IFC Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) Exam Questions and Answers

According to the MFDA Rules, a Dealing Representative must not accept any purchase orders from a client until the Branch Manager or other designated person has reviewed and approved the New Client Application Form (NCAF) for the client. This is to ensure that the Dealing Representative has obtained and verified all the necessary information about the client, such as identity, investment objectives, risk tolerance, financial situation, and suitability of investments. The review and approval of the NCAF must be completed before any trades are executed for the client, unless there are exceptional circumstances that justify a delay. In this case, Quintin should have waited for Lupita’s approval of the NCAF before placing the purchase order for Reginald.

 1: MFDA Rules as at December 31, 2021 - MFDA 2 (Rule 2.2.4)

The status quo bias is the tendency for investors to resist change and prefer their current situation, even when a review or adjustment may be beneficial. Natalia refuses to attend a portfolio review because she is comfortable with her current allocation and does not see the need for change.

Endowment bias relates to overvaluing owned assets.

Overconfidence is excessive belief in one’s own ability.

Availability bias is reliance on easily recalled information.

Thus, Natalia is demonstrating status quo bias.

The correct answer is C. Ontario. The Investment Funds in Canada course specifies that the Ontario Securities Commission (OSC) requires registered individuals to notify the regulator of significant personal financial events, including personal bankruptcy.

This requirement exists because personal financial distress may raise concerns about integrity, solvency, and the ability to manage client assets responsibly. While all provinces require high standards of conduct, Ontario explicitly mandates disclosure of bankruptcy to the securities administrator.

The CIFC text highlights that registrants must comply with jurisdiction-specific reporting obligations, making awareness of provincial differences critical. Therefore, Option C is the correct and CIFC-verified answer.

Misrepresenting risks violates the MFDA Rule No. 2 requirement to deal fairly, honestly, and in good faith with clients. The feedback from the document states:

"MFDA Rule No 2 ‘Business Conduct’ sets out the standards applicable to all MFDA members and their respective dealing representatives. In this case, the representative has not dealt honestly with the client by misrepresenting information."

Rakesh will not be subjected to a switch fee if it is outlined in the prospectus. A switch fee is a charge that may apply when an investor switches from one fund to another within the same fund family. The prospectus is the legal document that provides information about the fund, including its fees and charges. If the prospectus states that there is no switch fee or that there are certain conditions under which the switch fee is waived, then Rakesh will not have to pay a switch fee. The type of fund (no-load, low-load, or sales charge) does not determine whether there is a switch fee or not, as different fund families may have different policies regarding switch fees. References: Mutual Fund Fees, Prospectus

A short-term bond fund combines characteristics of money market and bond funds, aiming to preserve capital while generating higher income than a money market fund due to its short duration. The feedback from the document states:

"A short-term bond fund is part money market fund and part bond fund. You would expect its investment objectives to reflect this combination. A short-term bond fund’s objectives are to preserve capital and generate better current income than is likely from a money market fund. Although there is some capital gain potential, you would not expect this to be a key objective given the short duration of this type of fixed-income fund."

Know Your Client (KYC) requirements are ongoing obligations that advisors must fulfill to ensure that they provide suitable recommendations and services to their clients. KYC requirements include collecting and documenting information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. KYC requirements also include monitoring and updating the client’s information and investment performance on a regular basis. According to the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA), advisors must review the KYC information at least once every 36 months, or more frequently if there are any material changes in the client’s circumstances or needs1. Advisors must also monitor the investment performance of the client’s portfolio and compare it with the client’s expectations and goals. If the investment performance is not satisfactory or consistent with the client’s risk tolerance, advisors must take appropriate actions, such as rebalancing the portfolio, switching funds, or revising the investment strategy2. Therefore, Harold’s responsibility moving forward is to monitor the investment performance of Felicia’s lump sum investment and determine if it is on track to satisfy her financial needs for the next 5 years. He must also review her KYC information at least once every 36 months, or sooner if there are any changes in her situation or objectives. References:

MFDA Bulletin #0756-P - Know-Your-Client and Suitability1

MFDA Bulletin #0760-P - Monitoring of Investment Performance2

Holding client orders until the following week violates the requirement for continuous service to clients under dual employment conditions. The feedback from the document states:

"A mutual fund dealing representative who works for or is sponsored by a member of the MFDA may have, and continue in, another gainful occupation, provided that the dealer establishes and maintains procedures to ensure continuous service to clients. In this example, Karen’s clients are not receiving continuous service."

The “Client’s Interest First” standard requires that Dealing Representatives act in the best interest of their clients and place their clients’ interests before their own or their employer’s interests. This means that they must provide clear, accurate, and complete information to their clients about the mutual funds they recommend, including the costs and fees associated with them and how they affect the investment performance. Presenting a fund’s historical performance to anticipate its future return is misleading and does not serve the client’s interest. Using a risk-based approach to select a mutual fund is part of the suitability assessment, but it does not necessarily put the client’s interest first. Accurately documenting the KYC information is important for compliance purposes, but it does not ensure that the recommendation is in the client’s best interest.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8: Suitability and Know Your Client1

A is correct because mortgage mutual funds typically pay monthly distributions of interest to their investors, as they invest in mortgages that generate regular interest income. If interest rates fall, the mutual fund’s net asset value per unit (NAVPU) will increase (B), not decline, as the value of the existing mortgages in the fund will rise. Mortgage mutual funds are suitable for low to moderate risk investors ©, not only for high risk investors, as they provide stable income and capital preservation. Mortgage mutual funds are not risk-free (D), even if the mortgages are National Housing Act (NHA) insured, as they still face credit risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk.

 Daisy could seek permission from her dealer to request a client mobility exemption with the Alberta Securities Commission. This exemption allows a registered individual in one jurisdiction to service a client who moves to another jurisdiction, without having to register in the new jurisdiction, subject to certain conditions. Some of these conditions are that the individual must be registered with a dealer that is registered in both jurisdictions, the individual must not have more than five clients in the new jurisdiction, and the individual must notify the regulator in the new jurisdiction of the exemption. References: Client Mobility Exemption

A put option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to sell an underlying stock at a specified price (the strike price) within a specified time period (the expiration date). The seller of a put option is obligated to buy the stock if the buyer exercises the option. Patrick can purchase put options for the fund’s existing assets, which means he can lock in a minimum selling price for his stocks in case the market value drops below the strike price. This way, he can protect against potential losses and hedge his portfolio against market risk. References: What Is a Put Option and How to Use It With Example - Investopedia, How to Hedge With Stock Index Futures - Investopedia

A global fund that does not hedge foreign currency risk benefits from a weakening Canadian dollar, as the value of foreign investments increases in Canadian dollar terms. The feedback from the document states:

"Global mutual funds are attractive in that they can provide a hedge against a decline in the relative value of the Canadian dollar… It is important for mutual fund sales representatives to know whether their global mutual funds hedge foreign exchange risk, because some clients will want to bear that risk themselves, while others will not."

Retractable preferred shares are a type of preferred stock that lets the issuer force the redemption of the shares at a set price and time. The issuer can pay cash or common shares to the retractable preferred shareholders.

References = Retractable Preferred Shares: What it is, How it Works, Example, What are Retractable Preferred Shares? Definition, And How Does it Work? - CFAJournal, Retractable Preferred Shares | Example | Feature - Accountinguide

To calculate the federal tax liability from the investment income, we need to consider the following steps:

Convert the foreign dividend to Canadian dollars using the exchange rate. In this case, $882.02 USD x 1.3605 = $1,200.00 CAD.

Gross up the eligible dividend by the enhanced dividend gross-up rate of 38%. In this case, $1,800 x 1.38 = $2,484.

Add the grossed-up eligible dividend and the foreign dividend to get the total taxable income from dividends. In this case, $2,484 + $1,200 = $3,684.

Multiply the total taxable income from dividends by the federal marginal tax rate of 29% to get the gross federal tax payable. In this case, $3,684 x 0.29 = $1,068.36.

Multiply the grossed-up eligible dividend by the federal dividend tax credit rate of 15% to get the federal dividend tax credit. In this case, $2,484 x 0.15 = $372.60.

Subtract the federal dividend tax credit from the gross federal tax payable to get the net federal tax liability. In this case, $1,068.36 - $372.60 = $695.76.

Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal tax liability from his investment income is $695.76.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Dustin needs to ensure that his recommendation is suitable for the new joint account, which may have a different risk profile than the individual accounts of Salvatore and Harriet. A joint account is an account that is owned by two or more people who share the rights and responsibilities of the account. A joint account may have different investment objectives, time horizon, risk tolerance, and financial situation than the individual accounts of the joint owners. Therefore, Dustin needs to conduct a know your client (KYC) process for the joint account and determine the appropriate risk profile for the account, based on the collective responses of Salvatore and Harriet. The risk profile of the joint account will guide Dustin in recommending suitable investment products and services that match the goals and needs of the joint owners

A mutual fund trust is a type of unit trust that meets certain conditions under the Canadian Income Tax Act and is eligible for favourable tax treatment. A unit trust is a collective investment vehicle that holds assets and distributes profits to individual unit owners, also called unitholders, instead of reinvesting them in the fund. A mutual fund trust is not a corporation and does not have a board of directors or shareholders. It is also not a closed-end fund, which has a fixed number of shares that trade on an exchange. A mutual fund trust is an open-end fund, which can issue and redeem units at any time based on the net asset value of the fund.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5, Section 5.1

 An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a type of pooled investment security that operates much like a mutual fund. Typically, ETFs will track a particular index, sector, commodity, or other assets, but unlike mutual funds, ETFs can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange the same way that a regular stock can. ETFs have lower management expense ratios (MERs) compared to mutual funds because they are passively managed and do not incur high costs for research, analysis, and portfolio rebalancing. Therefore, this statement is true about ETFs. References: Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) Explanation With Pros and Cons - Investopedia, The Best ETFs - Exchange Traded Funds Rankings | US News Investing

Specialty funds, due to their focused and often speculative investments, carry the highest expected risk and return among mutual funds. The feedback from the document states:

"The highest risk, highest expected return mutual fund is a specialty fund."

