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GRE GRE General Test Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Because they require abstraction and generalization, many theories end up_________practical relevance as they tail to capture the richness and complexity of phenomena encountered in real settings.

Options:

A.

lacking

B.

enshrining

C.

elevating

D.

repudiating

E.

wanting

F.

supplanting

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Questions 5

The poet Paul Laurence Dunbar (1872-1906) was the premier Black writer of poetry that used the dialect of rural African Americans of the southern United States. Although Dunbar ' s works were both popular with readers and acclaimed by literary critics during his lifetime, after the First World War a radical shift occurred, at least in critical opinion of his poetry, and twentieth-century critical evaluation of his work has been generally negative. Some critics attacked his work on social grounds for failing to challenge plantation stereotypes of African Americans. Other critics, such as the poet James Weldon Johnson, argued from aesthetic grounds that dialect poetry in general was too limited as an artistic medium, and capable of producing only two effects: pathos and humor. The negative critical trend only began to reverse itself in the 1970s, when scholars began to emphasize the importance of mythic, psychological, and historical dimensions of Dunbar ' s works, focusing on the interior and exterior realities of African American life after the Civil War.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage concerning scholars ' use of mythic, psychological, and historical considerations in evaluating Dunbar ' s works?

Options:

A.

Such use disputes the claim that Dunbar ' s work failed to challenge plantation stereotypes of African Americans.

B.

Such use challenges the claim that dialect poetry is well suited to producing effects of pathos and humor.

C.

Such use supports the claim that Dunbar ' s poetry was aesthetically more limited when written in dialect.

D.

Such use suggests that the initial reception accorded Dunbar ' s poetry may have been too positive.

E.

Such use suggests that earlier twentieth-century evaluations of Dunbar ' s poetry may have been too negative.

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Questions 6

Sensationalism—the purveyance of emotionally charged content. focused mainly on violent crime, to a broad public—has often been decried, but the full history of the phenomenon has yet to be written. Scholars have tended to dismiss sensationalism as unworthy of serious study, based on two pervasive though somewhat incompatible assumptions: first, that sensationalism is essentially a commercial product, built on the exploitation of modern mass media, and second, that it appeals almost entirely to a simple, basic emotion and thus has tittle history apart from the changing technological means of spreading it. An exploration of sensationalism ' s early history, however, challenges both assumptions and suggests that they have tended to obscure the complexity and historicity of the genre.

According to the passage, scholars have not given sensationalism serious consideration because they believe sensationalism

Options:

A.

possesses largely emotional rather than rational content

B.

is produced with an eye to making money

C.

lacks historical complexity

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Questions 7

Recently, we have seen the emergence of the food movement, or perhaps we should say " movements. " since it is

(i)_________as yet by little more than the recognition that industrial food production is in need of reform because its

social or environmental or public health or animal welfare or gastronomic costs are too high. As that list suggests, the

activists are coming at the issue (ii)_________. Where many social movements, over time, break into various factions

representing differing concerns or tactics, the food movement has been (iii)_________from its beginning.

Options:

A.

tempered

B.

impeded

C.

unified

D.

in increasing numbers

E.

from divergent directions

F.

with renewed commitment

G.

ideological

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Questions 8

One difficulty in convincing early scientists that craters fanned as a result of impacts from space is that most craters are circular. Impacts could come in at any angle, and experiments firing projectiles in the laboratory show that low-angle impacts lead to elliptical craters, not circular ones. Furthermore, while there was rarely evidence of any impacting object, there was often silicate melt around, suggesting that craters were caused by volcanic processes. The breakthrough in understanding crater origin was the recognition that the shock caused by the impacting object—not the object itself—creates a circular crater some twenty Times larger than the diameter of the impactor. The impact also generates enough heat to largely vaporize the impactor and melt the native rock.

What can be inferred from the passage about the silicate melt found around craters?

Options:

A.

It was not caused exclusively by volcanic processes.

B.

It led early scientists to consider volcanic activity as a cause of crater formation.

C.

It can probably be explained by the intense heat caused by impact

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Questions 9

The geographer held a (i)________view of the succession of theoretical trends (environmental determinism, spatial determinism, and various types of critical theory) in her field, maintaining that theory can (n)________what is transpiring in a complex environment by focusing excessively on the favored schemes and variables of the moment.

Options:

A.

self-contradictory

B.

sanguine

C.

deprecatory

D.

exacerbate

E.

obfuscate

F.

magnify

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Questions 10

Harriet Monroe, who founded Poetry: A Magazine of Verse in 1912. argued that the more heterogeneous and sprawling the modem world became, the more poetry needed " an entrenched place, a voice of power. " Hut this goal could only be realized if poets were valued in ways that encouraged them to participate in the world and made writing verse economically viable. Monroe argued that poets needed sites of institutional opportunity like those that had been developed for visual artists, architects, and musicians. She believed that the hand-wringing anticapitalism dominating genteel literary culture—particularly the idea that poetry ought to be removed from " sordid " pecuniary considerations—brought no economic and only illusory aesthetic benefits, instead severing poets from meaningful participation in the modern world.

