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IIA-ACCA ACCA CIA Challenge Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A chief audit executive (CAE) is reviewing the internal audit activity ' s performance and is concerned that the average number of revisions to findings is steadily rising, making it increasingly difficult to trace the finding to the supporting evidence and workpapers. According to MA guidance, which of the following elements of the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program would provide the CAE with the most helpful insight into the cause of this problem?

Options:

A.

The overall effectiveness of the internal audit activity ' s periodic self assessments.

B.

The type of audit productivity and performance statistics reported.

C.

The adequacy of the day-to-day supervision and review process.

D.

The scope and frequency of external assessments.

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Questions 5

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The IIA ' s mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer.

B.

The board seeks senior management ' s recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit activity.

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline.

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Questions 6

Which of the following is a product-oriented definition of a business rather than a market-oriented definition of a business?

Options:

A.

We are a people-and-goods mover.

B.

We supply energy.

C.

We make movies.

D.

We provide climate control in the home.

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Questions 7

Which of the following borrowing options is an unsecured loan?

Options:

A.

Second-mortgage financing from a bank.

B.

An issue of commercial paper.

C.

Pledged accounts receivable.

D.

Asset-based financing.

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Questions 8

Which of the following distinguishes the added-value negotiation method from traditional negotiating methods?

Options:

A.

Each party ' s negotiator presents a menu of options to the other party.

B.

Each party adopts one initial position from which to start.

C.

Each negotiator minimizes the information provided to the other party.

D.

Each negotiator starts with an offer, which is optimal from the negotiator ' s perspective.

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Questions 9

A headquarters-based internal auditor has been sent to a major overseas subsidiary to conduct various engagements. Initially, the internal auditor spends time to become familiar with local customs and organization ' s practices while embarking on the first engagement. Which of the following competencies does the internal auditor exercise?

Options:

A.

Communication.

B.

Persuasion and collaboration.

C.

Business acumen.

D.

Governance, risk, and control.

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Questions 10

During an audit, the client questions the internal audit activity ' s authority to perform procedures over fraud allegations. According to HA guidance, which of the following would provide the most relevant support to respond to the client ' s concerns?

Options:

A.

Definition of Internal Auditing.

B.

MA Standards.

C.

Internal audit charter.

D.

The IIA ' s Code of Ethics.

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Questions 11

Which of the following actions would be characterized as a preventive control to safeguard inventory from the risk of theft?

1. Locking doors and physically securing inventory items.

2. Independently observing the receipt of materials.

3. Conducting monthly inventory counts.

4. Requiring the use of employee ID badges at all times.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 12

Which of the following factors have the greatest influence on the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Quality assessments and cultural biases of the internal audit activity.

B.

Rotational assignments and familiarity of the internal audit activity.

C.

Employee incentives and self review of the internal audit activity.

D.

Organizational positioning and scope control of the internal audit activity.

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Questions 13

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of results from an external quality assessment of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The external assessment results are reported upon completion in confidence directly to the board, and senior management is advised only of the recommendations and improvement action plans.

B.

The results of self-assessments with independent external validation are shared with the board upon completion, and monitoring of recommended improvements must be reported monthly.

C.

The external assessment results are communicated upon completion to senior management and the board, but action plans for recommended improvements do not have to be reported.

D.

The requirements for reporting quality assessment results are the same for external assessments and self-assessments with independent external validation.

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Questions 14

Which of the following factors should be considered when determining the appropriate combination of manual techniques and computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs) to be used during an audit?

1. Acceptance of CAATs findings by entity management.

2. Computer knowledge and expertise of the auditor.

3. Time constraints.

4. Level of audit risk.

Options:

A.

1 and 4

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 15

Which of the following statements accurately describes one of the characteristics that distinguishes a multinational company from a domestic company?

Options:

A.

A multinational company has stockholders in other countries.

B.

A multinational company exports its products to other countries.

