

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

Options:

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

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Questions 67

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

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Questions 68

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

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Questions 69

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

Options:

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

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Questions 70

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

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Questions 71

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

Options:

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

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Questions 72

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

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Questions 73

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

Options:

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

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Questions 74

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Questions 75

Given the following requirement:

CTFL_Syll2018 Question 75

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

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Questions 76

Before an invoice can be created, an account is required. Before an account can be set up, an account user is required (in order to set up the account). The software is delivered with a master user only, who can only create other types of users. The following test cases have been written to test the high-level structure of the software

a. Create an invoice

b. Amend an invoice

c. Process an invoice (send to customer)

d. Delete an invoice

e. Create an account

f. Create an account user

g. Amend an account user

h. Delete an account user

i. Amend an account

j. Delete an account

Which of the following test procedures would enable all tests to be run? [K3]

Options:

A.

f, g, a, c, b, d, e, i, j, h

B.

e, i, a, c, b, d, f, g, h, j

C.

e, i, f, g, a, c, b, d, h, j

D.

f, g, e, i, a, b, c, d, j, h

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Questions 77

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Options:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

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Questions 78

Component testing may include:

Options:

A.

Sociability testing.

B.

User acceptance testing.

C.

Beta testing.

D.

The use of stubs and drivers.

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Questions 79

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

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Questions 80

Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

Options:

A.

Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.

B.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

C.

Adequacy of the test approaches taken.

D.

Discussions on disaster recovery.

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Questions 81

What are metrics NOT used for?

Options:

A.

To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

B.

To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.

C.

To apply to the RAD development model.

D.

To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.

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Questions 82

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 83

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Options:

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

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Questions 84

What is static analysis?

Options:

A.

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

C.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

D.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

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Questions 85

What can testing demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B.

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

C.

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

D.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

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Questions 86

In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:

_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.

_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.

_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Options:

A.

$28,000

B.

$1,500

C.

$33,501

D.

$5,000

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Questions 87

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Questions 88

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

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Questions 89

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

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Questions 90

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

Options:

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

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Questions 91

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

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Questions 92

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Options:

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

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Questions 93

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

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Questions 94

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

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Questions 95

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

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Questions 96

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

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Questions 97

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Test planning. Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control, Checking test coverage and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning and control. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating test coverage and reporting. Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control. Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning, Test specification and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, Retesting and test closure activities

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Questions 98

Which test design technique can be used for effectively testing system requirements consisting of logical conditions?

Options:

A.

Boundary value analysis

B.

Use case testing

C.

Equivalence partitioning

D.

Decision table testing

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Questions 99

Which of the following statements is the best explanation why software failures can be caused by environmental conditions?

Options:

A.

Factors like magnetism, radiation and even pollution can affect electronic devices and the performance of their embedded real time software

B.

Environmental conditions only affect the hardware - not the software

C.

If the hardware on which the software application is running under ambient temperature and humidity, no failures can be linked to environmental conditions

D.

Extreme heat and vibrations exerted on storage media can cause errors in algorithms and program flows

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Questions 100

Which one of the following is an example of how product risk analysis can influence the testing approach?

Options:

A.

The complex business rules could result in costly failures, so decision table testing will be used for test case design.

B.

Performance failures were much lower than expected, so more test analysis will be conducted in this area.

C.

There is a lack of automation skills in the test team, so training for the automation tool will be rolled out.

D.

There are no product risks recorded around security, so security testing will be given priority as a contingency measure.

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Questions 101

Consider the following excerpt from a defect report:

To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat which is available in the common shared folder''.

Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?

Options:

A.

Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

B.

Provides ideas for test process improvement

C.

Does not belong in an incident report.

D.

Provides test leaders with information to report test progress

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Questions 102

Software was found to take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

Options:

A.

Failure

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

It is not a defect

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Questions 103

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

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Questions 104

Which of the following would NOT typically be covered in a test summary report?

Options:

A.

The risks associated with unresolved defects found during testing.

B.

Any features of the system that were not tested along with reasons.

C.

Whether there is any economic benefit in continuing testing beyond the planned date.

D.

An analysis of lessons learned to determine changes for future projects.

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Questions 105

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

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Questions 106

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

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Questions 107

Which one of the following statements about techniques for estimating test effort is correct?

Options:

A.

The metrics-based technique finds the most similar former project and uses its original estimate for the current project.

B.

The expert-based approach is based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks or by subject matter experts.

C.

The metrics-based technique uses metrics supplied by the current test team based on their subjective feel for effort required.

D.

In an expert-based approach, the test lead with the most years in the role is chosen to produce the estimate.

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Questions 108

Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

Options:

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures

B.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

C.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects

D.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

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Questions 109

Which of the following Is an example of tasks most associated with the test design activity?

Options:

A.

Test data, derived from production data, is developed for use during testing

B.

The project manager updates the project schedule as key test tasks are completed

C.

The Identification of test execution and test automation tools

D.

Every day, the tester notes the status of his/her test cases in preparation for daily reports

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll2018
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018)
Last Update: May 24, 2024
Questions: 365

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