The passage suggests that Monroe believed that finding " an entrenched place, a voice of power " for poetry would rely on which of the following?

Options:

A.

Providing poets with a refuge from the sprawling modem world

B.

Ensuring that poetry as an art could remain free of economic considerations

C.

Creating institutional opportunities for poets to make their work economically viable

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Questions 11

Scholars generally estimate subscribers to Freedom z Journal (1827-1829), the United States " first African American newspaper, at around 800. based on subscriptions to The Rights of AIL an African American newspaper founded in 1829 as a successor to Freedom s Journal by a former editor of that newspaper But Gross argues that many more than 800 readers probably subscribed to Freedom X Journal because many of its subscribers, dissatisfied with the direction ultimately taken by the paper, refused to subscribe to The Rights of All. In any case, the figure of 800 subscribers would make the circulation of Freedom s Journal close to that of other weekly papers of the time Its number of readers, however, would have been much larger: copies were often shared. and African American organizations subscribed to Freedom s Journal, providing nonsubscribers access to the paper

Which of the following, if true, would most lend to undermine Gross ' s argument mentioned in the highlighted portion of the passage?

Options:

A.

A larger number of African American organizations subscribed to Freedom s Journal than to The Rights of Ail.

B.

While many of the subscribers to Freedom s Journal did become dissatisfied with the paper over time, most of its readers were initially highly supportive of the paper

C.

Many people who had not subscribed to Freedom s Journal bought subscriptions to The Rights of All.

D.

The editorial direction of The Rights of All followed closely the direction that Freedom s Journal had taken.

E.

Copies of The Rights of Alt were shared more frequently with nonsubscribers than were copies of Freedom s Journal.

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Questions 12

Female Australian Dunalothrips [small, sap-sucking insects] create tent-like structures on the surface of leaves to protect themselves and their eggs and larvae from desiccation in the arid Australian climate. Bono and Crespi compared survival and reproduction of thrips that founded structures alone with those in groups of two or more individuals. They found that although per capita egg production fell with increasing group size, foundresses were more likely to survive and lay eggs in groups than when alone. Several studies of other species of nest-building insects have concluded that foundress associations are beneficial to all panics. It is likely that the relative success of groups is at least in part accounted for by a reduction of energy use in the modification of a shared nest.

The author suggests which of the following about the " reduction of energy use " ?

Options:

A.

It may be beneficial enough to insects to offset a decrease in per capita egg production.

B.

It has been shown to occur primarily in species of insects that live in arid climates.

C.

Its negative consequences for insect eggs and larvae are outweighed by other, more advantageous effects.

D.

Its magnitude is most likely smaller than suggested by some early research studies on insect reproduction.

E.

It may help insects to regulate egg production in groups that reach a certain population density.

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Questions 13

What accounts for the low-lying. Hat surface of Mars ' s north? On Earth ' s surface, higher- and lower-lying areas have different types of onest: one. thin and dense, is pulled toward Earth ' s center more strongly by gravity, and the planet ' s water naturally comes to sit over it. creating oceans. The processes that generate this oceanic crust drive plate tectonics.

Is Mars ' s north similarly characterized by a sort of crust different from other areas of the planet? Some researchers do see signs of tectonic activity surrounding the northern basin that suggest that it was created through the formation of new crust, like ocean basins on Earth. However. McGill points to northern bedrock structures that predate the features said to mark the start of the tectonic process. McGill instead believes that through some novel mechanism the ancient surface sank to its current depth as a single unit. This would explain why features around the basin ' s edge. which would have formed as the surface dropped, seem to be younger than structures at its floor.

The third possibility is that the northern lowlands result from impacts. Some researchers suggest they formed as a series of big overlapping impact craters. Others, arguing that the odds against such a pattern of impacts are large, postulate a single event—the impact of an object bigger than any asteroid the solar system now contains.

The passage implies that McGill points to certain " northern bedrock Structures? in order to

Options:

A.

establish the maximum and minimum bounds for the age of the northern basin of Mars

B.

contrast the geological characteristics of the northern basin with the characteristics of the terrain at its rim

C.

question the role of impacts in the formation of Mars ' s surface features

D.

dispute the idea that the northern basin of Mars was formed by the creation of new crust

E.

argue that their elevation now must be lower than it was at the time the structures formed

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Questions 14

People who come to believe false rumors often do so quite (i)_________in the sense mat their new belief

(ii)_________their existing knowledge. This problem is especially acute on the Internet. Rumors often arise and gain

traction because they fit with, and support, the prior convictions of those who accept them.

