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FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy:

Losec & #174; 20 mg

S: Take 1 tab BID

M: 2 weeks

Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription?

Options:

A.

Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets).

B.

Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets).

C.

Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets).

D.

Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets).

E.

Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets)

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Questions 5

Acarbose smooths and lowers:

Options:

A.

postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates.

B.

postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates.

C.

preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates.

D.

preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of carbohydrates.

E.

preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of carbohydrates.

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Questions 6

Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include which of the following?

I Shake well before using

II Take with plenty of fluids

III Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 7

Prednisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

skeletal muscle weakness

B.

hypoglycemia

C.

sodium retention

D.

peptic ulceration

E.

lowered resistance to infection

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Questions 8

True statements regarding transcription include which of the following?

I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA polymerase.

II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of mRNA is translated into a protein structure.

III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred to RNA.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 9

Correct statements regarding Pellagra include:

I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin

II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin

III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 10

Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug?

Options:

A.

Amphotericin B

B.

Metronidazole

C.

Griseofulvin

D.

Nystatin

E.

Clotrimazole

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Questions 11

Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID?

Options:

A.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium

B.

Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium

C.

Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium

D.

Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium

E.

Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium

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Questions 12

Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include:

Options:

A.

Inhibit protein synthesis

B.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

C.

Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

D.

Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

E.

Inhibit translation of genetic information

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements refers to atenolol?

Options:

A.

No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.

B.

Can prevent recurrent infarction and sudden death in patients recovering from myocardial infarction.

C.

Is more likely to cause edema than verapamil

D.

Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may contain lead or other toxic metals.

E.

Should not be used as a sole agent in sustained forms of hyperthyroidism.

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Questions 14

Otitis media is an ear infection normally caused by S. pneumoniae and may be best treated by:

Options:

A.

Amoxicillin

B.

Penicillin V

C.

Ampicillin

D.

Amoxicillin clavulanate

E.

Oxacillin

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Questions 15

Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cefixime

II- Ceftriaxone

III- Ciprofloxacin

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 16

Indication of norepinephrine is:

Options:

A.

Life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmias

B.

Cardiac stimulation

C.

Decongestant

D.

Hypertension

E.

Asthma

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Questions 17

Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:

Options:

A.

Quinine

B.

Pyrimethamine

C.

Sulfadoxine

D.

Primaquine

E.

Quinidine

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Questions 18

The bacteriostatic effect of sulfametoxazole may be increased by:

Options:

A.

Penicillin

B.

Sulbactam

C.

Clavulanic acid

D.

Tarzobactam

E.

Trimetroprim

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Questions 19

Which of the following statements refers to fansidar?

Options:

A.

Effect monitored by PT (prothrombin timE.

B.

Embryopathy is due to production of epoxide metabolites. It is especially common when several anticonvulsants are used together.

C.

Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

D.

Minimal GI absorption.

E.

Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users.

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Questions 20

Which of the following best classify metronidazole?

Options:

A.

Antiprotozoa

B.

Antibiotic

C.

Antifungal

D.

Antiviral

E.

Antimicrobial

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Questions 21

Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include:

I- Lots of fluids

II- Ciprofloxacin

III- Metronidazole

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 22

Indication of diazepam is:

Options:

A.

Migraine prophylaxis

B.

Bipolar disorder

C.

Myoclonic seizures

D.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

E.

Trigeminal neuralgia

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Questions 23

Which of the following agents is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered to have aspirin sensitivity?

Options:

A.

Ibuprofen

B.

Acetaminophen

C.

Gold therapy

D.

Azathioprine

E.

Cyclophosphamide

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Questions 24

When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance, true statements include:

I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate.

II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on

metoprolol.

III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 25

In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drug ' s efficacy, associated workload, and acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available.

Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows:

DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration (days)A$2.50QID14B$2.25once daily14C$5.00BID7D$2.25BID7E$2 .25QID7The most appropriate choice for the hospital is:

Options:

A.

Drug A

B.

Drug B

C.

Drug C

D.

Drug D

E.

Drug E

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Questions 26

Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol?

Options:

A.

Hydroxyl 1

B.

Hydroxyl 2

C.

Hydroxyl 3

D.

Hydroxyl 4

E.

Hydroxyls 1 and 2

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Questions 27

Which is the correct start dose of methothrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

Options:

A.

7.5mg once a week

B.