According to CSC ethical guidelines, integrity requires an advisor to act honestly and avoid conflicts of interest.

By recommending his brother’s private equity fund without disclosing the relationship, Seth risks a conflict of interest and breaches the principle of integrity.

Duty of care relates to suitability and due diligence.

Compliance refers to following regulations.

Confidentiality refers to safeguarding client information.

Thus, the violated value is Integrity.

Index mutual funds and traditional exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are both types of investment funds that use a passive investment management style, which means they try to track the performance of a specific market index, such as the S&P/TSX Composite Index or the S&P 500 Index. They do so by holding the same securities as the index or a representative sample of them, and by adjusting their portfolio composition and weighting to reflect any changes in the index. However, both types of funds may not be able to exactly replicate the return of the index for various reasons, such as fees, expenses, tracking error, rebalancing frequency, dividend reinvestment, and cash holdings. Therefore, there may be some deviation or difference between the fund’s return and the index’s return, which is called tracking difference.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

Taline’s risk profile should be “low” because her risk capacity is low and she cannot afford large investment losses. Risk capacity is the degree of risk that an investor must take in order to achieve their financial goals, while risk tolerance is the degree of risk that an investor is willing to take. Risk capacity is more important than risk tolerance in determining an investor’s risk profile1. Taline has a low risk capacity because she lives on a low, fixed income and cannot afford to lose money. Her risk tolerance may be high, but that does not mean she should take more risk than she can handle. Faruq should not override Taline’s risk capacity or assess her risk profile based on the higher of her risk tolerance and risk capacity, as that would be unsuitable and unethical. References: Unit 3: Suitability

Sachin is experiencing interest rate risk, which is the risk that changes in interest rates will affect the value of fixed income securities. When interest rates rise, bond prices fall, and vice versa. This is because investors will demand a higher yield to invest in bonds that pay a lower coupon rate than the prevailing market rate. Therefore, if the Bank of Canada makes it more expensive to borrow money, the existing bonds in Sachin’s fund will become less attractive and their prices will drop. Interest rate risk is measured by a fixed income security’s duration, with longer-term bonds having a greater price sensitivity to rate changes. Sachin can reduce his interest rate risk by diversifying his bond maturities or hedging using interest rate derivatives1.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 3: Risk and Return2

A balanced mutual fund is a type of fund that invests in a mix of equities and fixed income securities, with the aim of achieving both growth and income objectives. A balanced fund typically has a target asset allocation that is specified in its mandate, and may vary within a certain range depending on market conditions. A balanced fund may also distribute interest, dividends, and capital gains to its unitholders. The Laurentian Fund is an example of a balanced fund, as it limits its equity exposure to 60% and holds between 40 - 60% in fixed income at all times.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6: Mutual Funds, Lesson 1: Mutual Funds Overview, Section 6.1.3: Types of Mutual Funds 1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 6: Mutual Funds, Question 6.1.3 2

The correct answer is C. Maximize monthly dividend distributions through common stocks. The Investment Funds in Canada course stresses that suitability must reflect not only an investor’s knowledge level but also their risk-return profile. A risk-seeking investor is generally willing to accept higher volatility in pursuit of higher returns.

Common stocks, particularly dividend-paying equities, offer both income and capital appreciation potential, making them more appropriate for risk-seeking investors than guaranteed or fixed-income products. While such investments carry market risk, they align with a higher risk tolerance.

Option A is unsuitable because GICs are low-risk instruments designed for capital preservation, not risk-seeking investors. Option B is incorrect because investing in highly correlated assets increases, not reduces, portfolio risk. Option D contradicts CIFC diversification principles, which encourage combining asset classes to manage risk.

The CIFC text also notes that advisors should avoid over-complex products for clients with limited knowledge, but this does not mean avoiding growth-oriented investments altogether. Dividend-paying common stocks are widely understood, regulated, and suitable when properly diversified.

Therefore, Option C is the most appropriate and CIFC-verified recommendation.

An annuity provides a steady income stream until the client’s death, suitable for someone with uncertain income sources and no interest in leaving a legacy. The feedback from the document states:

"The client needs a steady source of income from his investment. This rules out a ratio withdrawal plan and a life withdrawal plan. With a fixed-dollar withdrawal plan his capital could be exhausted before he dies. He should choose an annuity that will pay a fixed amount every year until his death. If he lives beyond the guaranteed term, the annuity will cease with his death, but this fact is not important as he does not wish to leave a legacy."

Fixed assets are long-term tangible assets used in business operations, not held for resale (e.g., land, buildings, machinery, equipment, computers).

Marketable securities (A) are current assets (short-term investments).

Inventories (B) are current assets.

Trade receivables (D) are current assets (accounts receivable).

The Strategic Investment Planning (SIP) process is a four-step process that helps advisors to create and deliver customized investment plans for their clients. The four steps are:

Clarify Client Status, Problems and Opportunities: This step involves gathering information about the client’s personal and financial situation, goals, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. The advisor also identifies the client’s problems and opportunities, such as tax issues, estate planning needs, or market trends.

Identify Strategies and Present the Plan: This step involves analyzing the information collected in the previous step and developing strategies to address the client’s problems and opportunities. The advisor also presents the plan to the client, explaining the rationale, benefits, costs, and risks of the proposed strategies. This is the stage where Sonya mentions factors such as inflation, interest rates, and rates of return, as they are relevant to the investment approaches she is offering to Elijah.

Implement the Plan: This step involves executing the agreed-upon strategies with the client’s consent. The advisor also ensures that the necessary documentation and transactions are completed.

Monitor and Update: This step involves reviewing the performance of the plan and making adjustments as needed. The advisor also communicates with the client regularly and updates the plan according to any changes in the client’s situation or goals.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 2: The Sales Process, Section 2.3: The Strategic Investment Planning (SIP) Process, page 2-81

Strategic Investment Planning Process - IFSE Institute2

To protect against a market decline, purchasing put options on an index fund like the iShares S&P/TSX 60 allows the portfolio to offset losses by gaining value if the market falls. The feedback from the document states:

"A fund manager may have experienced a rapid growth in the value of her portfolio, but is concerned that the market may fall. To protect herself against a fall in value, she purchases put options on the iShares S&P/TSX 60 Index Fund (i60s). If the market declines, the fall in value of the portfolio is offset by an increase in the value of the put options."

The current yield for a money market fund is calculated by annualizing the 7-day yield: (7-day yield × 365 / 7). For a 7-day yield of 0.05% (0.0005), the calculation is: 0.0005 × 365 / 7 = 0.02607 or 2.61%. The feedback from the document states:

"The current yield for a money market fund is calculated as the most recent seven-day yield on the fund, adjusted to an annual rate. The formula is: Current yield = (Seven-day yield × 365 / 7). In this case the current yield is (0.0005 × 365 / 7) = 0.0261."

Inflation is the general increase in the prices of goods and services over time. Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money, meaning that a dollar can buy less than it used to. Inflation also erodes the real value of investment income, such as interest, dividends, and capital gains. Therefore, an increase in the inflation rate could mean that investors have less money to invest, as their income and savings lose value.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 1: Economic Factors and Financial Markets, Section 5.1.2: Inflation1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.1.2 2

This question would give you the most information regarding your client’s familiarity with investing because it tests their basic knowledge of one of the fundamental concepts in finance. The relationship between risk and return is the trade-off that investors face when choosing between different investments. Generally, the higher the risk, the higher the expected return, and vice versa. A client who understands this relationship would be able to evaluate the potential outcomes and costs of their investment decisions and choose the ones that match their risk tolerance and return objectives. A client who does not understand this relationship might have unrealistic expectations or make unsuitable choices.