C.

A multinational company operates outside of its country of origin.

D.

A multinational company uses raw materials and components from more than one country.

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Questions 16

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the best first step to manage risk when a third party is overseeing the organization ' s network and data?

Options:

A.

Creating a comprehensive reporting system for vendors to demonstrate their ongoing due diligence in network operations

B.

Drafting a strong contract that requires regular vendor control reports and a right-to-audit clause.

C.

Applying administrative privileges to ensure right-to-access controls are appropriate

D.

Creating a standing cybersecurity committee to identify and manage risks related to data security

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Questions 17

Which of the following options is the most cost-effective and efficient way for internal auditors to keep current with the latest developments in the internal audit profession?

Options:

A.

Attending annual professional conferences and seminars.

B.

Participating in on-the-job training in various departments of the organization.

C.

Pursuing as many professional certifications as possible.

D.

Maintaining membership in The HA and similar professional organizations and subscribing to relevant email updates or news feeds.

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Questions 18

A large trucking organization wants to reduce traffic accidents by improving its system of internal controls.

Which of the following controls is correctly classified?

1. Review of speeding violations to identify repetitive locations and drivers is an example of a preventive control.

2. Defensive driver training is an example of a directive control.

3. The installation of tracking devices in delivery vehicles is an example of a corrective control.

4. Providing a vehicle driver handbook is an example of a detective control.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is a requirement for an assurance engagement that may not be for a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity has to ensure team members ' objectivity is not impaired.

B.

Auditors cannot participate in an assurance engagement of a function for which they previously performed a consulting engagement.

C.

The scope and objective of the engagement is agreed upon based on the engagement client ' s needs.

D.

The internal audit activity must ensure management actions have been implemented effectively or risk accepted.

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Questions 20

According to IIA guidance, which of the following scenarios demonstrates an internal auditor exercising due professional care?

When auditing investments, the auditor identified instruments with which he was unfamiliar. He decided not to select that type of investment in his sample, as he did not have the knowledge needed to A. perform a proper assessment.

B. An auditor was reviewing inventory counts conducted by the warehouse staff. One truck containing an immaterial amount of inventory was off-site and wasn ' t verified by the auditor.

C. An auditor visited a plant that produces a significant portion of the organization ' s inventory. The day he arrived, the plant manager was out sick, so the auditor issued the report without interviewing the manager.

D. An auditor in charge needed to have testing completed by the end of the month, but was behind schedule. He identified a junior auditor to conduct the work for him on a complex area of the organization.

Options:

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Questions 21

What is the purpose of a secondary control?

Options:

A.

It replaces primary controls that are either ineffective or cannot fully mitigate a risk.

B.

It partially reduces the residual risk level when a key control does not operate effectively.

C.

lt combines with other controls to help reduce significant risk exposures to an acceptable level.

D.

It helps to ensure the completeness and accuracy of automated controls in a system environment.

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Questions 22

Which of the following statements best describes the frameworks set forth by the International Standards Organization?

Options:

A.

Globally accepted standards for industries and processes.

B.

Bridging the gaps among control requirements, technical issues, and business risks.

C.

Practical guidance and benchmarks for all organizations that use information systems.

D.

Frameworks and guidance on enterprise risk management, internal control, and fraud deterrence.

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Questions 23

Which of the following does not provide operational assurance that a computer system is operating properly?

Options:

A.

Performing a system audit.

B.

Making system changes.

C.

Testing policy compliance.

D.

Conducting system monitoring.

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Questions 24

When an organization is choosing a new external auditor, which of the following is the most appropriate role for the chief audit executive to undertake?

Options:

A.

Review and acquire the external audit service.

B.

Assess the appraisal and actuarial services.

C.

Determine the selection criteria.

D.

Identify regulatory requirements to be considered.

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Questions 25

Which of the following is a major advantage of decentralized organizations, compared to centralized organizations?

Options:

A.