15mg once a week

C.

7.5mg daily

D.

15mg daily

E.

22mg once a week

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Questions 28

Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:

Options:

A.

12.5% w/w.

B.

16.7% w/w.

C.

20.0% w/w.

D.

23.8% w/w.

E.

25.0% w/w.

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Questions 29

All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

isoproterenol

B.

histamine

C.

phentolamine

D.

phenylephrine

E.

atropine

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Questions 30

Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:

I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group.

II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity.

III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 31

Rx Timolol 0.25% dropsMitte: 15 mLSig: gtt. i o.d. BIDOn the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read:

Options:

A.

apply one drop into both eyes twice daily.

B.

instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.

C.

instil one drop into the right eye twice daily.

D.

shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.

E.

shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily.

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Questions 32

Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?

Options:

A.

Balance sheet

B.

Statement of investments

C.

Statement of changes in financial position

D.

Income statement

E.

Statement of equity

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Questions 33

All are β2-agonists used as brochodilators in the treatment of bronchospasm, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Albuterol

B.

Salmeterol

C.

Terbutaline

D.

Pindolol

E.

Levalbuterol

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Questions 34

The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as:

Options:

A.

autocratic

B.

bureaucratic

C.

participative

D.

benevolent

E.

consultative

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Questions 35

Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include:

Options:

A.

With meals

B.

In emptying stomach

C.

With plenty of water

D.

With orange juice

E.

Before bedtime

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Questions 36

Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean half-life is:

Options:

A.

4.0 h.

B.

5.0 h.

C.

5.4 h.

D.

5.8 h.

E.

6.0 h.

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Questions 37

The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by:

I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant

II the free drug concentration

III the total receptor concentration

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 38

Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that pharmacists:

Options:

A.

respect the rights of patients to make choices

B.

do good to patients, placing the benefit of the patient above all else

C.

avoid, remove or prevent harm from people

D.

act with fairness, allowing people access to pharmacy care

E.

act with honesty, without deception

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Questions 39

Allopurinol, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, is a derivative of:

Options:

A.

Uric acid

B.

Purine

C.

Pyridine

D.

Pteridine

E.

Urate salts

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Questions 40

Best drug used in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma may include:

Options:

A.

Long acting β2-agonists

B.

Short acting β2-agonists

C.

Anticholinergics

D.

Leukotriene modifiers

E.

Corticoids

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Questions 41

Intra-articular means:

Options:

A.

In the joint space

B.

In the tissues space

C.

In the spinal fluid

D.

In the spinal column

E.

In the dermis

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Questions 42

The use of indomethacin in gout treatment:

Options:

A.

Inhibit the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation

B.

Inhibits tubulin synthesis

C.

Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

D.

Inhibit uric acid synthesis

E.

Inhibit the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney

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Questions 43

In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates:

Options:

A.

Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement

B.

Specifically reverse the cause of the disease

C.

Provide only analgesic effect

D.

Are effective because they are uricosuric agents

E.

Are more effective when given with allopurinol

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Questions 44

The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the:

I ilium

II ischium

III pubis

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 45

The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to act by which of the following mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Combining with acetylcholine

B.

Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase

C.

Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase

D.

Reacting at the cholinergic receptor

E.

Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending

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Questions 46

The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:

Options:

A.

salbutamol

B.

diphenhydramine

C.

adrenaline

D.

acetazolamide

E.

aminophylline

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Questions 47

Route of administration of methadone is:

Options:

A.

Subcutaneous

B.

Inhalation

C.

Intrathecal

D.

Oral

E.

Transdermal

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Questions 48

Bioavailability is related to which of the following parameters, according to the equation F = 1 - E

Options:

A.

Excretion

B.

Elimination

C.

Extraction Ratio

D.

Enterohepatic Recycling

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Questions 49

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

Options:

A.

Valproic acid

B.

Quinidine

C.

Isoniazid

D.

Ethosuximide

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Questions 50

Class of reserpine is:

Options:

A.

Anticoagulants

B.

Methylxanthines

C.

Inotropic agents

D.

Antiarrhythmic agents

E.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

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Questions 51

Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

Options:

A.

Naloxone

B.

Nitrite

C.

CaEDTA

D.

Dialysis

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Questions 52

Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

B.

Inhibits transpeptidase

C.

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

D.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

E.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

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Questions 53

Contraindication of indacrinone is:

Options:

A.