References = Risk-Return Tradeoff Definition - Investopedia, Risk and Return - Corporate Finance Institute, Risk and Return: An Introduction - Morningstar

Global equity funds are a type of investment fund that invests in equity securities of companies from different countries around the world, including the investment fund manager’s home country. Global equity funds aim to provide diversification and growth potential by taking advantage of the opportunities and risks in various markets and regions. Global equity funds may have different geographic, sectoral, or thematic focuses, depending on their investment objectives and strategies. Global equity funds are different from international equity funds, which invest only in countries outside of the investment fund manager’s home country. Global equity funds are also different from regional or country-specific equity funds, which specialize in one or a few countries or regions. Global equity funds may have higher risk than domestic equity funds, as they are exposed to currency risk, foreign market risk, political risk, and regulatory risk.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

A simplified prospectus is a legal document that provides essential information about a mutual fund, such as its investment objectives, strategies, risks, fees, performance, and distribution policy. A simplified prospectus also contains information about the fund manager, the dealer, and the rights of investors. A fund facts is a summary document that highlights the key information from the simplified prospectus in a concise and easy-to-read format. A fund facts is delivered to investors before or at the time of purchase of a mutual fund12

One of the information that can be found from a simplified prospectus instead of fund facts is the investment strategies that are being used or proposed to be used by the mutual fund. The investment strategies describe how the fund manager intends to achieve the fund’s investment objectives, such as the types of securities, markets, sectors, or styles that the fund will invest in, the asset allocation or diversification policy, the use of derivatives or leverage, or the criteria for selecting or selling securities. The investment strategies may also include any restrictions or limitations that the fund must follow, such as the minimum or maximum exposure to certain securities, markets, or sectors, or the adherence to any ethical, environmental, social, or governance (ESG) principles. The investment strategies provide investors with a detailed and comprehensive understanding of how the fund operates and what risks it may entail34

The other options are not correct, as they can be found in both the simplified prospectus and the fund facts. The costs associated with mutual fund investing include the sales charges, trailing commissions, management fees, operating expenses, and taxes that investors may have to pay when they buy, hold, or sell a mutual fund. These costs are disclosed in both documents, as they affect the returns and performance of the fund12 A summary of the top 10 investment holdings shows the largest positions that the fund holds in its portfolio, such as the names and percentages of the securities, markets, or sectors that the fund invests in. This summary gives investors a snapshot of the fund’s composition and diversification, and it is updated regularly in both documents12 Investor rights regarding cancelling an order refer to the right of withdrawal and the right of rescission that investors have when they purchase a mutual fund. The right of withdrawal allows investors to cancel their purchase within two business days of receiving the fund facts or the confirmation of purchase, and receive a refund of the purchase price or the market value of the fund, whichever is less. The right of rescission allows investors to cancel their purchase within 48 hours of receiving the confirmation of purchase, if they did not receive the fund facts before or at the time of purchase, and receive a refund of the purchase price or the market value of the fund, whichever is less. These rights are explained in both documents, as they protect the interests of investors12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6: Mutual Funds, Lesson 4: Mutual Fund Disclosure Documents, Section 6.4.1: Simplified Prospectus 1; Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6: Mutual Funds, Lesson 4: Mutual Fund Disclosure Documents, Section 6.4.2: Fund Facts 2; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 6: Mutual Funds, Question 6.4.1 3; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 6: Mutual Funds, Question 6.4.2 4

Target-date funds (also called life-cycle funds) automatically adjust their asset allocation (glide path) over time. They start with a growth-oriented strategy (more equities) and gradually shift towards conservative allocations as the target date approaches.

This matches the father’s goal: minimal management required while allowing for growth in earlier years and reduced risk later.

Balanced equity, high-yield income, and global equity funds do not automatically shift allocations over time.

Thus, the most appropriate choice is Target date fund.

LSIFs are a type of investment fund that provide venture capital to small and medium-sized Canadian businesses, while offering tax benefits to investors. However, LSIFs are also considered high-risk and illiquid investments, as they invest in private companies that may not have a proven track record or marketability. Therefore, LSIFs are not suitable for investors with a short-term time horizon or a low risk tolerance. Investors who buy LSIFs receive a 15% federal tax credit and may also receive an additional provincial tax credit, depending on the province where they reside. However, these tax credits are conditional on holding the LSIF investment for at least 8 years. If investors redeem their LSIF investment before the 8-year period, they will have to repay the tax credits they received.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 4: Types of Investments1

Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between available jobs and the skills of workers. This is exactly the case when there is a lack of skilled workers in the economy.

Cyclical unemployment (A) arises during economic downturns.

Frictional unemployment (C) is temporary, due to workers moving between jobs.

Seasonal unemployment (D) arises in industries affected by seasonal patterns (e.g., agriculture, tourism).

A custodian in mutual fund is a trust company, bank, or similar financial institution that is responsible for holding and safeguarding the securities owned within a mutual fund. The custodian also records and reports all transactions to the fund manager. The custodian does not oversee the general administration, construct and manage the portfolio, or calculate the NAVPU of the mutual fund. These are the roles of other entities such as the fund administrator, the fund manager, and the fund accountant.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 2: Investment Products - Section 2.2: Mutual Funds1 and web search results from search_web(query="role of a custodian in mutual funds")23

1: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-2.pdf

 A vulnerable client is a client who, due to their personal circumstances, is especially susceptible to harm or disadvantage when dealing with financial services. Vulnerability can be permanent or temporary, and can arise from various factors, such as physical or mental health conditions, cognitive impairments, low financial literacy, language barriers, abuse, or discrimination. A vulnerable client may have different needs and challenges than other clients, and may require more support and protection from their adviser. Ginger would be categorized as a vulnerable client because she has reached retirement age and is easily confused, which may affect her ability to understand and make informed decisions about her financial situation. She may also be at risk of being exploited or misled by others who may take advantage of her confusion. Therefore, Ginger’s adviser should take extra care to ensure that she is treated fairly and that her best interests are served.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8: Suitability and Know Your Client1

One of the steps in the Know Your Client (KYC) rule is to assess the client’s financial resources, which include their income, assets, liabilities, and net worth. Asking about pension plans at work is a relevant question to determine the client’s sources of income and potential retirement savings. Pension plans can also affect the client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives, as they may provide a stable and guaranteed income in the future. Asking about children, money needs, and investment experience are also important questions, but they relate to other aspects of the KYC rule, such as personal circumstances, time horizon, and investment knowledge. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 1: The Investment Funds Industry, Section 1.4: The Know Your Client (KYC) Rule, page 1-111

Know Your Client (KYC) Definition - Investopedia

The endowment bias occurs when investors place a higher value on assets they already own compared to the market value, simply because of ownership.

Dave overvalues his property relative to the market.

Farida = representativeness bias.

Kendra = availability bias.

Peter = status quo bias.

Thus, Dave demonstrates endowment bias.

Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are traded on exchanges, offering flexibility and lower costs compared to index mutual funds, making them ideal for tracking the energy sector. The feedback from the document states:

"Like stocks, and unlike index mutual funds, ETFs are traded on an exchange and can be bought and sold throughout the trading day. In this way, ETFs provide investors with a flexible way to participate in the performance of the underlying assets without having to acquire the assets directly, incurring high transaction costs. MERs on ETFs also tend to be lower than on other index and actively managed products."

Dakota can send promotional emails to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs). A CEM is any electronic message that encourages participation in a commercial activity, such as an email, a text message, or a social media message. Under Canada’s anti-spam legislation (CASL), Dakota must obtain consent from the recipients before sending CEMs, either explicitly (e.g., by asking them to sign up for a newsletter) or implicitly (e.g., by having an existing business relationship with them). Dakota must also identify himself and his dealer, provide contact information, and include an unsubscribe mechanism in every CEM. The other statements are incorrect. Dakota cannot make telemarketing calls to clients who are listed on the National Do Not Call List (DNCL). The DNCL is a list of telephone numbers of consumers who do not want to receive unsolicited telemarketing calls. Under the Telecommunications Act, Dakota must register with the National DNCL operator, subscribe to the National DNCL, and avoid calling any number on the list, unless he has express consent from the consumer or an exemption applies. Dakota cannot send promotional emails to clients who have opted into Harvest Wealth’s Do Not Call List. A Do Not Call List is a list of telephone numbers of consumers who do not want to receive telemarketing calls from a specific organization. Under the Telecommunications Act, Dakota must maintain an internal Do Not Call List for his dealer and respect the requests of consumers who ask not to be called by his dealer. However, this does not mean that he can send promotional emails to those consumers, as that would violate CASL. Dakota cannot make telemarketing calls to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs). Opting in to receive CEMs does not imply consent to receive telemarketing calls, as they are different forms of communication governed by different laws . Dakota must obtain separate consent from the clients before making telemarketing calls to them, either explicitly or implicitly. References: [Canada’s anti-spam legislation], [National Do Not Call List]

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, inflation is the general increase in the prices of goods and services over time. Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money, meaning that a dollar can buy less in the future than it can today. Inflation also affects the returns of fixed income investments, such as bonds, which pay a fixed amount of interest and principal. If inflation is higher than expected, the real rate of return (the nominal rate minus inflation) of a bond will be lower than anticipated.

In this case, Pippa purchased a 15-year bond with a 7% coupon rate at the time of issuance. The bond is due to mature later this year. The general interest rate climate remained stable for the first 13 years of the bond’s term. However, especially over the past 18 months, both inflation and general interest rates have increased more than expected. This means that Pippa will receive less purchasing power from her bond’s interest and principal payments than she expected when she bought the bond. She will not experience a capital loss, as she will receive the full face value of $5,000 at maturity. She will also not benefit from a higher real rate of return, as inflation erodes the value of her fixed payments. She will not receive any capital appreciation, as the bond’s price does not change once it is held to maturity.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. The return of investment capital will have lower purchasing power than prior to investing.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 4: Fixed Income Securities)

The value of John’s investment on December 31 of this year can be calculated by multiplying the number of units he holds by the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) on that date. Since John invested $500 on January 3 and $500 on July 1, he holds a total of 125.6 units (62.8 units from the first investment and 62.8 units from the second investment). Therefore, the value of his investment on December 31 will be 125.6 units x $9.55 NAVPU = $1,256.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2: Mutual Funds1

Tax deductions are amounts that reduce your total income before calculating your tax payable. They lower your marginal tax rate, which is the tax rate that applies to your last dollar of income. For example, if Wilma’s total income is $50,000 and she claims $5,000 in tax deductions, her taxable income will be $45,000 and her marginal tax rate will be lower than if she had no deductions. Therefore, A is the correct answer. References: All deductions, credits, and expenses - Personal income tax - Canada.ca

A put option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to sell a certain amount of an underlying security at a specified price within a specified time frame. A put option increases in value as the price of the underlying security decreases, and vice versa. Therefore, buying a put option can be used as a hedging strategy to protect against downside risk or loss in the value of the underlying security. In this case, Maxine is using a put option to hedge against the potential drop in the market value of Never2Tacky due to the regulatory changes. If the price of Never2Tacky falls below $95, she can exercise the put option and sell her shares at $95, limiting her loss. If the price of Never2Tacky stays above $95, she can let the put option expire and keep her shares, paying only the premium for the option. Buying a put option is not speculating, as it does not involve taking a high-risk position in anticipation of a favorable outcome. It is also not related to modern portfolio theory or passive management, which are different concepts in investment analysis. References: Put Option: What It Is, How It Works, and How to Trade Them, Put Options: What They Are and How They Work, Put: What It Is and How It Works in Investing, With Examples

A mortgage fund is a type of income fund that invests in mortgages and other debt instruments secured by real estate. It provides a steady stream of income to investors and has a low correlation with other asset classes. A mortgage fund is suitable for Yael because she needs income to pay her monthly expenses and is comfortable with high risk. A global equity fund, a money market fund, and a Canadian equity index fund are not suitable for Yael because they do not meet her income objective and risk tolerance.