Options:

A.

tentatively

B.

rationally

C.

cynically

D.

coheres with

E.

detracts from

F.

substitutes for

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Questions 15

Economists use two competing models to describe the effects of commercial advertising—advertising as market competition and advertising as market power. The market competition model holds that the fundamental function of advertising is lo provide information about products and brands. It is argued that information in ads permits greater marketplace efficiencies, such as lower prices and reduced monopoly power. In a similar vein, much discussion regarding political advertising has rested on its informational value. Does political advertising provide political information and help voters make informed decisions ' 1 Nelson argues that promoting bars of soap in commercial ads is no different than promoting political ideas ideology from political candidates in political ads. on the grounds that information is being distributed m both cases. Others, such as Ferguson and Jamieson, disagree with Nelson ' s proposition. Ferguson, for example, pointed out that choosing a political candidate is more like buying an experience good (where the quality is hard to evaluate prior to purchase) rather than a search good (where the quality is easily evaluated before the purchase). According to Ferguson, claims in political ads do not have true informational value, because it is difficult for voters to draw inferences about the future deeds of a candidate from what the ads say Furthermore. Jamieson argues that political ads reshape the public image of political candidates and change voters feelings about the candidates with subtle emotional cues but without substantive information upon which to base a reasoned judgment.

In the context of the passage as a whole, the highlighted sentence serves primarily to

Options:

A.

present an objection to Nelsons soap-bar analogy

B.

illustrate the distinction between experience goods and search goods

C.

describe the consensus among economists about the informational value of political speech

D.

make a claim about the predictability of voter behavior

E.

indicate the basis for Ferguson s characterization of the process of choosing a political candidate

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Questions 16

Because ii has usually been impossible to_________exotic species once they have become established, it is prudent to minimize the introduction of such species that have a substantial probability of unwanted impacts.

Options:

A.

disseminate

B.

detect

C.

eradicate

D.

propagate

E.

extirpate

F.

differentiate

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Questions 17

Some archaeologists speculate that the Americas might have been initially colonized between 40.000 and 25.000 years ago. However, to support this theory it is necessary to explain the absence of generally accepted habitation sites for that time interval in what is now the United States. Australia, which has a smaller land area than the United States, has many such sites, supporting the generally accepted claim that the continent was colonized by humans at least 40.000 years ago. Australia is less densely populated (resulting in lower chances of discovering sites) and with its overall greater aridity would have presented conditions less favorable for hunter-gatherer occupation. Proportionally, at least as much land area has been lost from the coastal regions of Australia because of postglacial sea-level rise as in the United States, so any coastal archaeological record in Australia should have been depleted about as much as a coastal record in the United States. Since there are so many resource-rich rivers leading inland from the United States coastline, it seems implausible that a growing population of humans would have confined itself to coasts for thousands of years. If inhabitants were present 25.000 years ago. the chances of their appearing in the archaeological record would seem to be greater than for Australia.

The author of the passage implies that, in what is now the United States, archaeological evidence of inhabitation in the period from 40.000 to 25.000 years ago is lacking because that region

Options:

A.

had its oldest habitation sites inundated following a postglacial rise in sea level

B.

has many resource-rich rivers that facilitated the dispersal of its early inhabitants from an initial concentration in coastal areas

C.

was sparsely populated until about 25.000 years ago

D.

was colonized less than 25.000 years ago

E.

was inhabited only by hunter-gatherers until 25.000 years ago

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Questions 18

Iii recent years ii has become common for industrial workers who do heavy lifting to wear special wide leather belts that are advertised as reducing back strain. However, physiologists doubt that these belts actually reduce back strain. In fact the belts must put additional strain on the back, since records of injuries to industrial workers show that people wearing the belts were significantly more likely to suffer a back injury than were others doing the same job.

Which of die following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

Options:

A.

The special belts were first popularized by recreational weight lifters.

B.

For more than a decade, the overall rate of back injuries among industrial workers has been increasing.

C.

Because of changes in federal safety regulations, records of worker injuries have become much more comprehensive in recent years.

D.

In recent years the length of the average workweek—measured in hours—has increased dramatically for industrial workers who do heavy lifting.

E.

Those workers who chose to wear the special belts always tended to follow proper safety practices on the job.

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Questions 19

Robert Philip argues that the advent of recorded music has directed performance style into a search for greater precision and perfection, with a consequent loss of spontaneity and warmth. Various expressive devices once common in classical music have been almost outlawed, including portamento (sliding from one note to another on a stringed instrument), playing the piano with the hands not quite synchronized, and flexibility of tempo. Philip fully documents these changes. However, other forces independent of recording were also at work. For example, the freedom of tempo so valued by Philip was. in its time, both a necessary expedient and disastrously abused. Recording alone did not cause the reaction against it. although hearing a particularly unintelligent use of it on disc may have reinforced the prejudice.