Pregnancy

B.

Hyperlipidemia

C.

Diabetes

D.

Diabetes mellitus

E.

Hearing impairment

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Questions 54

Side effect of nedocromil is:

Options:

A.

Growth retardation in children

B.

Thiocyanate poisoning

C.

Neuromuscular paralysis

D.

Nausea

E.

Dysphonia

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Questions 55

Interactions with other drugs of clonazepam is:

Options:

A.

Lactose: increases absorption

B.

meperidine

C.

Tricyclic antidepressants: potentiate sedation

D.

cis-platinum - augments nephrotoxicity

E.

Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism

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Questions 56

Effect of bisacodyl is:

Options:

A.

Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

B.

Decreases water absorption

C.

Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%

D.

Enhances mucociliary clearance

E.

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

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Questions 57

Class of metformin is:

Options:

A.

Lipid lowering drugs

B.

Antimycobacterial

C.

Thyroid agents

D.

Vasodilators

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

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Questions 58

Indication of clindamycin is:

Options:

A.

Benzodiazepine intoxication

B.

Hypercalcemia

C.

Kaposi ' s sarcoma

D.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

E.

Angina

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Questions 59

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

Options:

A.

Cataracts

B.

Hypotension

C.

Psychosis

D.

Acne

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Questions 60

Indication of phenoxybenzamine is:

Options:

A.

Pain

B.

Movement disorders

C.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

D.

Anaphylactic shock

E.

Acute hypertension

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Questions 61

Mechanism of action of vincristine is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid gland

B.

Increases peripheral tissues sensitivity to insulin

C.

Reduces peripheral insulin resistance

D.

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

E.

Mitotic spindle poison

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Questions 62

Indication of ticarcillin is:

Options:

A.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

B.

Varicella zoster virus

C.

Myocardial infarction

D.

Generalized motor seizures

E.

Bone marrow failure states (aplastic anemia, myelodysplasias) (investigational)

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Questions 63

Class of nystatin is:

Options:

A.

Thiazides

B.

Antiprotozoan agents

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Polyenes

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

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Questions 64

Indication of salmeterol is:

Options:

A.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

B.

Chronic renal disease

C.

Scleroderma renal crisis

D.

Asthma

E.

Allergic rhinitis

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Questions 65

Class of pyrimethamine is:

Options:

A.

Antifolates

B.

Antivirals

C.

Aquaretics

D.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

E.

H2 antagonists

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Questions 66

For the majority of drugs, which of the following equations correctly defines clearance?

Options:

A.

Cl = Elimination rate/Cp

B.

Cl = QxE

C.

Cl = .7VD/t1/2

D.

All are correct

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Questions 67

Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

Options:

A.

Nausea

B.

Renal dysfunction

C.

Anemia

D.

Muscle wasting

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Questions 68

Site of metabolism of zolpidem is:

Options:

A.

Liver

B.

None

C.

Reticuloendothelial system

D.

Leukocytes

E.

Unknown

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Questions 69

In a zero order elimination process, which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The removal of drug is independent of drug concentration

B.

Cl = Elimination rate/Cp

C.

t1/2 = .7VD/Cl

D.

All are true

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Questions 70

Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

Options:

A.

Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

B.

Mutations in M (matrix) protein

C.

Beta-lactamase

D.

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

E.

Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection

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Questions 71

Class of famciclovir is:

Options:

A.

NSAID

B.

Antidepressants

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Antivirals

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

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Questions 72

Indication of epinephrine is:

Options:

A.

Post myocardial infarction

B.

Asthma

C.

Tremor

D.

Trigeminal neuralgia

E.

Neurosurgical anesthesia

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Questions 73

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?

Options:

A.

Digitalis

B.

Niacin

C.

Tetracycline

D.

Fluoroquinolones

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Questions 74

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?

Options:

A.

Digitalis

B.

Niacin

C.

Tetracycline

D.

Fluoroquinolones

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Questions 75

Route of administration of interferon alpha is:

Options:

A.

Intramuscular

B.

Inhalation

C.

Topical

D.

Oral

E.

Intra-auricular

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Questions 76

Mechanism of action of indinavir is:

Options:

A.

beta-2 agonist

B.

Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

C.

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

D.

Inhibits viral protease

E.

Stimulates lipoprotein lipase

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Questions 77

Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate appreciably in drug metabolism?

Options:

A.