Diversification is the mutual fund benefit that would address Jasmine’s concern about volatility. Diversification means spreading investments across different asset classes, sectors, regions, and companies to reduce risk and volatility. A mutual fund provides diversification by pooling money from many investors and investing in a portfolio of securities that meet the fund’s investment objective and strategy. By investing in a mutual fund, Jasmine can gain exposure to the energy sector without putting all her money in one company. She can also benefit from the professional management and research of the fund manager, who can select and monitor the best securities for the fund. References: Mutual Funds, Diversification

The inflation rate is calculated by subtracting the previous year’s CPI from the current year’s CPI, dividing by the previous year’s CPI, and multiplying by 100. In this case:

(146.9 - 140.6) / 140.6 = 6.3 / 140.6 ≈ 0.0448 or 4.48%.

The feedback from the document confirms:

"To calculate the rate of inflation over a period of time one must subtract the CPI at the beginning of the period from the CPI at the end of the period and then divide the result by the CPI at the beginning of the period. In this example, the solution can be derived as follows: (146.9 - 140.6) / 140.6."

Beta is a measure of the systematic risk of an investment, which is the risk that is related to the movements of the market as a whole. Beta compares the volatility of an investment to the volatility of the market. A beta of 1 means that the investment has the same level of risk as the market, and it tends to move in the same direction and magnitude as the market. A beta of 0 means that the investment has no correlation with the market, and it is unaffected by market fluctuations. A beta greater than 1 means that the investment is more risky than the market, and it tends to amplify the market movements. A beta less than 1 means that the investment is less risky than the market, and it tends to dampen the market movements. Therefore, if an investor was looking for an investment with a risk equal to that of the market, she would want a beta of 1. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.5: Risk and Return of Mutual Funds, page 4-231

Beta Definition - Investopedia2

The representativeness bias causes individuals to evaluate new information by comparing it to existing stereotypes or patterns that seem to “best fit,” making Option D the correct answer. The Investment Funds in Canada curriculum explains that representativeness occurs when investors “draw conclusions based on similarities to past experiences without considering probability or statistical relevance.”

This bias leads investors to assume that if something looks like a successful investment from the past, it will behave the same way in the future, even when underlying fundamentals differ. The “best-fit” mental shortcut ignores deeper analysis and often results in incorrect assumptions.

The other options describe different behavioural tendencies. Status quo bias reflects resistance to change. Availability bias focuses on information that is easily recalled rather than most relevant. Hindsight predisposition involves believing past events were predictable after they occur. None of these involve pattern-matching based on perceived similarity.

The CIFC course emphasizes that behavioural biases can negatively affect investment decisions and that advisors must recognize and mitigate them when working with clients. Because representativeness relies on superficial resemblance rather than objective analysis, it is the correct answer.

Cavalry can place a temporary hold on Darsha’s account to temporarily disallow the redemption if they have reasonable grounds to believe that Darsha is being financially exploited or that she lacks mental capacity to make financial decisions. This is in accordance with the guidance issued by the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA) on how to deal with vulnerable clients. A temporary hold can be placed for up to 15 business days, which can be extended for another 15 business days if necessary. During this time, Cavalry must conduct an internal review of the matter and contact Darsha and any trusted contact person or legal representative to resolve the situation. Cavalry cannot place a permanent hold on Darsha’s account without her consent or a court order. Cavalry is not required to place a temporary hold on Darsha’s account, but it is an option available to them to protect their client’s interests. References: What We Heard Report: Financial Crimes and Harms Against Seniors, MFDA Bulletin #0859-P - Guidance on Vulnerable Clients

Standard equity funds focus on capital gains and may include dividend income, but unlike dividend funds, they do not prioritize capital preservation. The feedback from the document states:

"A standard equity fund seeks to earn some combination of dividend income and capital gains from investment in Canadian common stocks. This objective appears to be similar to that of a preferred dividend fund. The difference between the two is that an equity fund usually has a much stronger capital gains focus. Note as well that equity funds make no specific attempt to preserve capital; in other words, equity funds are willing to put capital at substantially greater risk than preferred dividend funds."

Canadian preferred share funds distribute income in the form of eligible Canadian dividends, which are tax-advantaged through the dividend tax credit.

In contrast:

U.S. preferred dividends are taxed as foreign income, fully taxable without credits.

Mortgage and bond funds generate interest income, which is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal rate.

Therefore, the most tax-advantaged distribution comes from a Canadian preferred share fund.

Market risk (systematic risk) cannot be eliminated by diversification or hedging; it affects all securities in the market (e.g., recessions, geopolitical events, interest rate changes).

Default risk (B) relates to specific issuers of debt.

Unique risk (C) is company-specific and can be diversified away.

The correct answer is A. Debentures. According to the Investment Funds in Canada course, corporations raise capital either through debt financing or equity financing. When a company expects strong growth but plans to repay borrowed capital within a defined period, debt instruments such as debentures are often the most appropriate choice.

Debentures are unsecured debt obligations that allow companies to borrow funds for a specific term while retaining ownership control. The CIFC text explains that issuing debt is advantageous when a company expects stable or growing cash flows, as interest payments are fixed and predictable. In addition, interest on debt is tax-deductible, which reduces the company’s after-tax cost of capital.

Issuing common shares would dilute ownership and is generally preferred when repayment timing is uncertain. Derivatives are risk-management tools, not financing instruments. Investment funds are pooled investment vehicles and cannot be issued by corporations to finance operations.

Because AWB Inc. intends to repay the capital within five years and expects growth sufficient to service debt, debentures are the most suitable financing instrument. Therefore, Option A is the correct and fully CIFC-verified answer.

 A commodity pool is a type of mutual fund that can invest in specified derivatives and forward contracts for commodities, such as grains, meats, metals, energy products, and coffee. A commodity pool allows investors to gain exposure to the commodity markets without having to buy or sell the physical commodities themselves. A commodity pool may also use leverage and hedging strategies to enhance returns and reduce risks. Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Commodity Pool: Definition and How It Works - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

The current yield on a bond is the annual interest payment divided by the current market price of the bond. In this case, the annual interest payment is 7% of the face value, which is $700. The current market price of the bond is $9,230. Therefore, the current yield is:

9230700​×100%=7.58%

The current yield is different from the coupon rate, which is the annual interest payment divided by the face value of the bond. The coupon rate does not change over the life of the bond, but the current yield changes as the market price of the bond fluctuates. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 5: Fixed-Income Securities, Section 5.2: Bond Pricing and Yield, page 5-61

Current Yield Definition - Investopedia2

Tony is employing a top-down investment approach, which is a method of selecting securities based on macroeconomic factors, such as the state of the economy, the industry trends, and the market conditions. A top-down investor starts by analyzing the big picture and then drills down to the specific sectors, regions, and companies that are expected to perform well in that environment. Tony has done an economic analysis of the various provinces and sectors of the Canadian economy and has determined that Nova Scotia and Alberta present the best prospects. He has also identified potential in the oil and gas sector. He then narrows down his selection to an oil supply firm in Medicine Hat and a drilling company in Halifax. This shows that he is using a top-down approach to choose his investments.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 3: Risk and Return1

The correct answer is B. 18.60%. The Investment Funds in Canada course defines the before-tax rate of return as the percentage change in investment value over a period, excluding taxes and inflation adjustments.

The formula for calculating the holding period return is:

Because the question specifically asks for the before-tax rate of return, the investor’s marginal tax rate and inflation rate are not applied. Inflation would be used to calculate a real rate of return, and taxes would be used for an after-tax return, neither of which is requested here.

The CIFC curriculum stresses that investors must clearly distinguish between nominal, real, before-tax, and after-tax returns when evaluating performance. Since the calculation strictly reflects price appreciation, 18.60% is the correct answer.

Therefore, Option B is fully verified and CIFC-aligned.

The custodian, typically a trust company, receives and holds all funds from investors and other sources, managing the fund’s assets and expenses. The feedback from the document states:

"The Custodian. When a mutual fund is established, a separate organization, most often a trust company, is appointed as the fund’s custodian. The custodian receives and holds the fund’s money obtained from all sources – investors buying the fund’s units or shares, income earned by the fund’s investment portfolio, proceeds from the sale of the fund’s investments, holds all the fund’s assets and distributes the fund’s money to pay the fund’s expenses."