Decentralized organizations are more focused on organizational goals.

B.

Decentralized organizations streamline organizational structure.

C.

Decentralized organizations tend to be less expensive to operate.

D.

Decentralized organizations tend to be more responsive to market changes.

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Questions 26

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care by considering which of the following?

1. Cost of assurance in relation to potential benefits.

2. Adequacy and effectiveness of governance, risk management, and control processes.

3. Management ' s competency level in the area being evaluated.

4. Probability of significant errors, fraud, or noncompliance.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1, 2, and 3 only

C.

1, 2, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 27

Sometimes, internal audit staff may partner with operating managers to rank risks. Which of the following outcomes may be the most beneficial aspects of this strategy?

1. Reappraising risks levels.

2. Providing accurate information to management.

3. Marketing the internal audit activity.

4. Planning safeguards for assets in high-risk areas.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 28

Which of the following is most likely to function as a directive control?

Options:

A.

Security dogs.

B.

Alert employees.

C.

Insurance claims.

D.

Cycle counts.

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Questions 29

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a formal risk management framework?

1. It facilitates a methodical approach to risk mitigation.

2. It defines and standardizes the terminology used in risk communication.

3. It establishes the risk tolerance levels to be accommodated in the strategy.

4. It facilitates the alignment of risk mitigation strategies with management priorities.

Options:

A.

1.2, and 3.

B.

1,2, and 4.

C.

1.3, and 4.

D.

2. 3, and 4.

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Questions 30

Faced with a complex, highly technical construction audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) considered complementing the current internal audit resources by engaging the services of a civil engineer.

Which of the following should the CAE consider in determining whether the engineer possesses the necessary skills to perform the engagement?

1. Professional certification, license, or other recognition of the engineer ' s competence in the relevant discipline.

2. Experience of the engineer in the type of work being considered.

3. Compensation or other incentives that the engineer may receive.

4. The extent of other ongoing services that the engineer may be performing for the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

3 and 4 only

D.

1, 2, and 4 only

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Questions 31

The security department uncovered what appears to be a complex fraud in the accounting department. The CEO has requested the internal audit activity to investigate the fraud. If the internal audit staff lacks the expertise to conduct the investigation, how should the chief audit executive proceed?

Options:

A.

Disclose the deficiency, and request that the investigation be reassigned to the first line of defense.

B.

Proceed with the investigation, as internal auditors are not required to have fraud expertise.

C.

Outsource the sensitive investigation to a third-party consultant with fraud expertise.

D.

Select a member of the accounting department who is not involved in the fraud to join the investigation team in a consulting capacity.

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Questions 32

According to The MA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework, which of the following areas of training would best assist the internal audit activity in improving its use of tools and techniques?

Options:

A.

Negotiation and conflict resolution.

B.

Project management.

C.

Financial accounting.

D.

Ethics and fraud.

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Questions 33

Evidence discovered during the course of an engagement suggests that multiple incidents of fraud have occurred. There do not appear to be sufficient controls in place to prevent reoccurrence. Which of the following is the internal auditor ' s most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify management of the area under review and the other internal auditors involved in the engagement.

B.

Discuss the situation with the engagement supervisor to determine whether fraud investigation experts are required to investigate the matter properly.

C.

Fully document in the workpapers the evidence that has been discovered and recommend appropriate controls to address the fraud.

D.

Provide the evidence that was discovered to local law enforcement for possible prosecution of the suspected fraud.

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Questions 34

An internal audit charter, approved by the board, restricts the internal audit activity to providing assurance only on the reliability of financial information and the effectiveness of internal accounting controls. Which of the following statements is true regarding the extent to which the external auditor may rely on the internal audit activity ' s work?

Options:

A.

The external auditor may make full use of the work, as the audit charter is very specific as to the work the internal audit activity may undertake.

B.

The external auditor may use the work, as the board has approved the charter, thus taking responsibility for any deficiencies.