Hie author would most likely agree with which of the following statements about the " devices " ?

Options:

A.

Increases in the technical proficiency of performers have made their use superfluous.

B.

They are not useful tools for musical expressivity.

C.

The advent of recorded music had little or no effect on their popularity.

D.

Their use cannot usually be detected in a recording, even when they were used in the recorded performance.

E.

At least some of them have been used inappropriately in the past.

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Questions 20

The following appeared in a letter to the editor of a Batavia newspaper

" The department of agriculture in Batavia reports that the number of dairy farms throughout the country is now 25 percent greater than it was 10 years ago. Dunne this same time period, however, the price of milk at the local Excello Food Market has increased from SI.50 to over S3.00 per gallon. To prevent farmers from continuing to receive excessive profits on an apparently increased supply of milk, the Batavia government should begin to regulate retail milk prices Such regulation is necessary to ensure fair prices for consumers. "

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to decide whether the recommendation is likely to have the predicted result Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the recommendation

Options:

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Questions 21

Claim: Governments must ensure that their major cities receive the financial support they need in order to thrive.

Reason: It is primarily in cities that a nation ' s cultural traditions are preserved and generated.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim and the reason on which that claim is based.

Options:

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Questions 22

Colleges and universities should require their students to spend at least one semester studying in a foreign country.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with (lie claim. In developing and supporting your position- be sure to address the most compelling reasons and or examples that could be used to challenge your position.

Options:

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Questions 23

The following appeared in a letter to the editor of a Batavia newspaper

" The department of agriculture in Batavia reports that the number of dairy farms throughout the country is now 25 percent greater than it was 10 years ago. During this same time period, however, the price of milk at the local Excello Food Market has increased from SI.50 to over $3.00 per gallon. To prevent farmers from continuing to receive excessive profits on an apparently increased supply of milk, the Batavia government should begin to regulate retail milk prices Such regulation is necessary to ensure fair prices for consumers. "

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to decide whether the recommendation is likely to have the predicted result Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the recommendation

Options:

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Questions 24

The following appeared in a letter from the owner of the Sunnyside Towers apartment complex to its manager.

" Last week, all the showerheads in the first three buildings of the Sunnyside Towers complex were modified to restrict maximum water flow to one-third of what it used to be. Although actual readings of water usage before and after the adjustment are not yet available, the change will obviously result in a considerable savings for Sunnyside Corporation, since the corporation must pay for water each month. Except for a few complaints about low water pressure, no problems with showers have been reported since the adjustment. Clearly, modifying showerheads to restrict water flow throughout all twelve buildings in the Sunnyside Towers complex will increase our profits further. "

Write a response in which you examine the stated and or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove unwarranted.

Options:

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Questions 25

GRE Question 25

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 26

Mary Beard notes that the classical past has never been________ by only one political tendency or party: the classics have been used in support of revolutions as well as dictatorships.

Options:

A.

endured

B.

relinquished

C.

forsworn

D.

critiqued

E.

co-opted

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Questions 27

How much more is 20 percent of x than GRE Question 27 of 1 percent of x?

Options:

A.

GRE Question 27 Option 1

B

0.18x

B.

0.192x

C.

0.198x

D.

0.19.8x

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Questions 28

If a set 5 has a total of 6 subsets that consist of 2 members each, then S consists of how many members?

Options:

A.

Three

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Six

E.

Seven

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Questions 29

For each item, a manager calculates the ratio of the manufacturing cost to the manufacturing time. Which of the following is closest to the value of the greatest of these eleven ratios, in dollars per minute?

Options:

A.

2.5

B.

3.5

C.

4.0

D.

4.5

E.

5.0

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Questions 30

r, t, m, and w are positive numbers.

GRE Question 30

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot he determined from the information given.

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Questions 31

GRE Question 31

The figure shows a semicircle intersected by a straight line in the rectangular coordinate system. What is the area of the shaded region?

Options:

A.

π - 2

B.

π - 4

C.

4π - 2

D.

4π - 4

E.

16π - 2

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Questions 32

GRE Question 32

A)

GRE Question 32

B)

GRE Question 32

C)

GRE Question 32

D)

GRE Question 32

E)

GRE Question 32

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 33

GRE Question 33

In the figure shown, what is the length of line segment BD ?

GRE Question 33

Options:

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Questions 34

How many values of x are there such that x is an integer and |3x — 2| < 8 ?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Four

E.

Five

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Questions 35

A certain list consists of 249 consecutive integers, each of which is less than 300.

GRE Question 35

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 36

In a survey of 150 computer owners, 98 owned a primer. 72 owned a digital camera, and all of them owned either a printer or a digital camera or both.

GRE Question 36

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 37

Exhibit.

