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D-ISM-FN-23 Dell Information Storage and Management Foundations 2023 Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which method automatically allocates a large capacity secondary cache using SSD and SCM?

Options:

A.

Cache provisioning

B.

Volatile cache

C.

Cache tiering

D.

Non-volatile cache

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Questions 5

In an SDS environment, which protocol supports the resource-oriented architecture for the development of scalable and lightweight web applications while adhering to a set of constraints?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

NFS

C.

CIFS

D.

REST

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Questions 6

Refer to the Exhibit:

D-ISM-FN-23 Question 6

Which functions align with each layer of the FC Protocol Stack using the following order: FC-4, FC-2, FC-1, and FC-0?

Options:

A.

Physical

Encode and decode

Routing and flow control

Mapping interface

B.

Physical

Encode and decode

Common services

Mapping interface

C.

Mapping interface

Routing and flow control

Encode and decode

Physical

D.

Mapping interface

Common services

Encode and decode

Physical

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Questions 7

Which loT architecture component provides the connection to monitor and control user devices? (First Choose Correct option and give detailed explanation delltechnologies.com)

Options:

A.

Gateways

B.

Smart Devices

C.

Middleware

D.

Applications

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Questions 8

What method does FCIP use to transport Fibre Channel SAN data?

Options:

A.

FCIP encapsulates and tunnels FC SAN data over Ethernet networks.

B.

FCIP encapsulates and tunnels FC SAN data over IP networks.

C.

FCIP splits LAN and FC SAN data and tunnels FC SAN data over Ethernet networks.

D.

FCIP separates LAN and FC SAN data and tunnels FC SAN data over IP networks.

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Questions 9

In continuous data protection, what does the amount of journal space determine?

Options:

A.

Length of time required to recover the data

B.

Amount of space the source and replica volumes require

C.

Amount of data that can be restored to a specific point

D.

How far back the data can be recovered

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Questions 10

What is a benefit of including a Defense-in-depth strategy as part of the data center security strategy?

Options:

A.

Optimize application and data storage security controls

B.

Optimize application and network security controls

C.

Reduce the overall cost of deploying security controls

D.

Reduce the scope of an information security risk

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Questions 11

What functionality does the control layer provide in a software-defined networking architecture?

Options:

A.

Forwards data packets based on application layer requirements

B.

Defines network behavior through physical network device policies

C.

Establishes communication between the infrastructure and interface layers

D.

Extracts network information from the data plane and sends it to the application layer

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Questions 12

Match each OSD features with its description.

D-ISM-FN-23 Question 12

Options:

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Questions 13

What is a benefit of using the FCoE storage protocol?

Options:

A.

Fewer physical storage systems are required when using FC SAN and iSCSI enabled storage systems.

B.

Fewer physical storage systems are required when using FC SAN and FCoE enabled storage systems.

C.

Fewer physical Fibre Channel and Gigabit Ethernet switches are required

D.

Fewer physical host Ethernet network adapters are required when using CNA adapters.

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Questions 14

Which file system provides a streaming interface using the MapReduce framework?

Options:

A.

CIFS

B.

HDFS

C.

NFS

D.

NTFS

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Questions 15

What is a key benefit for deploying a remote data protection and recovery solution in a data center environment?

Options:

A.

Maximizes application and information availability

B.

Reduces required maintenance time for IT resources

C.

Avoids security risks that exposes the business data

D.

Reduces the cost of protecting data

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Questions 16

What set of components are part of a block-based storage array controller?

Options:

A.

Front-end ports

Cache

Link Control Cards

B.

Front-end ports

Cache

C.

Front-end ports

Back-end ports

Cache

D.

Front-end ports

Back-end-ports

Cache

Link Control Cards

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Questions 17

What is a key function of the orchestration layer in a modern data center architecture?

Options:

A.

Provides a unified view to manage the resources across the data centers

B.

Enables automatic updates of offerings listed in the service catalog with pre-defined workflows

C.

Allows automated arrangement, coordination, and management of resource provisioning

D.

Interacts directly with physical components across layers to begin provisioning

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Questions 18

Which data protection solution provides the ability to select a backup technology based on demand?

Options:

A.

Agent-Based backup

B.

Cloud-Based backup

C.

File-Based backup

D.

Image-Based backup

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Questions 19

What is a benefit of using an existing Ethernet network infrastructure for storage connectivity?

Options:

A.

Provides a dedicated network for storage

B.

Ensures security by allowing only localized data movement

C.

Ensures lossless transmission of FC traffic

D.

Reduces overall cost of the network infrastructure

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Questions 20

What is a benefit of implementing a big data ecosystem?

Options:

A.

