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CTFL_Syll_4.0 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

Options:

A.

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

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Questions 5

The following state transition diagram describes the behavior of a control system in terms of its possible modes of operation. The initial start state will be the “NORMAL MODE”.

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 5

Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?

Options:

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

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Questions 6

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is“NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers anINVALID sequence?

Options:

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

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Questions 7

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Questions 8

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask theuser to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[II]. Expected result

[III]. Actual result

[IV]. Test level

[V]. Root cause

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to correctly specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[I]and [IV]

B.

[II]and [III]

C.

[II]. [Ill] and [V]

D.

[I]. [IV] and [V]

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Questions 9

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

Options:

A.

All participants to the review will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting

C.

All participants to the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

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Questions 10

Which of the following statement about the shift-left approach is false?

Options:

A.

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices

C.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools

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Questions 11

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

Options:

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

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Questions 12

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is true?

Options:

A.

Only developers and testers should be involved in retrospectives, as involving people in other roles is very likely to prevent developers and testers from having open and constructive discussions that really help identify process improvements

B.

Retrospectives can be very effective in identifying process improvements and can also be very efficient and cost-effective especially since, unlike reviews, they do not require any follow-up activities

C.

On Agile projects, well-conducted retrospectives at the end of each iteration can help the team reduce and sometimes even eliminate the need for daily stand-up meetings

D.

During retrospectives, in addition to identifying relevant process improvements, participants should also consider how to implement these improvements and retain them based on the context of the project, such as the software development lifecycle

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Questions 14

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of the test plan?

Options:

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

C.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

D.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

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Questions 15

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

Options:

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous integration process

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing

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Questions 16

Which ONE of the following options is a practice that does NOT TYPICALLY correspond to a shift left approach?

Options:

A.

Using continuous integration (CI) and even better continuous delivery (CD).

B.

Reviewing the specification from the perspective of testing.

C.

Write the test cases before writing the code and run the code in a test harness during code implementation.

D.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

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Questions 17

Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:

Options:

A.

not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others

B.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

C.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

D.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

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Questions 18

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during:

Options:

A.

test execution

B.

test design

C.

test analysis

D.

test planning

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Questions 19

Scenario 2 “Big Drop”:

A company“The Big Drop”providesbulk discounts and frequent customer discountsas follows:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 19

How manypossible decision rulescan be extracted from this table?

Options:

A.

5 decision rules

B.

6 decision rules

C.

32 decision rules

D.

8 decision rules

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Questions 20

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

B.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

C.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

D.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

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Questions 21

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

B.

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

C.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

D.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

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Questions 22

Your organization's test strategy states that it is desirable to usemore than one method for estimating test effort. You are responsible for estimating test effort for the next project. Based on historical data, thedevelopment-to-test effort ratiois5:3.

The initial estimate for thedevelopment effort is 450 person-days.

Which ONE of the following options corresponds to the estimatedtest effortusing the ratio-based method?

Options:

A.

750 person-days

B.

180 person-days

C.

720 person-days

D.

270 person-days

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Questions 23

A document describes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets. Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified. This document is a typical work product produced as part of:

Options:

A.

test design

B.

test analysis

C.

test implementation

D.

test monitoring and control

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Questions 24

Which ONE of the following options BEST characterizes the Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) approach?

Options:

A.

Derives tests from acceptance criteria as part of the system design process. Tests are written before the part of the application is developed to satisfy the tests. Tests may persist as automated tests to ensure the code quality in future adaptions/refactoring.

B.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Given/When/Then format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

C.

Expresses the desired behavior of an application with test cases written in a simple form of natural language that is easy to understand by stakeholders—usually using the Preconditions/Input Values/Process/Output Values/Postconditions format. Test cases are then automatically translated into executable tests.

D.

Derives tests from acceptance criteria as part of the system design process. Tests are written before the part of the application is developed to satisfy the tests. Tests will persist as automated tests to ensure code maintainability in future adaptions/refactoring.