GRE Question 37

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 38

For a certain type of can. the number of grams of aluminum per can decreased by 20 percent from 1994 to 1998. while the cost per gram of aluminum decreased by 60 percent. If the cost of the aluminum in y cans in 1994 was equal to the cost of aluminum in A v cans in 1998. then k =

Options:

A.

3.125

B.

4.25

C.

5.125

D.

6.25

E.

7.875

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Questions 39

The lengths of the sides of triangle RST are 3. 4. and v. Which of the following inequalities specifies those values of y for which each angle measure of mangle RST is less than 90° ?

A)

GRE Question 39

B)

GRE Question 39

C)

GRE Question 39

D)

GRE Question 39

E)

GRE Question 39

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 40

For which of the following values of v must x ' -.x be divisible by 10?

Indicate all such values.

Options:

A.

480

B.

481

C.

4S2

D.

483

E.

484

F.

485

G.

486

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Questions 41

Exhibit.

GRE Question 41

A group of 3 different investors is to be randomly selected from the 5 investors shown. What is the probability that, for at least 2 of the 3 investors selected, the number of shares of Stock X purchased and then sold will be less than 1.5 times the corresponding number for stock Y ?

A)

GRE Question 41

B)

GRE Question 41

C)

GRE Question 41

D)

GRE Question 41

E)

GRE Question 41

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 42

GRE Question 42

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 43

The units digit of 7 is v. and the units digit of GRE Question 43 What is the value of the product xy

Options:

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Questions 44

GRE Question 44

Options:

A.

6%

B.

12%

C.

16%

D.

25%

E.

29%

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Questions 45

A circle is inscribed in a regular hexagon that is inscribed in a circle. What is the ratio of the area of the smaller circle to the area of the larger circle?

A)

GRE Question 45

B)

GRE Question 45

C)

GRE Question 45

D)

GRE Question 45

E)

GRE Question 45

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 46

Exhibit.

GRE Question 46

Each of the four semicircles shown in the figure has a side of the square as its diameter and has exactly one point in common with the larger circle. If each side of the square has length 4, what is the sum of the areas of the shaded regions?

Options:

A.

8π-16

B.

12π-16

C.

16π-16

D.

18π-16

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Questions 47

GRE Question 47

A)

GRE Question 47

B)

GRE Question 47

C)

GRE Question 47

D)

GRE Question 47

E)

GRE Question 47

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 48

GRE Question 48

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot lie determined from the information given.

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Questions 49

GRE Question 49

A)

GRE Question 49

B)

GRE Question 49

C)

GRE Question 49

D)

GRE Question 49

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 50

GRE Question 50

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 51

A group of children is divided into r teams of ~ players each, and 1 team of 10 players. The group has more than 30 but less than 50 children, and each child belongs to only one team.

GRE Question 51

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 52

Of the 67 children residing on a certain street, 52 children enjoy biking and 21 children enjoy roller-skating. If all but 5 of the children enjoy biking or roller-skating or both, how many of the children enjoy either biking or roller-skating, but not both biking and roller-skating?

Options:

A.

11

B.

31

C.

51

D.

61

E.

62

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Questions 53

GRE Question 53

In each of the years after year A " , the Alden family budgeted S200 more for savings than it budgeted for savings the previous year. What is the total amount that the Alden family budgeted for savings over the 10 years beginning with year A " ?

Options:

A.

$30,000

B.

$32,000

C.

$36,000

D.

$39.000

E.

$42,000

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Questions 54

GRE Question 54

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 55

Exhibit

GRE Question 55

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 56

Robert Philip argues that the advent of recorded music has directed performance style into a search for greater precision and perfection, with a consequent loss of spontaneity and warmth. Various expressive devices once common in classical music have been almost outlawed, including portamento (sliding from one note to another on a stringed instrument), playing the piano with the hands not quite synchronized, and flexibility of tempo. Philip fully documents these changes. However, other forces independent of recording were also at work. For example, the freedom of tempo so valued by Philip was. in its time, both a necessary expedient and disastrously abused. Recording alone did not cause the reaction against it. although hearing a particularly unintelligent use of it on disc may have reinforced the prejudice.

A criticism of Philip implied by the passage is that he

Options:

A.

exaggerates the extent of a change in performance style

B.

attributes a change in performance style to a single cause

C.

ignores unintelligent uses of certain performance techniques

D.

values performance techniques that have lost their effectiveness

E.

limits his discussion of performance style to classical music

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Questions 57

Female Korean shellfish divers, known as haemyeo. are (i)_________the (ii)_________the international seafood market: since they export most of their products, even consistent harvests translate into unreliable earnings.

