Free Practice Questions for the CompTIA Tech+ FC0-U71 Exam (2026 Updated)

Compiled languages (e.g., C, C++, Go) are translated into machine code before execution, making them faster and more efficient at runtime than interpreted or scripting languages.

“Compiled code is translated into machine language before execution, providing faster performance compared to interpreted code.” — CompTIA ITF+ Software Concepts

Correct answer: B

A touch screen functions as both an input and output device. According to the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

" A touchscreen display is a hybrid device combining input and output. It shows visual output like a standard monitor but also allows the user to interact directly by touching the screen. "

" Input devices allow users to provide data or control signals (e.g., keyboard, mouse, touchscreen). "

" Output devices show results from the computer ' s processing (e.g., monitor, printer, touchscreen). "

Touchscreens display information (output) and receive user input through touch (input). They do not perform storage, networking, processing, or logging.

A relational database uses tables consisting of rows and columns where a primary key uniquely identifies each row (record). As stated in the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

" Relational databases store data in tables consisting of rows and columns. Each table has a primary key, which uniquely identifies each record. "

" Document and key/value databases are types of NoSQL databases and do not use primary keys in the same structured tabular format. "

Non-structured databases (like object storage or big data repositories) do not enforce primary keys.

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“The rules and structure of the database are called its schema. It defines the tables, forms, reports, queries, data types allowed, and pretty much everything else about the database.”

It also clarifies:

“The logical schema outlines the structure of the database, such as the tables and their fields (columns), and relationships between tables.”

Thus, an outline of a database’s structure is called a schema.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “Schema” (pp. 392–393).

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide:

“Changing Default Usernames and Passwords — The first thing a potential hacker will try to use is the default username or password for a device. Always change them.”

It also emphasizes:

“Enabling passwords and changing default usernames and passwords are essential password management best practices.”

Therefore, the correct action after server setup is to change the default usernames and passwords to secure the system.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Managing Passwords” (pp. 594–595).

The correct answer is A. A flash drive is a small, portable local storage device, so it is useful when a user needs to copy or back up a local file and carry it to another location, such as home. Option B describes cloud storage. Option C describes network file sharing. Option D describes long-term archiving, which is not the best use case for a flash drive because flash drives are small, easy to misplace, and not ideal as long-term archive media.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide defines an external flash drive as “a small, portable SSD that connects through a USB port” and says its “primary benefit is portability.” The guide also lists flash drives as a locally attached backup storage option.

Tablets typically connect to wireless networks using Wi-Fi, which adheres to the IEEE 802.11 standard (often seen as 802.11a/b/g/n/ac/ax). The correct protocol family for this type of connection is 802.11X (referring to Wi-Fi technologies broadly).

“Wireless devices such as tablets use the 802.11 standards to connect to Wi-Fi access points for network connectivity.” — CompTIA ITF+

Other options:

B. Thunderbolt and D. USB-C – Wired connection standards

C. Bluetooth – Short-range peripheral communication, not Wi-Fi

Correct answer: A

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“Solid-state drives (SSDs) use flash memory, which is non-magnetic and non-volatile. They have no moving parts, unlike HDDs, which use magnetic platters.”

It further notes:

“Conventional hard drives have spinning platters and read/write heads, whereas SSDs use flash memory. SSDs are faster but generally more expensive than their HDD counterparts.”

Therefore, SSD (solid-state drive) meets all the listed requirements.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 1: Core Hardware Components — “Exploring Storage and Expansion Devices” (pp. 35–60).

Task management utilities like Task Manager in Windows are used to monitor and manage running applications and processes, including ending unresponsive ones.

“Task Manager is used to view and end processes or applications that are not responding.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: B

The question asks how the value 9 can be represented using only ones and zeros, which is the definition of binary. In binary, the decimal number 9 is represented as 1001.

“Binary is a base-2 numeral system that represents numeric values using only two symbols: 0 and 1. Computers use binary to process and store all data.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) clearly defines Platform as a Service (PaaS) as the most appropriate for developers seeking a managed coding environment:

“Platform as a Service (PaaS) adds a layer to IaaS that includes software development tools such as runtime environments. Because of this, it can be very helpful to software developers; the vendor manages the various hardware platforms. This frees up the software developer to focus on building their application and scaling it.”