The correct answer is A. Indicates how much an investment’s performance fluctuates around its average historical return.

Standard deviation is a measure of how spread out the data points are from the mean value. It is calculated as the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences from the mean. Standard deviation can be used to assess the volatility or risk of an investment by showing how much the returns deviate from the expected or average return. A higher standard deviation means that the investment has a wider range of possible outcomes, which implies more uncertainty and risk. A lower standard deviation means that the investment has a narrower range of possible outcomes, which implies more stability and consistency.

B. A standard deviation greater than one indicates a higher level of volatility than the market. This statement is incorrect because the standard deviation of an investment is not directly comparable to the standard deviation of the market, unless they have the same mean return. The standard deviation of an investment only measures the absolute variation of the returns, not the relative variation to the market. A better measure of the relative volatility of an investment to the market is beta, which is the ratio of the covariance of the investment and the market to the variance of the market.

C. Measures the systematic risk of an investment relative to a benchmark index. This statement is incorrect because the standard deviation of an investment does not distinguish between the systematic risk and the unsystematic risk. The systematic risk is the risk that affects the entire market or a large segment of the market, such as inflation, interest rates, or political events. The unsystematic risk is the risk that affects a specific investment or a small group of investments, such as management decisions, product quality, or lawsuits. The standard deviation of an investment captures both types of risk, whereas the beta of an investment only captures the systematic risk.

D. Standard deviation is also referred to as beta. This statement is incorrect because standard deviation and beta are different measures of risk. Standard deviation measures the absolute variation of the returns of an investment, whereas beta measures the relative variation of the returns of an investment to the market. Standard deviation is a measure of total risk, whereas beta is a measure of systematic risk.

The correct answer is C. Purchase a life annuity. The Investment Funds in Canada course explains that by the end of the year in which an individual turns 71, RRSP funds must be converted to a retirement income option, such as a RRIF or an annuity.

A life annuity provides guaranteed income payments for as long as the annuitant lives, thereby directly addressing Rakshana’s goal of receiving a steady income until death. This eliminates longevity risk—the risk of outliving one’s savings—which is a key concern in retirement planning.

A RRIF (Option A) allows flexibility but does not guarantee lifetime income, as payments depend on account performance and withdrawals. A fixed-term annuity provides income for a specified period only, not for life. A lump-sum withdrawal would trigger immediate taxation and does not provide ongoing income.

The CIFC text emphasizes that annuities are suitable for retirees seeking predictability and security, particularly when income certainty is more important than flexibility. Therefore, Option C is the most appropriate and fully CIFC-aligned answer.

The standard of integrity requires dealing honestly, fairly, and with good faith in all personal and professional interactions with clients, including personal financial dealings.

Compliance (B) ensures adherence to laws, regulations, and firm policies.

Professionalism (C) relates to competence and ethical conduct.

Confidentiality (D) relates to safeguarding client information.

The cash flow from operations to total debt ratio assesses a company’s ability to meet its debt obligations using cash generated from operations. The feedback from the document states:

"The cash flow from operations/total debt ratio gauges a company’s ability to repay the funds it has borrowed. A company’s annual cash flow should therefore be adequate to meet these commitments."

A strategic asset allocation strategy is one that involves setting target allocations for various asset classes based on the investor’s risk tolerance, time horizon, and investment objectives, and rebalancing the portfolio periodically to maintain the original allocations. This strategy is compatible with a buy-and-hold approach and aims to achieve long-term goals by diversifying across different asset classes and markets. In this case, you are implementing a strategic asset allocation strategy for your client Sierra by assigning 30% of her portfolio to fixed income and 70% to equities, and planning to rebalance her portfolio when the actual allocations deviate significantly from the target allocations.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7, Section 7.1

A negative Sharpe ratio indicates that the fund’s return is less than the risk-free rate, as the numerator (Fund Return - T-bill Rate) is negative. The feedback from the document states:

"The Sharpe ratio is calculated as (Fund Return - T-bill Rate) ÷ Fund Standard Deviation. A negative Sharpe ratio means the mutual fund has a return less than the risk-free rate, as the numerator of the ratio would be negative."

D is correct because Sujay’s registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) contribution room for the year will be reduced by $3,600. This is because his employer’s defined contribution pension plan is considered a registered pension plan (RPP), which affects his RRSP contribution room through a pension adjustment (PA). The PA is calculated as 18% of his earned income in the previous year minus his RPP contributions in the current year. In this case, Sujay’s PA for the current year is $3,600, which is 18% of his $60,000 salary minus his 3% contribution ($1,800) and his employer’s 3% contribution ($1,800). The PA reduces his RRSP contribution room for the next year by the same amount. It will have an effect on his RRSP contribution room (A), as it is not based on earned income only, but also on RPP contributions. It will not reduce his contribution room by $51,800 (B), as this is more than his earned income. It will not reduce his contribution room by $10,800 ©, as this is 18% of his earned income without subtracting his RPP contributions.

A group RRSP is a retirement savings plan sponsored by an employer that allows employees to contribute through regular payroll deductions and benefit from tax advantages and possible employer matching. The employer is responsible for choosing the plan provider, which is the financial institution that administers the group RRSP and offers a range of investment options for the employees to choose from. The employer may also negotiate lower fees and better services with the plan provider than what individual RRSPs can offer. Therefore, statement D is correct.

The other statements are incorrect for the following reasons:

Statement A: A group RRSP is less costly and time consuming to administer than traditional pension plans, as it does not require actuarial valuations, funding requirements, or regulatory filings.

Statement B: If you leave your employer, your group RRSP does not stay with the employer. You can transfer your group RRSP to an individual RRSP or another registered plan without tax consequences, as long as there are no locked-in provisions.

Statement C: You do not need to wait until you file your taxes to receive your contribution tax deduction. Your contributions are deducted from your gross income before tax is calculated, so you receive an immediate tax benefit on your paycheque.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 9, Section 9.1

Fixed-income securities, including mortgage funds, decrease in value when interest rates rise because existing mortgages with lower rates become less attractive compared to new, higher-yielding mortgages. The feedback from the document states:

"Fixed-income securities move in the opposite direction to market interest rates… Let’s assume you are the fund manager for a mortgage mutual fund, which has mortgages paying 5%. If mortgage rates suddenly increase to 6%, only the interest rates on newly negotiated mortgages would increase… The investor would not pay you par for a 5% rate. If you wished to sell the mortgages, then you would have to lower your price until the price paid—given the 5% fixed payments to be made—results in a return to the buyer of 6%, the ‘going rate’ on mortgages. In other words, the market value of your par value mortgages must fall."

This statement is correct because yield-to-maturity (YTM) is the annualized rate of return of a bond that assumes that all coupon payments are reinvested at the same rate until the bond matures. YTM takes into account the bond’s current market price, par value, coupon rate, and time to maturity, and it calculates the compound interest earned on the reinvested coupons. Therefore, YTM reflects the total return of the bond, including both the interest income and the capital gain or loss.

References = Current Yield vs. Yield to Maturity - Investopedia, Yield to Maturity (YTM) - Investopedia, Bond Current Yield Calculator

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, asset mix rebalancing is the process of restoring the portfolio to its original or target asset allocation by selling or buying assets. Asset mix rebalancing is necessary to maintain the desired level of risk and return, as well as to align the portfolio with the investor’s objectives and circumstances. Asset mix rebalancing can be done periodically, such as annually or quarterly, or based on a threshold, such as when an asset class deviates from its target weight by a certain percentage.

In this case, Jerry’s asset mix is deviating from the original target asset mix because the stock market has had strong performance. Equities are now over-weighted in Jerry’s account. The original target asset mix is still valid since Jerry’s situation has not changed. He is invested in several bond and equity mutual funds. Therefore, the best course of action is to advise him to sell a portion of assets invested in equity funds and reinvest the proceeds into bond funds. This will bring his portfolio back to its target asset mix and reduce his exposure to equity risk.

The other options are not advisable because:

Advising him to change his know your client (KYC) form to reflect more growth would imply that his risk tolerance and objectives have changed, which is not the case. Changing the KYC form would also require a new suitability assessment and documentation.

Advising him to do nothing since equities could outperform bonds in the next year would ignore the importance of asset mix rebalancing and expose him to more risk than he is comfortable with. Doing nothing would also mean that his portfolio is not aligned with his original plan and expectations.