Applies new processing and management methods to derive better business value from unstructured data

B.

Implements new technical and analytical methods to derive business value from large object data

C.

Applies new processing and management methods to improve large relational database response performance

D.

Implements new technical and analytical methods to derive business value from large datasets

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Questions 21

What is a feature of 5G technology?

Options:

A.

Higher LAN bandwidth

B.

Higher connectivity density

C.

Higher WAN bandwidth

D.

Higher transmission distances

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Questions 22

Why is it important to automate the operations management process in a data center environment?

Options:

A.

converts CAPEX to OPEX

B.

mitigates operation management risks

C.

eliminates operational cost

D.

ensures operational agility

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Questions 23

Which Dell EMC product is designed to host both file and object data?

Options:

A.

PowerEdge

B.

PowerScale

C.

PowerVault

D.

Cloud Tiering Appliance

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Questions 24

What occurs during a Shared Technology Vulnerability threat?

Options:

A.

An attacker gains access to an administrator's, user's or system account.

B.

An attacker avoids applications that are already approved by an IT organization.

C.

An attacker exploits the weaknesses of tools used to enable multi-tenancy.

D.

An attacker exhausts network bandwidth or CPU cycles.

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Questions 25

Match the object-based storage device (OSD) features with their descriptions.

D-ISM-FN-23 Question 25

Options:

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Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

D-ISM-FN-23 Question 26

What type of Fibre Channel port does the “X” represent?

Options:

A.

N_port

B.

F_port

C.

E_port

D.

NL_port

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Questions 27

Which Connectrix FC switch model supports NVMe in a 32Gb/s SAN fabric exclusively?

Options:

A.

DS-6600B

B.

MDS 9148S

C.

DS-6505B

D.

MDS-9132T

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Questions 28

If the erasure coding technique used divides data into 12 data segments and 5 coding segments, what is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration?

Options:

A.

5

B.

7

C.

3

D.

17

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Questions 29

What is an accurate statement about governance?

Options:

A.

Creates the policies and enforces their adherence

B.

Ensures removal of data security vulnerabilities

C.

Determines strategy and operational rules by which companies are directed and managed

D.

Restricts access privileges to certain legitimate users to avoid IT managed resource conflicts

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Questions 30

An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours; from Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 5 occurs as follows:

Tuesday = 6 AM to 7 AM Thursday = 5 PM to 9 PM Friday = 8 AM to 9 AM

What is the MTBF of Port 5?

Options:

A.

30 hours

B.

32 hours

C.

40 hours

D.

38 hours

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Questions 31

Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for logical addressing and routing?

Options:

A.

Data Link

B.

Session

C.

Network

D.

Transport

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Questions 32

Which data deduplication method increases the probability of identifying duplicate data even when there is only a minor difference between two documents?

Options:

A.

Variable-length segment

B.

Single-instance

C.

File-level

D.

Object-level

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Questions 33

An organization wants to replicate their data by extending the local network across a public network. Prior to implementing replication, they need to secure the network.

Which security control mechanism is recommended?

Options:

A.

Virtual storage area network

B.

Demilitarized zone

C.

Virtual local area network

D.

Virtual private network

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Questions 34

In a software-defined networking architecture, which layer is responsible for handling data packet forwarding or dropping?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Application

C.

Control

D.

Interface

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Questions 35

Which performance feature does an intelligent storage system provide?

Options:

A.

Automated storage tiering

B.

RAID 4 data protection

C.

End-to-end NVMe/IB storage connectivity

D.

End-to-end SAS storage connectivity

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Questions 36

Which network performance attribute is achieved when using flow control in FOP?

Options:

A.

In-order packet delivery

B.

IP network congestion detection and handling

C.

Eliminate IP packet fragmentation

D.

IP packet collision detection and handling

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Questions 37

Why is it important for organizations to implement a multi-site remote replication solution?

Options:

A.

Ensure data protection is always available if there are any single site failures

B.

Provide consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures

C.

Perform synchronous replication with low network bandwidth

D.

Recover data to any point-in-time in the event of a remote site failure

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Questions 38

What is the key advantage of RAID 6 compared to RAID 5?

Options:

A.

Higher usable storage capacity

B.

Fewer disk drives

C.

Higher resiliency

D.

Lower write penalty

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Questions 39

What is a benefit of differential backup over incremental backup?

Options:

A.

Incremental backup can expand to contain more data than differential backup.

B.

Differential backups have longer restore times than incremental backup.

C.

Differential backup can expand to contain more data than an incremental backup

D.

Incremental backups determine the backup copy used to restore the data.

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Questions 40

Which Dell EMC product is a software-defined storage platform that abstracts, pools, and automates a data center’s physical storage infrastructure?