CYP1A2

B.

CYP2C9

C.

CYP3A4

D.

CYP51

E.

All are drug metabolizing isoforms

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Questions 78

Side effect of dipyridamole is:

Options:

A.

Diarrhea

B.

Headache

C.

Bleeding

D.

Hypercalcemia

E.

Pseudothrombocytopenia (clumping of platelets)

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Questions 79

In an enzymatic reaction, addition of competitive inhibitor leads to:

Options:

A.

Increase the rate of reaction

B.

Decrease the rate of reaction

C.

Same rate of reaction

D.

Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration

E.

Decrease both rate and substrate concentration

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Questions 80

Purine may be the end product of:

Options:

A.

Amines

B.

Amino acids

C.

Uric acid

D.

Proteins

E.

Enzymes

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Questions 81

Which of the following vitamin is derivated from the amino acid tryptophan?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Riboflavin

C.

Niacin

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Folic acid

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Questions 82

Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:

Options:

A.

Iron

B.

Zinc

C.

Cobalt

D.

Magnesium

E.

Calcium

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Questions 83

All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

It may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.

B.

It may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.

C.

It may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

D.

large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate.

E.

Lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development.

F.

Pharmaceutical Sciences

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Questions 84

Which of the following is considered the FIRST precursor of vitamin A formation?

Options:

A.

Retinoic acid

B.

Carotenoids

C.

Cobalt

D.

Calciferol

E.

Pantothenic acid

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Questions 85

Which of the following is the main carbohydrate of body blood?

Options:

A.

Sorbitol

B.

Mannitol

C.

Frutase

D.

Glucase

E.

Lactase

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Questions 86

GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by:

Options:

A.

The breakdown of glycogen into glucose

B.

The transformation of glucose to glycogen

C.

The breakdown of sugar into pyruvate

D.

The breakdown of sugar into lactate

E.

The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources

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Questions 87

The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the:

I jejunum

II ileum

III duodenum

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 88

Which of the followings are types of RNA?

I- RNAt - RNA transferase

II- RNAm – RNA mensager

III-RNAr – RNA ribossome

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 89

Diazepam Injection U.S.P

Diazepam 5 mg/ml

Ethanol 10%

Propylene glycol 40%

Benzyl alcohol 1.5%

Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s):

I ethanol

II propylene glycol

III benzyl alcohol

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 90

Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of:

Options:

A.

glutathione conjugates.

B.

glucuronide conjugates.

C.

glycine conjugates.

D.

glutamate conjugates.

E.

sulfate conjugates.

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Questions 91

Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain:

Options:

A.

aniline and piperidine rings.

B.

aniline and piperazine rings.

C.

aniline and pyrrolidine rings.

D.

pyrrolidine and piperazine rings.

E.

pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.

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Questions 92

Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN?

Options:

A.

Glycogenolysis

B.

Glycolysis

C.

Glycogenesis

D.

Gluconeogenesis

E.

Anaerobic glycolysis

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Questions 93

In the typical cell, mitochondria may contain:

I- Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle

II- Enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase

III- Enzymes of fatty acid cycle

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 94

Example of compound that is phospholipids include:

Options:

A.

Glycogen

B.

Leucine

C.

Lecithin

D.

Hyaluronic acid

E.

Phenylalanine

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Questions 95

Which vitamin can be classified as hormone?

Options:

A.

Vitamin D

B.

Vitamin D3

C.

Vitamin E

D.

Vitamin K

E.

Vitamin B12

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Questions 96

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA?

Options:

A.

DNA polymerase

B.

DNA gyrase

C.

DNA ligase

D.

RNA transferase

E.

None of the above

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Questions 97

Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:

Options:

A.

haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.

B.

mesenteric vein ? portal vein.

C.

haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava.

D.

mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery.

E.

gastric vein ? hepatic vein.

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Questions 98

Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble?

I- Vitamin E

II- Vitamin K

III- Vitamin B

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 99

Keratin is an example of:

Options:

A.

Protein

B.

Peptin

C.

Scleroprotein

D.

Albuminoid

E.

C and D are correct

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Questions 100

Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA. is:

I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

II found primarily in interneurons

III synthesized from glycine

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 101

If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8.4?

Options:

A.

10%

B.

30%

C.

50%

D.

90%

E.

100%

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Questions 102

Which of the following vitamin is the precursor of collagen synthesis?