Advising him to sell a portion of assets invested in bond funds and reinvest the proceeds into equity funds would further increase his equity weight and risk, which is contrary to his original target asset mix and risk tolerance.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. advise him to sell a portion of assets invested in equity funds and reinvest the proceeds into bond funds.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 10: Portfolio Management)

Segregated funds offer some protection of the capital invested but there is an added cost for the protection. Segregated funds are contracts issued by life insurance companies that invest in underlying funds, similar to mutual funds. Segregated funds have a maturity guarantee and a death benefit guarantee, which ensure that the investor or their beneficiary will receive a certain percentage of their initial investment, regardless of market fluctuations. However, these guarantees come at a cost, which is reflected in higher management fees and insurance fees than mutual funds. Segregated funds do not have high returns, as they depend on the performance of the underlying funds. Segregated funds can be redeemed before the maturity date of the contract, but they may be subject to early redemption fees or market value adjustments. Segregated funds do not flow through capital losses to investors, as they are not considered owners of the underlying fund. Segregated funds are subject to insurance regulation, not securities regulation, because they are distributed by life insurance agents. References: Segregated Funds

Money market funds are safe investments because their net asset value per unit does not usually fluctuate. Money market funds invest in highly liquid instruments like high-interest savings accounts, term deposits, short-term debt securities, cash equivalents, and other low-risk, short-term investments3. These funds aim to preserve capital and provide liquidity while generating some income3. Money market funds typically have a stable net asset value per unit (NAVPU) that does not change much over time3. The other statements are false. Money market funds do not provide high returns without risking the capital invested. Money market funds offer low returns that may not keep up with inflation or meet long-term investment goals3. Money market funds also have some risks, such as credit risk, interest rate risk, and liquidity risk3. Money market funds do not pay income weekly which can be automatically reinvested. Money market funds may pay income monthly, quarterly, semi-annually, or annually, depending on the fund’s distribution policy3. Investors can choose to receive cash distributions or reinvest them in more units of the fund3. Money market funds do not provide investors a guaranteed fixed rate of return. Money market funds do not guarantee any return or principal amount3. The return of money market funds depends on the interest rates and yields of the underlying investments, which may vary over time3. References: 7 Best Money Market ETFs in Canada 2023: Cash And HISA ETFs, Best Money Market Funds in Canada | WOWA.ca, 3 Best Canadian Money Market Funds (2023) - PiggyBank

A business cycle is a cycle of fluctuations in the aggregate economic activity of a nation around its long-term natural growth rate. It consists of four phases: expansion, peak, contraction, and trough. A period of economic expansion is followed by a period of economic contraction, which is also called a recession. A recession is defined as a significant decline in economic activity spread across the economy, lasting more than a few months, normally visible in real GDP, real income, employment, industrial production, and wholesale-retail sales1. The other statements are not true about the movement of business cycles in the Canadian economy. The length of each phase and cycle varies depending on various factors, such as fiscal and monetary policies, external shocks, consumer confidence, and technological changes. There is no fixed rule that a period of economic expansion or contraction must last for a certain number of months or quarters. A period of at least 3 consecutive months of contraction is not sufficient to define a recession; it must also be significant and widespread across the economy. References: Business Cycle: What It Is, How to Measure It, the 4 Phases, Business Cycle - Definition, How to Measure and 6 Different Stages, Business Cycle - Definition, Phases, Graphs, Economics Examples

The statement that is correct about Jehona’s permitted activities is option B. According to Section 13.3 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), registered individuals must not engage in discretionary trading, meaning that they must not execute a transaction for a client’s account without the specific authorization of the client before the transaction. Therefore, if Jehona wants to execute trades for Sokol’s account, Sokol must provide his specific authorization before the trades are entered. The other statements are not correct about Jehona’s permitted activities. Option A is false because a Limited Authorization Form does not allow Jehona to process trades in the account without Sokol’s pre-approval; rather, it allows Jehona to accept instructions from a third party authorized by Sokol, such as a spouse or a lawyer. Option C is false because Sokol cannot give Jehona discretionary trading authority, as it is prohibited by NI 31-103 for mutual fund dealers and their representatives. Option D is false because appointing Jehona as his Power of Attorney does not allow Jehona to execute trades without Sokol’s pre-approval; rather, it allows Jehona to act on behalf of Sokol in legal and financial matters, subject to certain conditions and limitations. References: [Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations], [Discretionary Trading | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Limited Authorization Form | IFIC], [Power of Attorney | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

This statement is true because a mutual fund trust can distribute its net income and net realized capital gains to its unitholders, and avoid paying tax at the fund level. The unitholders then report their share of the fund’s income and capital gains on their tax returns, and pay tax according to their marginal tax rates. In this case, Redwood has generated $14.25 per unit of capital gains from the sale of Canadian and foreign corporations, and $2.00 per unit of capital losses from the sale of foreign corporations. Therefore, its net capital gains are $12.25 per unit ($14.25 - $2.00), which it can distribute to its unitholders. The unitholders will only include 50% of the net capital gains in their taxable income, as per the inclusion rate for capital gains in Canada1. The other 50% is tax-free.

The other statements are false because:

A. Redwood cannot flow the foreign dividends to unitholders, who can then take advantage of the dividend gross-up and tax credit mechanism. This mechanism only applies to dividends received from Canadian corporations that are eligible for the enhanced dividend tax credit or the ordinary dividend tax credit2. Foreign dividends are treated as foreign income, and are subject to withholding tax by the source country and income tax by Canada3.

C. Redwood cannot distribute the $2.00 per unit of capital losses to unitholders, who can then use them to offset their capital gains. A mutual fund trust can only distribute its net income and net realized capital gains, not its capital losses4. However, a mutual fund trust can carry forward its capital losses indefinitely and use them to reduce its taxable capital gains in future years5.

D. Redwood does not pay the tax on foreign income, and it does distribute dividend or capital gains income from foreign sources to unitholders. A mutual fund trust pays tax on its foreign income only if it does not distribute it to its unitholders in the same year it is earned. However, most mutual fund trusts distribute all or most of their foreign income to their unitholders, as they want to avoid paying tax at the fund level and maintain their status as a mutual fund trust.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.3: Taxation of Mutual Funds, page 7-10

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.2: Taxation of Investment Income, page 7-4

Foreign Income - Canada.ca

Mutual Fund Trusts - Canada.ca

Capital Losses and Deductions - Canada.ca

Taxation of Foreign Income - IFSE Institute

Mutual Fund Trusts - IFSE Institute

The Corporation Group needs 5-year financing, without pledging assets (so not secured bonds).

Debentures are unsecured debt backed only by the issuer’s credit rating , meeting the requirement of not pledging assets.

They also want flexibility to repay early. Only callable debentures provide this feature since they allow the issuer to repay before maturity .

Convertible bonds (B) would dilute equity (which they want to avoid).

Commercial paper (C) and Treasury bills (D) are short-term instruments (under 1 year) , not suitable for 5-year financing.

✅ Therefore, the ideal choice is Callable Debentures.

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, capital gains distributions are the portion of the mutual fund trust’s net realized capital gains that are paid out to the unitholders. Capital gains distributions are not the same as capital gains from selling or redeeming units of the mutual fund trust, which are reported on a T5008 slip. Capital gains distributions are taxable in the year they are received, even if they are reinvested in additional units of the fund. The mutual fund trust will issue a T3 slip to report the amount and type of income that is allocated to each unitholder, including capital gains distributions. The unitholder must report this income on their tax return and pay tax on 50% of the capital gains distributions at their marginal tax rate.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Technical analysis is the method of evaluating securities by analyzing the statistics generated by market activity, such as past prices and volume. Technical analysts do not attempt to measure a security’s intrinsic value, but instead use charts and other tools to identify patterns that can suggest future activity. Xian-Li is using technical analysis to evaluate the companies in her portfolio.

Anchoring bias occurs when an investor fixates on a reference point (e.g., purchase price) and refuses to sell until the investment returns to that level, even if conditions have changed .

Julia anchors on $25.44, her purchase price, and won’t sell at $19.72.

Availability bias = reliance on recent/easy info.

Representativeness = stereotyping based on limited traits.

Hindsight bias = belief that past events were predictable.

Thus, Julia demonstrates Anchoring bias.

Strategic asset allocation involves selecting a long-term asset mix, monitoring it, and rebalancing as needed to maintain the desired allocation. The feedback from the document states:

"When a portfolio manager develops a strategy to maximize portfolio returns, he or she does so with a particular asset mix or allocation in mind… This base policy mix is called the strategic asset allocation. This is the long-term mix that will be adhered to by monitoring and, when necessary, rebalancing."

Explicit costs of operating a mutual fund include:

Management fees,

Operating expenses,

Custodial fees,

Record-keeping,

Marketing/distribution.

These costs are embedded in the MER (Management Expense Ratio) and are borne by the investors, as they reduce fund returns.

The manager (B) oversees operations but does not personally cover costs.

The sponsor (C) establishes the fund, and the distributor (D) sells units, but neither pays the ongoing operating costs.

A company’s retained earnings statement is a financial statement that shows how the company’s net income is distributed between dividends paid to shareholders and retained earnings, which are the amount of profit that is reinvested in the company. Retained earnings are part of the company’s equity, and they reflect the accumulated earnings that the company has generated over its history, minus any dividends or distributions. Retained earnings can be used by the company for various purposes, such as expanding its operations, developing new products, paying off debt, or buying back shares1

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 3: Equity Securities, Section 5.3.4: Financial Statements

According to the Closed-End Funds vs. Open-End Funds: What’s the Difference? - Investopedia, open-end funds are mutual funds that can issue an unlimited number of shares to investors. The number of units is not fixed, and varies with investor demand and redemption orders. Investors buy and sell open-end funds directly from the fund company at the net asset value (NAV) of the fund, which is calculated at the end of each trading day. Open-end funds are not traded on an exchange or in the secondary market.

Mutual fund orders placed after the market closes are processed using the next business day's net asset value per unit (NAVPU). Since Derek submitted his sell order at 8:00 p.m. EST on Friday, January 6 (after the close of the markets), his proceeds will be based on the NAVPU for Monday, January 9, the next business day.

Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that offer its shareholders the opportunity to receive additional dividends if the company’s profit exceeds a stated level. These dividends are paid in addition to the fixed dividends that are normally paid to preferred shareholders. Participating preferred shares allow shareholders to benefit from both fixed and variable income streams, depending on the company’s performance. References: Participating Preferred Stock Definition - Investopedia, Preferred Shares Explained | TD Direct Investing

The client mobility exemption is a provision in the National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations that allows a registered individual to continue dealing with a client who moves to another jurisdiction without having to register in that jurisdiction, subject to certain conditions. One of the conditions is that the individual must not have more than five clients in each of the other jurisdictions where they are not registered. Therefore, the client mobility exemption would apply to Lori’s situation, as she has five or fewer clients in Alberta, where she is not registered. The client mobility exemption would not apply to the other situations, as they do not meet the conditions for the exemption. For example, Olaf’s mutual fund dealer is not registered in New Brunswick, which is a requirement for the exemption. Sigrid’s brother-in-law is not an existing client who moved to another jurisdiction, but a new client who resides in a different jurisdiction. Karl has more than five clients in British Columbia, where he is not registered, which exceeds the limit for the exemption.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 1: The Canadian Financial Services Industry1

 According to the What Is a Call Option and How to Use It With Example - Investopedia, a call option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy an underlying stock at a specified price (the strike price) within a specified time period (the expiration date). The seller of a call option is obligated to sell the stock if the buyer exercises the option. Pierre buys a call option on a stock, which means he has the right to buy the stock if he exercises the option. He can also choose not to exercise the option or sell it before expiration.

Long transactions involve buying a security with the expectation that its price will increase, while short transactions involve borrowing and selling a security with the hope of buying it back at a lower price. The feedback from the document states:

"Short transactions are a common feature of the capital markets, although not as common as long transactions – the transactions taken by investors who anticipate a price increase in the security. Investors who short sell stocks must first borrow the shares. They must also declare their short transactions."

The element of the Know Your Client (KYC) information that Malik has been able to learn is Charlotte’s risk preference. KYC information is a collection of personal and financial information that registered firms and individuals must obtain from their clients before providing any investment advice or services. KYC information helps registered firms and individuals understand their clients’ needs, goals, risk tolerance, time horizon, and personal circumstances, as well as comply with regulatory obligations such as suitability, disclosure, and reporting. One of the components of KYC information is risk preference, which is a measure of how much risk an investor is willing to take on in their portfolio. It reflects the investor’s attitude, personality, and emotional factors that influence their investment decisions. Risk preference can be classified into three categories: risk-seeking, risk-averse, or risk-neutral. Based on Charlotte’s statement that she does not know much about trading ETFs, but she wants to invest in ETFs, and that she feels fortunate to have this money and that she’s not worried about losing it because she never planned on having any of it, Malik can infer that Charlotte has a high-risk preference or a risk-seeking attitude. This means that Charlotte is willing to take on more risk in exchange for higher potential returns, even if it means losing some or all of her money. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what element of KYC information Malik has been able to learn. The other options are not correct regarding what element of KYC information Malik has been able to learn. Option A is false because risk profile is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is an outcome of KYC information that summarizes the investor’s overall suitability for different types of investments based on their KYC information. Option B is false because risk capacity is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is a measure of how much risk an investor can afford to take on in their portfolio based on their financial situation and goals. Option D is false because risk tolerance is not an element of KYC information; rather, it is a measure of how much risk an investor can handle in their portfolio without losing sleep or changing their plans. References: [Know Your Client (KYC) | IFIC], [Know Your Client (KYC) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Risk Preference | Investopedia]

Your client, James, would like to work beyond the normal retirement age. He comes to you for advice on his registered retirement savings plan (RRSP). What are the rules regarding terminating an RRSP?

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 65.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 67.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 70.

James must terminate the plan by the end of the year he turns 71.

Answer: D

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, an RRSP is a retirement savings plan that allows individuals to defer taxes on their contributions and investment income until they withdraw the funds. However, an RRSP cannot be held indefinitely and must be terminated by the end of the year the annuitant turns 71. At that point, the annuitant has three options to withdraw the funds from the RRSP:

Make a lump-sum withdrawal, which is subject to withholding tax and income tax.

Convert the RRSP to a registered retirement income fund (RRIF), which provides a steady stream of income with a minimum amount that must be withdrawn each year.

Purchase an annuity, which offers a guaranteed income for life or for a specified period.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

A T3 or T5 slip reporting a capital gain is issued when an investor sells their mutual fund units at a profit, not when the fund itself realizes gains. The feedback from the document states:

"In the normal course of portfolio management, shares are bought and sold either at a gain or at a loss for the fund. By the end of the year, many funds will have generated net capital gains on their portfolio transactions. The capital gains are distributed in the form of a capital gains dividend reported on a T5 or T3." However, for the investor, the correct answer is A, as clarified by standard tax rules: capital gains are realized by the investor upon selling units at a price higher than their average cost.

Financial circumstances are a critical component of the Know Your Client (KYC) process, as they determine the client’s ability to commit savings to investments and the level of risk they can assume. Mortgage documents provide insights into the client’s debt and obligations, which are essential for assessing financial circumstances. The feedback from the document states:

"Financial circumstances are an important consideration in judging the suitability of investments, because they determine the amount of savings clients can commit to investing and the level of risk they can assume. Marc’s client’s mortgage document will give Marc valuable insights into the level of debt and mortgage obligations his client has, helping in evaluating the client’s financial circumstances."

Promising that a mutual fund’s NAVPU will increase by a certain amount is an illegal and unacceptable selling practice, as it implies guaranteed future performance. The feedback from the document states:

"There are a number of sales practices that are clearly illegal or otherwise unacceptable to securities regulators. A dealing representative may not make promises that the NAVPS or NAVPU of a fund will achieve a certain level or increase by any amount."

The correct answer is B. When legally required by the government or by law. Under privacy legislation discussed in Investment Funds in Canada, including PIPEDA, confidential client information may only be disclosed without consent when disclosure is legally required, such as in response to court orders, law enforcement investigations, or regulatory obligations under legislation like AML or FINTRAC rules.

Referrals to specialists require client consent, documentation alone does not remove the consent requirement, and regulatory organizations typically obtain information through the dealer, not directly from representatives without due process.

The CIFC curriculum clearly states that privacy obligations are fundamental and exceptions are narrow and law-based. Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.

 C is correct because bond funds receive fixed interest payments from most of their investments, as they invest mainly in bonds and other fixed-income securities that pay a regular coupon rate. Dividend funds receive variable dividend payments from most of their investments, as they invest mainly in stocks and other equity securities that pay dividends based on the company’s earnings and policies. The return of dividend funds does not rely only on interest rates (A), but also on other factors such as stock prices, earnings growth, dividend yield, and dividend payout ratio. The return of bond funds also depends on interest rates, as well as other factors such as credit quality, maturity, duration, and yield curve. When interest rates rise, the NAVPU of both bond funds and dividend funds decreases (B), not rises, as it lowers the present value of their future cash flows. Bond fund distributions do not receive more favorable tax treatment than that of dividend funds (D), but rather less favorable, as interest income is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate while eligible dividends receive a dividend tax credit that reduces their taxable amount.

The correct answer is D. Specialty. According to the Investment Funds in Canada course, specialty funds focus on a specific sector, theme, or investment mandate. Funds that concentrate on areas such as technology, healthcare, precious metals, or electric vehicles fall into this category.

An electric vehicles fund invests in a narrow, theme-based segment of the global equity market rather than following a broad market or traditional growth mandate. The CIFC text notes that specialty funds typically involve higher risk due to limited diversification but may offer higher return potential.

Standard and growth funds are broadly diversified, while resource funds focus specifically on natural resources such as energy or mining. EV-focused investing extends beyond traditional resource classification.

The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) is a federal law that imposes requirements on the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information by organizations in the private sector that are subject to federal regulation, such as banks, telecommunications, transportation, and broadcasting. PIPEDA also applies to organizations that operate in provinces or territories that do not have substantially similar privacy legislation, such as Alberta, British Columbia, and Québec. PIPEDA does not apply to consumers, departments and agencies of the Government of Canada, or departments and agencies of provincial governments, as they are governed by other privacy laws or regulations12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7: The Regulatory Environment, Lesson 3: Privacy Legislation, Section 7.3.1: Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) 1; Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada website

 B is correct because assessing historical differences in the rate of return per unit of risk of similar mutual funds helps a Dealing Representative to compare the performance and risk-adjusted returns of different mutual funds and select the most suitable one for a client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives. Comparing historical rates of return between different types of mutual funds (A) does not account for the risk involved in each type of fund. Referencing the fund code for each mutual fund that is being compared © does not provide any information about the fund’s characteristics, features, or suitability. The rights a client has if there is a desire to cancel the purchased mutual fund (D) are not relevant for determining a suitable mutual fund for a client.

Dale is using his mutual fund portfolio for income, is comfortable with variable payouts, and accepts market fluctuations.

A ratio withdrawal plan pays out a fixed percentage of the fund’s value each year. Since the percentage is applied to a fluctuating fund value, the payouts vary with market performance. This makes it suitable for investors who can tolerate variability.

In contrast:

Life withdrawal plans and annuities provide more predictable income.

Fixed-period plans are designed to exhaust the investment over a set period, which may not align with Dale’s needs.

Thus, the best option is the Ratio withdrawal plan, which matches Dale’s comfort with variable payouts and fluctuating markets.

An individual can legally sell mutual funds only after receiving notification of registration from the securities administrator, not merely after completing exams or filing applications. The feedback from the document states:

"Despite receiving notification of successful completion of the required proficiency examination, filing a registration application and paying the required fee, an individual is not officially registered to sell mutual funds until notice has been received from the applicable securities administrator."

Eligible Canadian dividends are grossed up by 38% and then receive a federal dividend tax credit of 15.02% of the taxable amount.