It also provides examples:

“Examples of PaaS include Google App Engine, Microsoft Azure, Red Hat OpenShift, Amazon Web Services (AWS) Elastic Beanstalk, Engine Yard, and Heroku.”

This clearly shows that PaaS allows developers to focus on writing code without managing the underlying infrastructure—exactly what the question describes.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 9: Cloud Computing and Artificial Intelligence — Section “Cloud Services” and Table 9.1 (pp. 494–496).

Device physical addresses, such as MAC (Media Access Control) addresses, are represented in hexadecimal format. A typical MAC address looks like 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E, using base-16 values (0–9 and A–F).

“MAC addresses are 48-bit identifiers assigned to network interfaces, commonly displayed in hexadecimal format.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: A

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), the SFP (Small Form-Factor Pluggable) connector is directly associated with fiber-optic networking. The guide lists:

“SFP (small form-factor pluggable) connectors are commonly used in fiber-optic connections to allow hot-swappable transceivers for different types of fiber cables.”

Additionally, the same guide’s chapter on Networking Concepts and Technologies explains:

“Fiber-optic around 2 Gbps – Incredibly fast and more expensive than DSL or cable.”

Therefore, fiber Internet is the only service type that uses SFP connectors for data transmission over optical cables.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “External network connections” and “Common Internet connection types and speeds” (pp. 429–435).

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “SFP (small form-factor pluggable) connectors” (pp. 97–98).

After identifying the issue, implementing a solution, and verifying functionality (test page), the next step in the troubleshooting process is to document the solution for future reference.

“The final step in the troubleshooting methodology is to document findings, actions, and outcomes to ensure organizational learning and continuity.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: D

When the network is unavailable, portable storage like a flash drive (USB storage device) is suitable for transferring large files:

“Flash drives provide portable storage solutions capable of handling large data files.”

NAS (network-attached storage) requires a functioning network. RAM is volatile memory not used for file transfer, and cloud storage requires internet connectivity.

The most important consideration when opening a file on an Operating System Graphical User Interface (OS GUI) is the file extension. A file extension identifies the type of file and determines which software application can open it. In the official CompTIA ITF+ Student Guide, it is stated that:

“The last part of the file name represents an extension, which describes what type of file it is and is used by Windows to associate the file with an application.”

“Files are usually opened by double-clicking them. You may want to open a file in a software product other than the default, however. When you right-click a file, the shortcut menu displays a list of suitable choices, or you can choose Open With and browse for a different application. You can also use the Default Programs applet to configure file associations.”

“Do not change a file ' s extension if it is shown. If you delete or change the extension, the file will not be associated with the correct program for opening it.”

This means the OS uses the file extension to decide which application to use to open a file. Changing or deleting the extension can result in the file not opening properly because it no longer matches the program expected to open it.

A hypervisor is the software or hardware platform that enables virtualization. It allows multiple operating systems (guest OSes) to run on a single physical machine.

“A hypervisor manages virtual machines on a single physical system. It enables the creation and management of guest OS environments.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: D

An embedded operating system is used in dedicated devices such as smart appliances, printers, or industrial machines. It performs specific functions and interacts with other systems, like sending alerts.

“Embedded operating systems are designed to run on specialized hardware with a fixed function, such as in appliances or vehicles.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Guide

Correct answer: B

A LAN (Local Area Network) connects devices in a limited geographical area such as a building or office.

“A LAN is a network that connects computers within a small geographical area such as a home, school, or office building.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

Output devices display or present data to users:

“A Smart TV displays visual and audio output, qualifying it as an output device.”

Web cameras, keyboards, and microphones are input devices that capture data rather than display or present it.

This scenario describes a policy where the system enforces password expiration, prompting users to update passwords after a defined period.