C.

The external auditor must disregard the work, as the scope of the charter may introduce bias and result in a lack of due professional care.

D.

The external auditor may use the work with caution, due to the internal audit activity ' s scope and responsibility restrictions.

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Questions 35

An auditor identifies three errors in the sample of 25 entries selected for review (a 12 percent error rate). Based on this result, the auditor assumes that approximately 59 of the total population of 492 entries are incorrect. To reach this assumption, the auditor has used a technique known as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Variability tolerance.

B.

Ratio estimation.

C.

Stratification.

D.

Acceptance sampling.

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Questions 36

Which of the following is a detective control strategy against fraud?

Options:

A.

Requiring employees to attend ethics training.

B.

Performing background checks on employees.

C.

Implementing a control self-assessment.

D.

Performing a surprise audit.

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Questions 37

An organization decides to take no action on one of its financial risks because the cost of implementing the control outweighs the value of the asset being protected. Which of the following best describes this risk strategy?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance.

B.

Risk-benefit analysis.

C.

Risk sharing.

D.

Risk acceptance.

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Questions 38

An internal auditor wants to sample data to test an audit theory in a cost-effective way. Which of the following sampling strategies should she use?

Options:

A.

Statistical sampling only

B.

Nonstatistical sampling only

C.

A combination of both statistical and nonstatistical sampling.

D.

Neither approach to testing the audit theory would be cost effective.

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Questions 39

Forty-five percent of an organization ' s customer payments are submitted online. Eight percent of online payments are rejected. Executive management decides to outsource its online payment services to a contractor that will assume 75 percent of the total value of rejected payments. The organization estimates $1.25 million customer payments due during the contract period.

Which of the following represents the organization ' s residual risk for online customer payments due?

Options:

A.

$11, 250

B.

$25, 000

C.

$33, 750

D.

$45, 000

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Questions 40

According to the COSO enterprise risk management (ERM) framework, which of the following is not part of the new paradigm in ERM?

Options:

A.

Assessing the risk factors.

B.

Aligning risk appetite and strategy.

C.

Enhancing risk response decisions.

D.

Reducing operational surprises and losses.

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Questions 41

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

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Questions 42

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 43

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

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Questions 44

The internal audit activity (IAA) wants to measure its performance related to the quality of audit recommendations. Which of the following client survey questions would best help the IAA meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Were audit findings relevant and useful to management?

B.

Does the audit report format present issues clearly and concisely?

C.

Does the IAA work with a high degree of professionalism and objectivity?

D.

Were the findings reported in a timely manner?

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Questions 45

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

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Questions 46

Due to price risk from the foreign currency purchase of aviation fuel, an airliner has purchased forward contracts to hedge against fluctuations in the exchange rate. When recalculating the exchange losses from individual purchases of jet fuel, which of the following details does the internal auditor need to validate?

1. The hedge documentation designating the hedge.

2. The spot exchange rate on the transaction date.

3. The terms of the forward contract.

4. The amount of fuel purchased.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 47

A former line supervisor from the Financial Services Department has completed six months of a two-year development opportunity with the internal audit activity (IAA). She is assigned to a team that will audit the organization ' s payroll function, which is managed by the Human Resources Department. Which of the following statements is most relevant regarding her independence and objectivity with respect to the payroll audit?

Options:

A.

She may participate, but only after she has completed one year with the IAA.

B.

She may participate, because she did not previously work in the Human Resources Department.

C.

She may participate, but she must be supervised by the auditor in charge.

D.

She may participate for training purposes, to build her knowledge of the IAA.

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Questions 48

The manager for an organization ' s accounts payable department resigned her post in that capacity. Three months later, she was recruited to the internal audit activity and has been working with the audit team for the last eight months. Which of the following assignments would the newly hired internal auditor be able to execute without any impairments to independence or objectivity?

Options:

A.