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Questions 25

A test status report should:

Options:

A.

specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.

be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.

always be based on the same template within an organization, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented

D.

specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organization that were chosen at the outset of the test project

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Questions 26

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 26

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

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Questions 27

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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Questions 28

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 29

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is false?

Options:

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed

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Questions 30

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of;

Options:

A.

Mistake

B.

Fault

C.

Error

D.

Failure

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

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Questions 32

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

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Questions 33

Consider the followingiteration planning taskswhere a tester can provide value:

    Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks)

    Estimate test effort for all testing tasks

    Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object

Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?

Options:

A.

Determining the test strategy

B.

Participating in the detailed risk analysis of user stories and determining their testability

C.

Planning the testing for the release

D.

Writing testable user stories and acceptance criteria

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Questions 34

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 34

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Questions 35

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describesbranch testing?

Options:

A.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In branch testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between decisions, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise flow transfers in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

C.

In branch testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as thenumber of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

D.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable decisions. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is expressed as a percentage.

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Questions 36

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Questions 37

The whole-team approach:

Options:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Questions 38

Which ONE of the following options contains the statements (I - V) that MOST ACCURATELY characterize acceptance test levels?

I. Acceptance test levels focus on validating and demonstrating readiness for deployment.

II. Acceptance test levels must be performed by an independent test team.

III. Acceptance test levels often require specific support, such as test harnesses.

IV. Acceptance test levels ideally should be performed by the intended users.

V. Acceptance test levels use component specifications as the test basis for the system.

Options:

A.

Statements I, III, and V

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I and IV

D.

Statements II and V

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Questions 39

A typical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to:

Options:

A.

take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.

assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team

C.

use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient

D.

determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

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Questions 40

Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is true?

Options:

A.

Refactoring is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code written to satisfy those tests

B.

ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level

C.

BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level

D.

ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process

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Questions 41

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

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Questions 42

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads

[II]. A user’s session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user

[III]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan

[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

[II] and [IV] are product risks: [I] and [III] are project risks

B.

[II] and [III] are product risks, [I] and [IV] are project risks

C.

[I], and [IV] are product risks: [II] and [III] are project risks

D.

[I], [II] and [III] are product risks; [IV] is a project risk

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Questions 43

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

Options:

A.

The developer

B.

The customer

C.

The development manager

D.

The test leader

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Questions 44

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

Options:

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

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Questions 45

Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Yes. Spending too much money on test ng will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an exit criterion helps avoid this

B.

No. The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

C.

Yes. Going by cost as an exit criterion constrains the testing project which will hello achieve the desired quality level defined for the project

D.

No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

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Questions 47

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using theBoundary Value Analysis (BVA)technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

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Questions 48

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Questions 49

Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

Options:

A.

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

B.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

C.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

D.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

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Questions 50

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

Options:

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

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Questions 51

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

Options:

A.

9,5001

B.

10,5000

C.

9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D.

9,10,5000,5001

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Questions 52

Which ONE of the following statements about the objectives of confirmation and regression testing is the BEST?

Options:

A.

Confirmation testing aims to confirm that the observed failure is not a false positive. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

B.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

C.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been satisfactorily fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in modified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

D.

The purpose of regression testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been satisfactorily resolved. The purpose of the confirmation testing is to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

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Questions 53

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

Options:

A.

are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B.

are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

C.

can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

D.

must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

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Questions 54

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator

C.

Recorder

D.

Moderator

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Questions 55

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describesstatement testing?

Options:

A.

In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

C.

In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

D.

In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

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Questions 56

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 57

Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?

Options:

A.

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

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Questions 58

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

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Questions 59

Which of the following types of tools is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerization tool

B.

Fault seeding tool

C.

Static analysis tool

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Questions 60

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll_4.0
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
Last Update: Jun 11, 2025
Questions: 200

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