“Password expiration is a security policy that requires users to reset their passwords periodically—commonly 30, 60, or 90 days—to mitigate the risk of compromised credentials.” — CompTIA ITF+ Objectives

Password privacy refers to keeping the password confidential.

Password history restricts reuse of old passwords.

Password complexity enforces character rules (e.g., uppercase, numbers, symbols).

Correct answer: D

The correct answer is C. Assembly. Assembly language is the lowest-level language listed and is closest to machine code. It allows developers to write instructions that are translated into executable machine code. Scripting languages automate or run interpreted tasks, markup languages structure content such as web pages, and query languages are used to interact with databases.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that “assembly language is the lowest level of code in which people can write” and that it “allows the developer to provide instructions directly to the hardware.” It also states that assembly is translated into executable machine code by an assembler.

In object-oriented programming, methods are functions or procedures associated with an object that perform actions such as retrieving data:

“Methods are actions that an object can perform. They typically manipulate or retrieve data stored within the object.”

Variables store data, attributes define properties, and loops control repetition but do not directly handle data retrieval within objects.

When a new vulnerability is discovered in software, the best way to secure it is by applying updates (patches) released by the software vendor. According to the CompTIA ITF+ objectives:

“Vendors regularly release software updates and security patches to fix vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Installing these patches promptly is crucial for maintaining system security.”

Although configuring a firewall and authentication improves overall security, they do not directly patch or fix the vulnerability. Uninstalling may be an option only if a patch is unavailable or the software is no longer needed. Therefore, the best and most proactive response is B: Apply updates.

A primary key is a unique identifier for each record in a database table. It must be unique and not null across all rows. In this table, the field ID is the only column that uniquely identifies each row and does not repeat.

“A primary key is a field (or a set of fields) that uniquely identifies a record in a table. It ensures that each record can be uniquely retrieved.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Study Guide

Analysis of other options:

Month, Day, Year, and Name can have duplicate values across multiple records and therefore do not serve as unique identifiers.

Correct answer: A

The ID field contains unique values for each record and is typically used as a primary key in a database. A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a table.

Month, Day, Year, and Name may have duplicates and do not guarantee uniqueness.

Recording user actions is an example of accounting, which helps track what users do on a system, especially for auditing purposes.

“Accounting refers to the recording and logging of system activities, including tracking user actions within applications or services.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: A

The correct answer is C. Onboard NICs are built into the motherboard. An onboard NIC is integrated into the motherboard, while an expansion card NIC is a separate add-on card installed into an expansion slot. The question asks for the primary difference, not speed or cost. Onboard does not automatically mean faster or more expensive.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that Tech+ objective 2.2 expects knowledge of “wired and wireless cards as well as onboard (integrated into the motherboard) versus expansion cards.” It also explains that “most computers today have the NIC circuitry integrated into their motherboards.”

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide details that wireless performance and range are significantly affected by interference:

“Interference from other electronics and obstructions will lower the data rate. Radio frequency interference (RFI) from communications devices will degrade the signal. Microwave ovens and electrical motors are notoriously harsh on wireless signals. Solid objects, especially concrete block walls and steel, cut down on range as well.”

Hence, interference is the most likely cause for the reduced wireless coverage.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Wireless Interference and Attenuation” (pp. 440–441).

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“Remote support software allows technicians to connect to a user’s computer from another location, troubleshoot issues, install applications, and perform updates without physically being at the same site.”

Additionally, the review question section confirms:

“You are setting up a technical support help desk for a new app. What type of software should you get to help the technicians fix problems more effectively?

Answer: Remote support.”

Thus, the technician in another state uses remote support software to perform the installation.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 5: Software Applications — “Remote Support Software” (pp. 347–348).

Pseudocode represents logic written in plain, human-readable language that resembles programming structure but isn’t actual code:

“Pseudocode allows programmers to design algorithms using readable statements before translating them into actual code.”

Branch and sequence refer to control flow structures, and object-oriented refers to a programming paradigm.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide classifies critical data as essential information that organizations depend on for daily functioning:

“Critical data is information without which an organization cannot function effectively. Examples include customer records, transaction data, and operational databases. The loss or corruption of such data can significantly impact business continuity.”