Options:

A.

Vitanin A

B.

Vitamin B

C.

Vitamin C

D.

Vitamin D

E.

Vitamin E

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Questions 103

Diseases which are viral infections include:

I poliomyelitis

II rabies

III Legionnaires ' disease

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 104

Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to:

I- Mutation

II- Adaptation

III- Gene transfer

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 105

Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include:

Options:

A.

Carrier activated aminoacids to the ribosome

B.

Specifies aminoacids sequence templant for protein synthesis

C.

Enable DNA fragments to be joined

D.

Synthesize RNA

E.

Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells

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Questions 106

In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace ' s law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to:

I the length of the vessel

II the radius of vessel

III the intraluminal pressure

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 107

Degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involves:

Options:

A.

Formation of bile pigments

B.

Formation of urobilinogen

C.

Formation of biliverdin

D.

Non-oxidative cleavage of phosphirin ring

E.

All are correct

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Questions 108

Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:

Options:

A.

pyrimidine ring

B.

purine ring

C.

pyrazine ring

D.

pteridine ring

E.

pyridine ring

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Questions 109

Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism?

Options:

A.

Maltase

B.

Sucrose

C.

Glucose

D.

Cellulose

E.

Frutose

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Questions 110

The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in

I- RNAs

II- DNAs

III- Both DNAs and RNAs

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 111

All are examples of antihelmintic drugs, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Niclosamide

B.

Prazinquatel

C.

Mebendazole

D.

Dapsone

E.

Thiabendazole

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Questions 112

Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index?

Options:

A.

Macrolide

B.

Cephalosporins

C.

Cloramphenicol

D.

Aminoglycosides

E.

Antifungal agents

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Questions 113

Site of metabolism of omeprazole is:

Options:

A.

None

B.

Kidneys

C.

Liver

D.

Unknown

E.

Reticuloendothelial system

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Questions 114

Route of administration of erythromycin is:

Options:

A.

Inhalation

B.

IV

C.

Sublingual

D.

Intra-auricular

E.

Oral

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Questions 115

Indication of primaquine is:

Options:

A.

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

B.

Amebiasis

C.

Malaria

D.

Shock

E.

Rheumatoid arthritis

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Questions 116

Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include:

Options:

A.

Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections

B.

Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins

C.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms

D.

Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect

E.

Very safe for children

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Questions 117

Class of ranitidine is:

Options:

A.

Vasodilators

B.

Sulfonamides

C.

Tetracyclines

D.

H2 antagonists

E.

Antimycobacterial

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Questions 118

Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include:

Options:

A.

Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth

B.

Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth

C.

Drug with ability only to kill bacteria

D.

Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth

E.

All are wrong regarding antibiotics

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Questions 119

Which of the following statement is RIGHT regarding influenza treatment?

I- Type A influenza is best treated by amantadine and rimantadine

II- Type B influenza is best treated by oseltamivir and zenamivir

III- Influenza should not be treated with antiviral agents

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 120

Example of fourth generation cephalosporin includes:

Options:

A.

Ceftriaxone

B.

Cefipime

C.

Cefixime

D.

Cefotaxime

E.

Cefoxitin

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Questions 121

Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment?

Options:

A.

Cardiac dysfunction

B.

Mental dysfunction

C.

Hepatitis

D.

Renal complications

E.

Discoloration of skin

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Questions 122

Class of timolol is:

Options:

A.

Antiarrhythmic agents

B.

Antithyroid agents

C.

Anticonvulsants

D.

Beta blockers

E.

Antidepressants

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Questions 123

Subclass of tolbutamide is:

Options:

A.

Sulfonylureas

B.

Organic nitrates

C.

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

D.

Potassium channel agonists

E.

Biguanides

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Questions 124

Class of cocaine is:

Options:

A.

Retinoids

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Loop diuretics

E.

Antiarrhythmic agents

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Questions 125

Which of the following agents may interfere with the regular effect of penicillins?

Options:

A.

Antacids

B.

Food

C.

Probenecid

D.

Aminoglycosides

E.

All of the above

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Questions 126

Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent?

Options:

A.

Miconazole

B.

Clotrimazole

C.

Amphotericin

D.

Itraconazole

E.

Ketoconazole

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Questions 127

Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cephalosporin 3rd generation

II- Macrolides antibiotics

III- Penicillins

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Exam Code: FPGEE
Exam Name: Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 426

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