Options:

A.

XtremIO

B.

ViPR Controller

C.

VxFlex OS

D.

PowerMax

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Questions 41

What is the key advantage of cloning a VM?

Options:

A.

Improves the performance of existing VM and new VMs

B.

Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a VM

C.

Saves time when creating multiple identical copies of a VM

D.

Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address

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Questions 42

What is a benefit of unified storage systems?

Options:

A.

Provides the capability to separately plan the capacity consumption of object-based data

B.

Eliminates the need to use SATA disk drives to store less valued data

C.

Enables rapid development of modern applications by using a common storage pool

D.

Increases the overall storage capacity utilization with no stranded capacity

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Questions 43

Which modern technology enables data to be securely collected and processed at point of creation to create new value?

Options:

A.

Private cloud

B.

Edge Computing

C.

Big Data

D.

AI/ML

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Questions 44

A user lost access to a key VM due to a hardware failure. A proxy server regularly takes PIT snapshots of the VM to protect the data.

What type of data protection method is this called'?

Options:

A.

Agent-based

B.

Backup as a service

C.

Local replication

D.

Image-based

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Questions 45

Why is it important for organizations to store protect and manage their data?

Options:

A.

To eliminate complexity in managing the data center environment

B.

To meet the requirements of legal and data governance regulations

C.

To develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement

D.

To reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up

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Questions 46

Refer to the exhibit.

D-ISM-FN-23 Question 46

What type of NAS system(s) processes file write and read operations as described in the example?

Options:

A.

Scale-up and integrated NAS systems

B.

Scale-up NAS system only

C.

Scale -out NAS system

D.

Integrated NAS system only

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Questions 47

A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational from 6 AM to 6 PM, Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port 4 occurs with the week as follows:

Monday= 11 AM to 1 PM

Wednesday= 5 PM to 10 PM

Thursday= 7 AM to 10 AM

Saturday= 11 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 4 in that week?

Options:

A.

80%

B.

86.7%

C.

90%

D.

81 6%

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Questions 48

Which process eliminates data redundancy in a data set?

Options:

A.

Data archiving

B.

Data replication

C.

Data migration

D.

Data deduplication

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Questions 49

Which set of factors govern the overall performance of a hard disk drive?

Options:

A.

Seek time

Rotational latency Data transfer rate

B.

Seek time

Rotational latency Bandwidth

C.

Seek time

Rotational latency RAID level

D.

Seek time

Rotational latency

I/O operations per second

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Questions 50

How is NVMe used to connect a host to M.2 storage devices?

Options:

A.

through an embedded PCIe controller

B.

through a PCIe bus FC HBA card

C.

through a PCIe bus card

D.

through an embedded FC HBA controller

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Questions 51

What is a benefit of performing local replication?

Options:

A.

Enables operational recovery in the event of a site-level disaster

B.

Enables operational recovery in the event of data loss

C.

Provides disaster recovery as a service offering

D.

Reduces the time to perform data backups

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Questions 52

Refer to the Exhibit:

D-ISM-FN-23 Question 52

What type of FC port does the "X" represent?

Options:

A.

F_port

B.

NI_port

C.

N_port

D.

E_port

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Questions 53

A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational from 8 AM to 8 PM, Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 2 occurs on a particular week as follows:

Monday = 10 AM to 12 PM Wednesday = 4 PM to 9 PM Thursday = 4 PM to 7 PM

Friday = 3 PM to 6 PM Saturday = 9 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 2 in that week?

Options:

A.

70%

B.

71.6%

C.

78.3%

D.

80%

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Questions 54

What is the functionality of the lock in a cyber recovery process?

Options:

A.

Isolates network and prevent network from establishing an external connection

B.

Restricts overwriting of data to meet both corporate governance and compliance standards

C.

Determines if a replication copy contains malware or other anomalies

D.

Synchronizes the latest data and creates restore points

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Questions 55

Which statement is true regarding virtual provisioning?

Options:

A.

Shared and Thin LUNS can be expanded rapidly with only minor disruptions

B.

Multiple shared storage pools can be created while each pool must be allocated to a unique thin LUN

C.

Virtual provisioning enables more efficient allocation of storage to compute systems

D.

Virtual provisioning prevents issues that arise from oversubscription

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Questions 56

What is an impact of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Compromises user accounts and data to malicious insiders

B.

Hijacks privileges to compromise data security

C.

Prevents legitimate users from accessing IT resources or service

D.

Duplicates user credentials to compromise data security

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Exam Code: D-ISM-FN-23
Exam Name: Dell Information Storage and Management Foundations 2023 Exam
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 189

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