For Nancy’s $160 dividend:

Grossed-up amount = $160 × 1.38 = $220.80

Federal dividend tax credit = 15.02% × $220.80 = $33.15

Thus, Nancy will receive a dividend tax credit of approximately $33.

Bonds are primarily traded in dealer markets (over-the-counter - OTC) rather than in organized auction exchanges like the major stock exchanges. In a dealer market, multiple dealers post prices at which they are willing to buy or sell securities, providing liquidity and making a profit from the bid-ask spread. The U.S. government bond market, for example, is a large over-the-counter dealer market. 

For a spousal RRSP, KYC information is required only for the account holder (the wife) and those with trading authority, not the contributing spouse (the husband), who has no financial interest in the account. The feedback from the document states:

"The investment experience and knowledge of all individuals who have trading authority over the account should be obtained, as well as KYC information for anyone with a financial interest in the account. For spousal RRSPs, the contributing spouse does not have a financial interest in the account, so KYC information is required for the non-contributing spouse only."

In a deflationary environment, prices of goods and services fall. This leads to:

Lower corporate profits (as companies sell at lower prices)

Lower interest rates (to stimulate borrowing)

But personal savings increase because consumers delay purchases expecting lower future prices.

Therefore, the correct answer is Personal savings.

This account/transaction is unsuitable because it does not match Gilles’ investment needs and objectives, risk profile, and capacity for loss. A leverage strategy involves borrowing money to invest in mutual funds, which increases the potential returns but also the potential losses. This strategy is very risky and requires a high risk tolerance, a long-term investment horizon, and a sufficient income to cover the interest payments. Gilles is 82 years old, retired, and needs regular income, which means he has a low risk tolerance, a short-term investment horizon, and a limited income. He cannot afford to lose his principal or pay the interest costs. Therefore, a leverage strategy is not appropriate for him.

References = IFSE CIFC Module 3: Investment Products, page 3-24. What is Suitability? | MFDAMSN-0069 | MFDA

A rational investor seeks to maximize return for a given level of risk or minimize risk for a given level of return. The feedback from the document states:

"Given a choice between two investments with the same amount of risk, a rational investor would always take the security with the higher return. Given two investments with the same expected return, the investor would always choose the security with the lower risk. Investors are risk averse, but not all to the same degree. Each investor has a different risk profile."

A fixed-period systematic withdrawal plan (SWP) is specifically designed for investors who need income over a defined time frame, making Option C the correct choice. The Investment Funds in Canada course explains that fixed-period plans “provide regular withdrawals over a specified number of years, after which the fund is depleted.”

Samantha’s income requirement is temporary—she needs income for five years (ages 60 to 65) until her pension benefits begin. A fixed-period SWP ensures that withdrawals are structured to exhaust or significantly reduce the investment precisely at the end of that period, aligning perfectly with her objective.

A life SWP (Option B) is intended to provide income for an unknown duration and does not match Samantha’s defined timeframe. A constant SWP focuses on maintaining consistent withdrawal amounts indefinitely, which may result in premature depletion or excess capital. A ratio SWP adjusts withdrawals based on portfolio value and does not guarantee coverage for a specific period.

The CIFC text stresses that withdrawal strategies must align with time horizon and income needs, both of which clearly point to a fixed-period plan in this case. Therefore, Option C is fully correct and CIFC-verified.

A nominee name account is a type of account where the dealer, not the client, is the registered owner of the mutual funds held in the account. The dealer holds the funds in trust for the client and acts as the nominee for the client. The client is the beneficial owner of the funds and retains all the rights and benefits associated with the ownership. The dealer is responsible for maintaining the records of the client’s transactions and holdings, and for providing the client with confirmations, statements, and tax slips.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 8: Mutual Fund Administration, Lesson 1: Account Registration, Section 8.1.2: Nominee Name Accounts1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 8: Mutual Fund Administration, Question 8.1.2 2

The original capital contributed to a Registered Educational Savings Plan (RESP) is not taxed upon withdrawal, while other amounts, such as income or grants, are taxable to the beneficiary. The feedback from the document states:

"The original capital withdrawn from an RESP is not taxed; all other amounts are taxed in the hands of the beneficiary."

Interest rate risk is the primary risk for fixed-income securities, as their value decreases when interest rates rise due to fixed cash flows. The feedback from the document states:

"Interest rate risk is the fundamental risk factor for fixed-income securities such as bonds, mortgages and preferred shares. As interest rates move up, the value of a fixed-income security falls. This is because the cash flow from the fixed-income security is fixed."

Foreign dividend income is taxed at the investor’s marginal tax rate without the benefit of a dividend tax credit, unlike Canadian dividend income, which qualifies for a tax credit. The feedback from the document states:

"Foreign dividend income is not eligible for any dividend tax credit, and is taxed at an investor’s marginal tax rate."

To convert the proceeds from USD to CAD, Frederic needs to divide the amount in USD by the exchange rate. The exchange rate is $1 CAD for $0.99 USD, which means that $0.99 USD is equivalent to $1 CAD. Therefore, Frederic will receive

A math problem with numbers AI-generated content may be incorrect.

CAD in Canadian dollars.

Kerry’s taxable income would be $98,000 ($100,000 - $2,000). Using the federal tax rates provided in the image, the first $48,535 of her income would be taxed at 15%, the next $48,534 at 20.5%, and the remaining $931 at 26%. This would result in a total federal tax payable of $18,754. You can see the calculation in detail below:

Taxable Income

Marginal Tax Rate

Federal Tax Payable

$0 - $48,535

15%

$7,280.25

$48,536 - $97,069

20.5%

$9,934.47

$97,070 - $98,000

26%

$539.80

Total

$18,754.52

Note: The final answer is rounded to the closest whole dollar.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 8, Section 8.2; [4]

The correct answer is D. Compliance conduct. The Investment Funds in Canada course distinguishes between ethical principles and standards of conduct, noting that compliance conduct governs how dealing representatives must act when processing trades, including unsolicited client orders.

Compliance conduct ensures that all regulatory requirements, internal policies, documentation standards, and supervisory rules are followed when executing a transaction. For unsolicited orders, this includes properly recording the order as client-initiated, ensuring suitability concerns are addressed, and maintaining appropriate documentation to demonstrate regulatory compliance.

While duty of care reflects a broader ethical obligation and integrity focuses on honesty, compliance conduct specifically addresses procedural and regulatory responsibilities, which are critical when handling unsolicited trades. Professionalism is a general behavioural expectation but does not specifically govern order handling.

The CIFC curriculum stresses that unsolicited orders must still meet regulatory standards, and representatives must follow compliance rules to protect both the client and the firm. Therefore, Option D is the correct and fully CIFC-aligned answer.

A mutual fund trust structure allows the fund to avoid taxation by distributing its income to unitholders. The feedback from the document states:

"The most common structure for mutual funds in Canada is the open-end trust. The trust structure allows a fund itself to avoid taxation. Any interest, dividends and capital gains income, net of the fund’s fees, expenses and capital losses, if passed to its unitholders each calendar year, will allow the trust to avoid being taxed on its income."

A flat benefit plan is straightforward, provides retirement income based solely on years of service, and is not influenced by participants’ income levels, making it ideal for the employer’s requirements. The feedback from the document states:

"The flat benefit plan is simple to understand, provides a retirement income based solely on years of service, and is not affected by plan members’ individual incomes."

The correct answer is D. If Jacinta shares the list with Saabir without obtaining the clients’ prior consent, she will be in breach of the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA).

PIPEDA is the federal privacy law for private-sector organizations in Canada. It sets out the ground rules for how businesses must handle personal information in the course of their commercial activity. One of the key principles of PIPEDA is consent. This means that organizations must obtain meaningful consent from individuals before collecting, using, or disclosing their personal information, unless an exception applies. Consent must be obtained for the original purpose of collecting the information, and for any new purpose that arises later. Consent can be express or implied, depending on the sensitivity of the information and the reasonable expectations of the individual.

In this scenario, Jacinta’s clients’ personal information is sensitive, as it relates to their financial situation and investment goals. Jacinta’s clients would not reasonably expect that their information would be shared with Saabir, who is not affiliated with WealthSource Partners Inc., for the purpose of marketing insurance products. Therefore, Jacinta must obtain express consent from her clients before disclosing their information to Saabir. If she does not, she will violate PIPEDA and risk legal action from her clients or from the Office of the Privacy Commissioner (OPC).

When opening a new non-registered account, the Know Your Client (KYC) rule requires collecting information such as:

personal and financial circumstances,

investment knowledge,

investment objectives,

risk profile, and

time horizon.

The Social Insurance Number (SIN) is mandatory only for registered accounts (RRSP, TFSA, RESP, etc.) to track tax-related reporting, but it is optional for non-registered accounts.

Thus, the correct answer is A. Social insurance number.

Mortgage funds have lower interest rate sensitivity than bond funds because mortgage rates change less frequently, and interest is paid monthly rather than semi-annually, reducing the impact of rate changes. The feedback from the document states:

"Interest rate sensitivity is expected to be lower for mortgage funds than for bond funds for two reasons. First, mortgage rates change much less frequently than interest rates on bonds… Second, mortgages by nature have less interest rate risk than bonds. The reason, in part, is that interest on mortgages is paid monthly, while interest on bonds is paid semi-annually."

Factors that increase a mutual fund’s management expense ratio (MER) include investing in foreign equities and paying trailer fees, as these add to operational costs. The feedback from the document states:

"Four factors primarily affect the management expense ratio. Funds that invest in foreign equities; are small in size; are managed by an outside specialist firm; and charge trailer fees will have higher management expense ratios."