This type of data differs from “big data,” which refers to massive data sets used for analytics, and from “monetized data,” which refers to data sold or used for financial gain.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 12: Data Continuity and Computer Support — “Understanding Data Importance and Critical Data” (pp. 619–621).

In CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), the section “Reviewing Throughput Speeds” explains:

“The most basic measure of throughput is in bits per second (bps)—that is, how many bits are transmitted across the network media (or wireless connection) any given second. Each of the following designations increases that speed by 1000 times:

■ Kilobits per second (Kbps)

■ Megabits per second (Mbps)

■ Gigabits per second (Gbps)

■ Terabits per second (Tbps)”

This shows that Mbps (megabits per second) is the standard measurement unit for Internet connection speed.

802.11X is a wireless security standard,

MHz measures processor frequency, and

Bytes measure data size, not transfer rate.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Reviewing Throughput Speeds” (pp. 424–425).

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Throughput units of measure” (p. 80).

The correct answer is B. 101101. Hexadecimal is base-16. The hexadecimal value 2D equals 2 × 16 plus D. Since hexadecimal letters A through F represent decimal values 10 through 15, D represents 13. Therefore, 2D equals 32 + 13 = 45 in decimal. In binary, 45 is 101101 because it equals 32 + 8 + 4 + 1.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains that hexadecimal is “base-16” and that letters A through F represent decimal numbers 10 through 15. It also provides the binary place values used for conversion: 128, 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, and 1.

Verified and corrected questions 166–171:

A flat file is a simple database format often stored as a plain text or CSV file. It is ideal for small data sets where speed and simplicity are required.

“Flat files are simple and fast for storing small amounts of data and are easy to process without requiring a full database management system.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Concepts

Correct answer: A

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states:

“Floats are numbers that include decimals. Integers are whole numbers with no decimals, and strings are text.”

An example from the book:

“It’s a float data type, which is a number with a decimal place.”

Therefore, -2.34 represents a float.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Data Types and Structures” (pp. 372–373).

A firewall can block traffic between workstations if it ' s not properly configured. If a user cannot connect from one device to another on the network, it is likely that the firewall settings are preventing this communication.

“Firewalls control the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. If improperly configured, they may block legitimate access between devices.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options:

B. Database – Not related to connectivity

C. Anti-malware – Protects from malicious software, not network configuration

D. Certificate – Used for secure communication, but not basic connectivity

Correct answer: A

The least privilege model is a principle of giving users the minimum level of access needed to perform their roles. Removing unnecessary access aligns with this principle.

“Least privilege limits users to only the resources necessary for their duties, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Essentials

Correct answer: A

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) defines phishing as:

“Creating a site or sending an email that masquerades as a legitimate secure site but actually steals your information is called phishing.”

It further explains:

“When people talk about phishing, it’s generally in the context of suspicious email because that’s how the term originated. Hackers sent out messages hoping to get someone to take the bait.”

By deleting a suspicious email without opening or clicking links, the user is practicing anti-phishing awareness — a key cybersecurity best practice.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Recognizing Suspicious Sites, Links, and Ads” and “Phishing” (pp. 587–589).

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), a flowchart is explicitly defined as:

“A flowchart is a visual representation of a program that uses boxes to represent the logic. Flowcharts are critical in the software development process. They should be created before the code is developed, much like blueprints should be drawn before building a house. They help the developers visualize the flow of the program, making it easier to plan out the sections of code needed.”

The guide further elaborates that:

“Flowcharts show the order of operations within a program, including where data input is needed as well as decisions to be made and the logic choices. Different shapes are used to indicate different components. For example, a rectangle is used to indicate a process, whereas a diamond is used to show a decision point.”

This means the graphical depiction of how code executes step by step—including decisions and actions—is known as a flowchart, not pseudocode (which is text-based “fake code” for readability), nor branching or looping (which are logical control structures).

Additionally, in the “Exam Essentials” section of the same guide, it reinforces that:

“Understand what pseudocode and flowcharts are used for. Pseudocode is most often used to annotate the code with comments to make it easier for people to read. Flowcharts help organize the code and plan out a program.”