An operations audit of the accounts payable department.

B.

A consulting engagement related to a new accounts payable optimization initiative.

C.

A review of the employees ' sports club finances, which are overseen by the chief audit executive.

D.

An assurance review for a sales program on which she previously provided consultation.

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Questions 49

An internal auditor is evaluating techniques management uses to mitigate risks within a particular product division. Which of the following is an example of risk reduction?

Options:

A.

Management sells the product division to a competitor.

B.

Management outsources the product division to a third party.

C.

Management allows the product division to remain unchanged.

D.

Management modifies the product division to minimize errors.

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Questions 50

An internal auditor uses a predefined macro provided in a popular spreadsheet application to verify the present value of the organization ' s investments. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action regarding the auditor ' s use of this functionality?

Options:

A.

The auditor should accept the calculations generated by the function, as any further work or documentation would be inefficient.

B.

The auditor should perform a manual recalculation of several results to validate and document the results.

C.

The auditor should review the programming of the macro before its use to ensure that it is appropriate for the required calculations.

D.

The auditor should tabulate the results in the spreadsheet to ensure the macro has generated the correct results for all calculations.

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Questions 51

Which of the following are generally recognized as essential elements of a corporate social responsibility program?

Options:

A.

Human rights and the environment.

B.

Organizational governance and financial reporting.

C.

Fair operating practices and government regulation.

D.

Consumer issues and return on investment.

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Questions 52

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management ' s responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 53

An internal auditor has been assigned to facilitate a risk and control self-assessment for the finance group. Which of the following is the most appropriate role that she should assume when facilitating the workshop?

Options:

A.

Express an opinion on the participants ' inputs and conclusions as the assessment progresses.

B.

Provide appropriate techniques and guidelines on how the exercise should be undertaken.

C.

Evaluate and report on all issues that may be uncovered during the exercise.

D.

Screen and vet participants so that the most appropriate candidates are selected to participate in the exercise.

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Questions 54

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization ' s strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 55

Which of the followings statements describes a best practice regarding assurance engagement communication activities?

Options:

A.

All assurance engagement observations should be communicated to the audit committee.

B.

All assurance engagement observations should be included in the main section of the engagement communication.

C.

During the " communicate " phase of an assurance engagement, it is best to define the methods and timing of engagement communications.

D.

A detailed escalation process should be developed during the planning stage of an assurance engagement.

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Questions 56

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 57

An internal auditor notes that employees continue to violate segregation-of-duty controls in several areas of the finance department, despite previous audit recommendations. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional segregation-of-duty reviews.

B.

Recommend appropriate awareness training for all finance department staff.

C.

Recommend rotating finance staff in this area.

D.

Recommend that management address these concerns immediately.

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Questions 58

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor ' s review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Questions 59

A manufacturer is under contract to produce and deliver a number of aircraft to a major airline. As part of the contract, the manufacturer is also providing training to the airline ' s pilots. At the time of the audit, the delivery of the aircraft had fallen substantially behind schedule while the training had already been completed. If half of the aircraft under contract have been delivered, which of the following should the internal auditor expect to be accounted for in the general ledger?

Options:

A.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

B.

All completed training costs, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

C.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and 50% of contracted production costs.

D.

All completed training costs, and 50% of the contracted production costs.

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Questions 60

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 61

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

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Questions 62

Given the highly technical and legal nature of privacy issues, which of the following statements best describes the internal audit activity ' s responsibility with regard to assessing an organization ' s privacy framework?

Options:

A.

If an organization does not have a mature privacy framework, the internal audit activity should assist in developing and implementing an appropriate privacy framework.

B.

Because the audit committee is ultimately responsible for ensuring that appropriate control processes are in place to mitigate risks associated with personal information, the internal audit activity is C. required to conduct privacy assessments.

C.

The internal audit activity may delegate to nonaudit IT specialists the responsibility of determining whether personal information has been secured adequately and data protection controls are sufficient.