Options:

A.

unfamiliar with

B.

vulnerable to

C.

responsible for

D.

information about

E.

vicissitudes of

F.

opportunities beyond

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Questions 58

Even the most complex models used in fishery management are cartoons of reality. They reduce hundreds of links in food webs to a handful and inadequately represent processes operating over space. Many of their assumptions are as flawed today as those of the simplest models of the past. Fish stocks, for one. are still assumed to be populations of a species that are isolated from one another. Yet many populations mix at their edges and some even migrate through areas occupied by other populations. Furthermore, the more complex models suffer from a " crisis of complexity " —more is really less. Adding layers of detail, each carrying its own set of assumptions, produces instability. The model ' s behavior becomes erratic, and conclusions drawn from it can be downright misleading.

In the context of the passage, the highlighted portion serves to

Options:

A.

confirm a prediction

B.

demonstrate an oversimplification

C.

recommend a reformulation

D.

anticipate an objection

E.

question a finding

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Questions 59

Origin, distribution, and habitat are included in the book for some but not all of the plants: offering this information for each species would have given readers a clearer appreciation of the differences between _________and introduced species.

Options:

A.

endemic

B.

native

C.

seasonal

D.

rare

E.

unusual

F.

dominant

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Questions 60

Recent research has questioned the long-standing view of pearly mussels as exclusively suspension feeders (animals that strain suspended particles from water) that subsist on phytoplankton (mostly algae). Early studies of mussel feeding were based on analyses of gut contents, a method that has three weaknesses. First, material in mucus-bound gut contents is difficult to identify and quantify. Second, material found in the gut may pass undigested out of the mussel, not contributing to its nutrition. Finally, examination of gut contents offers limited insight into the mechanisms and behaviors by which mussels acquire food. Modem studies suggest that pearly mussels feed on more than just algae and may use other means than suspension feeding. Pedal feeding (sweeping up edible material with a muscular structure called the foot) has been observed in juvenile pearly mussels.

Besides the phytoplankton pearly mussels capture from the water column, their guts also contain small animals, protozoans, and detritus (nonliving particulate organic material). Recent studies show that mussels can capture and assimilate bacteria as well, a potentially important source of food in many fresh waters. Another potential source of food for mussels is dissolved organic matter. Early studies showing that pearly mussels could take up simple organic compounds were largely discounted because such labile (unstable) compounds are rarely abundant in nature. Nevertheless, recent work on other bivalves suggests that dissolved organic matter may be a significant source of nutrition.

Of this complex mix of materials that pearly mussels acquire, what is actually required and assimilated? Stable-isotope analyses of mussels taken from nature and of captive-reared mussels are beginning to offer some insight into this question. Nichols and Garling showed that pearly mussels in a small river were omnivorous, subsisting mainly on particles less than 2S micrometers in diameter, including algae, detritus, and bacteria. Bacterially derived carbon was apparently the primary source of soft-tissue carbon. However, bacteria alone cannot support mussel growth, because they lack the necessary long-chain fatty acids and sterols and are deficient in some amino acids. Bacteria may supplement other food resources, provide growth factors, or be the primary food In habitats such as headwater streams, where phytoplankton is scarce. Juvenile mussels have been most successfully reared m the laboratory on diets containing algae high in polyunsaturated fatty acids. Thus, it appears that the pearly mussel diet in nature may consist of algae, bacteria, detritus, and small animals and that at least some algae and bacteria may be required as a source of essential biochemicals.

The passage mentions which of the following as a factor that limits the information researchers can glean from analyzing gut contents?

Options:

A.

Mussels may ingest material that is not essential to their nutrition.

B.

The mechanisms mussels use to acquire food are not well understood.

C.

Juvenile mussels are able to acquire edible material through pedal feeding.

D.

Mussels appear to feed on more than one kind of food.

E.

Captive-reared mussels ingest substances that wild mussels do not eat.

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Questions 61

Instances of " galactic cannibalism " —mergers in which large galaxies completely consume smaller ones—may be fairly common. Tidal forces produced by the Milky Way ' s powerful gravity, for example, appear to be dismantling and engulfing a dwarf galaxy in the constellation Sagittarius, producing large clumps and streamers of stars connecting the two galaxies. Astronomers have also observed two dense clusters of stars and gas at the heart of the Andromeda galaxy, an apparent " double nucleus " that may contain the remnant of a cannibalized dwarf galaxy. But this Twin-lobed appearance could also be created by two parts of a single nucleus bisected by a lane of dust. Scientists believe that only about 25 percent of such apparent double nuclei actually represent galactic cannibalism. Many of the rest result from the illusion of proximity that occurs when objects at different distances appear along the same line of sight: others consist of debris from galactic " collisions. " in which one galaxy has passed through another without merging, causing waves of new star formation.

According to the passage, a true double nucleus may be produced by the

Options:

A.

collision of two dwarf galaxies

B.

incorporation of a dwarf galaxy into a larger galaxy

C.

merging of two galaxies of approximately equal size

D.

separation of a single nucleus into two parts by a lane of dust

E.

waves of new star formation resulting from an instance of galactic cannibalism

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Questions 62

There is a rather________ reason for astronomers sudden interest in comets: most other bodies in the solar system have been explored already.