Verified Reference from CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide, Exam FC0-U71 (3rd Edition, 2025):

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — Sections “Flowcharts” and “Exam Essentials” (pages 373–374, 378).

The correct answer is B. Drivers. A printer driver is required so the operating system can communicate with the printer. If the printer is connected and appears to be set up but still does not work, an incorrect, missing, or outdated driver is the most likely cause. Services, permissions, and extensions can affect some systems, but the most direct and common issue after printer setup is driver installation.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that, in addition to connecting the printer, “you need to install a special piece of software called a printer driver so the operating system knows how to talk to the printer.” The guide also explains that after hardware installation, the operating system either detects the device automatically or the user must install a driver manually.

Verified and corrected questions 172–178:

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) defines the least privilege model as:

“One of the key foundations of an authorization system is the least privilege model. This states that users should be granted only the least amount of access required to perform their jobs, and no more. This principle applies to computers, files, databases, and all other available resources.”

This concept ensures that a student cannot access restricted folders such as a teacher’s network folder, because their role does not require that level of access.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 10: Security Concepts and Threats — “Authorization and the Least Privilege Model” (pp. 549–550).

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states:

“Nearly every program running on a computer is run as a process. This includes system operations, background tasks, and applications… The Task Manager utility helps you see everything that’s running on a computer… If I have an app that’s taking up too much memory, I can click it and then click End Task to shut it down. This is also known as killing the process.”

Thus, process management is the OS function that allows users to stop (terminate) running applications.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 4: Operating Systems — “Process Management” (pp. 238–240).

Markup languages, such as HTML and XML, use tags (e.g., < p > , < title > , < body > ) to define the structure and presentation of data. They are not programming languages in the traditional sense, as they don ' t include logic or execution flow.

“Markup languages use tags to annotate and structure text. Common examples include HTML and XML.” — CompTIA ITF+ Software Concepts

Correct answer: A

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide discusses social engineering prevention:

“Social engineering relies on manipulating people rather than technology. The best protection against social engineering is user awareness and verifying identity before sharing information.”

Verifying a user’s identity via a phone call before taking any action (such as password reset or data access) is an essential safeguard against impersonation attempts.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Recognizing Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks” (pp. 586–588).

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide details this advantage:

“If you need to have multiple concurrent users accessing data, you need a database. Flat files don’t do well when several people try to access them at once. In the vast majority of cases, one user might be able to write to the file, but all users will be limited to a read-only copy.”

It further states:

“Databases generally lock only on a record level… so multiple people can actively use the database at one time.”

Therefore, the primary advantage of databases over flat files is support for multiple concurrent users.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “When to Use Databases” (pp. 389–391).

The correct answer is B. Import. To populate a database from a flat file, data must be brought into the database. That function is called importing. Create is used to create a database or database structure, not to fill it with existing data. Query is used to retrieve or manipulate data after it exists in the database. Report is used to present database information in a readable format.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that “you can import data from Excel into a database application, such as Access.” It also summarizes database work by saying databases are created, data is imported or inputted, and then queries and reports can be run.

The requirement to change passwords every 60 days is a policy known as password expiration. It is part of enforcing secure authentication by limiting the amount of time a password is valid.

“Password expiration is a security measure that requires users to change their passwords after a specific period, such as every 60 or 90 days, to reduce the risk of compromised credentials being used over time.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Guide

Password complexity refers to rules about what characters are required.

Password management refers to overall policies and tools for handling passwords.

Password privacy relates to confidentiality but not periodic resets.

Thus, the correct choice is C.

Gaming monitors are often described using refresh rates, which are measured in hertz (Hz), often specified in MHz for related processing frequencies. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide states:

" Monitor refresh rate refers to how many times per second the screen updates, usually measured in Hz. "

" MHz (megahertz) is used for various frequencies, including GPU and monitor refresh processing. "

GPU and RAM refer to hardware components, TB measures storage, and MHz relates to the frequency, applicable for monitor performance metrics.