Options:

A.

pedantic

B.

prosaic

C.

controversial

D.

untenable

E.

mysterious

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Questions 63

Not only do the brains of people with great memories appear anatomically_________those of control subjects, but in terms of general cognitive ability, great memorizers appear to be well within the normal range.

Options:

A.

superior to

B.

incomparable to

C.

younger than

D.

independent of

E.

indistinguishable from

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Questions 64

Despite the (i)_________name given to the fossil species, the fossil itself was (ii)_________: a wing bone, it measured nearly 0.6 meters (two feed long, indicating that its owner had been a very large bird, twice the size of some modern albatrosses.

Options:

A.

uninspiring

B.

ambiguous

C.

suggestive

D.

primitive

E.

ancient

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Questions 65

Sunflower sea slurs help maintain certain kelp forest ecosystems by eating quickly reproducing prey species such as urchins, thus keeping populations low. Without the sea stars, the urchin population explodes, which is bad news for kelp forests and everything in them. Giant kelp can grow to 150 feet underwater at a speed of two feet a day. but their weaknesses are their holdfasts. which are akin to tree roots. The holdfasts are home to brittle stars, prawns, and snails, among other creatures. Urchins like to eat the kelp holdfasts. Once the holdfasts are gone, the rest of the kelp drifts oft* in the tides. In this way. urchins can destroy the forests, which, higher up. are also home to fish, including several types of commercially important rockfish.

According to the passage, sea urchin populations

Options:

A.

often drift in the tide along with sea kelp

B.

are a favored prey of certain commercially important fish

C.

sometimes prey on commercially important fish species

D.

can damage the habitats where brittle stars live

E.

reproduce most rapidly in holdfasts of kelp forests

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Questions 66

Since scientific truths must be discovered, and since many, probably most, are far from (i)_________. Futile investigations are (ii)_________. Thus, the path to the truth is decidedly a (iii)_________one.

Options:

A.

intuitively obvious

B.

routinelv acelauned

C.

hie vi table

D.

sinuous

E.

potentially useful

F.

auspicious

G.

ne eligible

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Questions 67

Through a steady stream of books, articles, and speeches, he sought to provide (i)_________analysis of political and economic issues, thus (ii)_________, rather than merely touting, the social utility of the scientific method.

Options:

A.

a dispassionate

B.

a jaundiced

C.

an intuitive

D.

demonstrating

E.

undermining

F.

praising

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Questions 68

Which of the following most logically completes the explanation provided?

Options:

A.

birds that start out sitting on power lines cannot dive to the ground as quickly as birds that have been circling in the air before their dive

B.

sage grouse are less likely to come out in the open when they sense something moving in the air than when they do not

C.

sage grouse, when disturbed, do not move very swiftly on the ground

D.

the birds that prey on sage grouse can spot sage grouse that are out in the open from a considerable distance

E.

individual sage grouse do all their foraging in relatively small areas

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Questions 69

Recent research has questioned the long-standing view of pearly mussels as exclusively suspension feeders (animals that strain suspended particles from water) that subsist on phytoplankton (mostly algae). Early studies of mussel feeding were based on analyses of gut contents, a method that has three weaknesses. First, material in mucus-bound gut contents is difficult to identify and quantify. Second, material found in the gut may pass undigested out of the mussel, not contributing to its nutrition. Finally, examination of gut contents offers limited insight into the mechanisms and behaviors by which mussels acquire food. Modem studies suggest that pearly mussels feed on more than just algae and may use other means than suspension feeding. Pedal feeding (sweeping up edible material with a muscular structure called the foot) has been observed in juvenile pearly mussels.

Besides the phytoplankton pearly mussels capture from the water column, their guts also contain small animals, protozoans, and detritus (nonliving particulate organic material). Recent studies show that mussels can capture and assimilate bacteria as well, a potentially important source of food in many fresh waters. Another potential source of food for mussels is dissolved organic matter. Early studies showing that pearly mussels could take up simple organic compounds were largely discounted because such labile (unstable) compounds are rarely abundant in nature. Nevertheless, recent work on other bivalves suggests that dissolved organic matter may be a significant source of nutrition.

Of this complex mix of materials that pearly mussels acquire, what is actually required and assimilated? Stable-isotope analyses of mussels taken from nature and of captive-reared mussels are beginning to offer some insight into this question. Nichols and Garling showed that pearly mussels in a small river were omnivorous, subsisting mainly on particles less than 2S micrometers in diameter, including algae, detritus, and bacteria. Bacterially derived carbon was apparently the primary source of soft-tissue carbon. However, bacteria alone cannot support mussel growth, because they lack the necessary long-chain fatty acids and sterols and are deficient in some amino acids. Bacteria may supplement other food resources, provide growth factors, or be the primary food In habitats such as headwater streams, where phytoplankton is scarce. Juvenile mussels have been most successfully reared m the laboratory on diets containing algae high in polyunsaturated fatty acids. Thus, it appears that the pearly mussel diet in nature may consist of algae, bacteria, detritus, and small animals and that at least some algae and bacteria may be required as a source of essential biochemicals.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the research findings of Nichols and Garling?

Options:

A.

They are based on analyses of gut contents of pearly mussels.

B.

They suggest that pearly mussels are unable to assimilate bacteria.

C.

They demonstrate the importance to pearly mussels of long-chain fatty acids.

D.

They contradict the long-standing view mentioned at the beginning of the passage.

E.

They shed light on a puzzling phenomenon detailed in the second paragraph.

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Questions 70

The public has not reacted favorably to the majority of the policies adopted by the present government. If. however, the electoral landslide by which the government achieved power five years ago was. as is often claimed, a mandate for more conservative policies, then the public response to most of the government ' s policies would have been favorable.

If the statements in the passage are true, which of the following must also be true on the basis of them?

Options:

A.

The public would have reacted more favorably to the policies adopted by the present government if those policies had been more conservative.

B.

Most of the people who voted for the present government would have voted for an opposition party if they had not been misled about the policies that would be adopted.

C.

None of the policies adopted by the present government to which the public has responded favorably are conservative policies.

D.

The electoral landslide by which the present government achieved power was not a mandate for more conservative policies.

E.

The present government will be voted out of office at the next election.

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Questions 71

Carbon dating of charcoal gathered from a Nok iron smelter at Intime. Nigeria, suggests that iron technology was established there by 410 B.C. This may not be the oldest smelter in sub-Saharan Africa, however. Archaeologists have located evidence of iron-smelting in the Termite Hills of Niger from as early as 1400 B.C.. but skeptics say the wood used for that dating could have already been centuries old when burned as fuel—a problem that dogs carbon dating, especially in arid places like Niger, where wood desiccates and lasts longer. Of course, the same problem could distort dates for the Intime furnace as well, but here there is an important piece of corroborating evidence: Nok pottery found inside the furnace alongside the charcoal.

The author implies which of the following about the " Nok pottery found inside the furnace " ?

Options:

A.

It provides independent support for the results of the carbon dating of the charcoal.

B.

It was probably imported to Intini from a less arid climate.

C.

It predates the pottery found in the Termit Mills of Niger.

D.

It indicates that the furnace was used primarily for purposes other than smelting.

E.

It contains traces of iron smelted in the same furnace.

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Questions 72

Which of the following is greatest?

A)

GRE Question 72

B)

GRE Question 72

C)

GRE Question 72

D)

GRE Question 72

E)

GRE Question 72

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 73

A total of S72.000 was invested for one month in a new money market account that paid simple annual interest at the rate of r percent- If the investment earned $360 in interest for the month, what is the value of r?

Options:

A.

5.0

B.

6.0

C.

6.5

D.

7.0

E.

7.5

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Questions 74

The graph summarizes the responses from 4.500 respondents who rated their degree of confidence in each of eight United States institutions. Each respondent gave each institution one of five confidence ratings: high, moderate, little, none, or undecided.

GRE Question 74

Of the respondents who did not rate their degree of confidence in the federal government undecided, approximately what fraction rated their degree of confidence in that institution little or none?

A)

GRE Question 74

B)

GRE Question 74

C)

GRE Question 74

D)

GRE Question 74

E)

GRE Question 74

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 75

GRE Question 75

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 76

GRE Question 76

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 77

GRE Question 77

In Country P the percent spent on outdoor advertising in 2012 was one-half of the corresponding percent spent in 2013. Which of the following is closest to the amount spent on outdoor advertising in Country P in 2012 ?

Options:

A.

$IS million

B.

$19 million

C.

$36 million

D.

$37 million

E.

$38 million

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Questions 78

GRE Question 78

For how many of the five neighborhoods did the ratio of the foreign-born population to the total population of the neighborhood increase from 1930 to 1990?

Options:

A.

None

B.

One

C.

Two

D.

Three

E.

Four

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Questions 79

A continuous random variable R has a mean of 77 and a standard deviation of 8. What is the value of R that is 2.5 standard deviations above the mean?

Options:

A.

79.5

B.

85

C.

87.5

D.

93

E.

97

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Questions 80

GRE Question 80

If x and v in the equation shown are numbers that satisfy y < 0 and |x| = |y|, which of the following must be the value of x ?

Options:

A.

-5

B.

-3

C.

1

D.

4

E.

5

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Questions 81

Exhibit.

GRE Question 81

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 82

GRE Question 82

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot he determined from the information given.

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Exam Code: GRE
Exam Name: GRE General Test
Last Update: May 17, 2026
Questions: 407

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