D.

The internal audit activity should have appropriate knowledge and competence to conduct an asses .......framework.

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Questions 63

Which of the following items should the chief audit executive disclose to senior management regarding the results of the internal audit activity ' s quality assessments?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity ' s plan for resource allocation.

B.

The amount of the organization ' s potential loss prevented by the risk-based auditing of the internal audit activity.

C.

The number of audits from the annual internal audit plan that were completed last year.

D.

The qualifications and independence of the assessment Team.

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Questions 64

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

Options:

A.

The last available risk assessment.

B.

Requests from senior management and the board.

C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.

D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.

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Questions 65

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate actions for the chief audit executive regarding management ' s response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate and verify management ' s response, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

B.

Evaluate and verify management ' s response, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

C.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

D.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

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Questions 66

Which of the following is most likely to enhance an internal auditor ' s objectivity?

Options:

A.

An auditor is appropriately able to communicate results.

B.

An auditor performs his work free from interference.

C.

An auditor is unrestricted in determination of scope.

D.

An auditor avoids conflicts of interest.

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Questions 67

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) performs all high-risk engagements on the annual audit plan to make use of his knowledge and experience and to maximize the efficient use of audit resources. Which of the following statements is most relevant regarding this practice?

Options:

A.

The CAE ' s work may be reviewed by any other experienced staff member within the IAA.

B.

The CAE ' s work should be reviewed by an individual with the appropriate background and knowledge.

C.

The CAE may self-review his work, provided he discloses this practice in the final report.

D.

The CAE should avoid performing engagements to ensure he is able to review all audit work objectively.

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Questions 68

According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes the activity that helps ensure risk responses are carried out effectively?

Options:

A.

Objective setting.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Event identification.

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Questions 69

When auditing the award of a major contract, which of the following should an internal auditor suspect as a red flag for a bidding fraud scheme?

1. Subsequent change orders increase requirements for low-bid items.

2. Material contract requirements are different on the actual contract than on the request for bids.

3. A high percentage of employees are charged to indirect accounts.

4. Losing bidders are hired as subcontractors.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

1 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 70

Which of the following techniques would provide the most compelling evidence that a safety hazard exists within a manufacturing facility?

Options:

A.

Observation of the facility during operations.

B.

Questioning of facility management, including the facility safety officer.

C.

Analysis of facility operating reports, focusing on instances when breakdowns occurred.

D.

Review of records involving safety violations, filed by facility production employees.

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Questions 71

Which of the following is an example of collusion?

Options:

A.

An employee includes a faked receipt in his expense claim, and the claim is signed by the employee ' s manager.

B.

A vendor inflates the price of an item and remits a portion of the excess to the purchasing manager.

C.

A vendor sends a duplicate invoice with a new invoice number, and the accounts payable system fails to detect the duplication.

D.

An employee works with the IT manager to develop a program for identifying duplicate invoice payments.

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Questions 72

Click the Exhibit.

IIA-ACCA Question 72

Internal auditors are asked to keep track of how many hours per day they spend planning the audit, conducting the engagement, and writing the audit report. The data for two days has been collected as follows:

Day 1

Day 2

Planning the audit

2 hours

3 hours

Conducting the engagement

1 hour

1 hour

Writing the audit report

2 hours

4 hours

Which of the following graphs depicts the data accurately?

Options:

A.

Graph A only

B.

Graph B only

C.

Both A and B.

D.

Neither A nor B.

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Questions 73

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following are allowable activities for an internal auditor?

1. Advocating the establishment of a risk management function.

2. Identifying and evaluating significant risk exposures during audit engagements.

3. Developing a risk response for the organization if there is no chief risk officer.

4. Benchmarking risk management activities with other organizations.

5. Documenting risk mitigation strategies and techniques.

Options:

A.

4 and 5 only.

B.

1.2, and 3 only.

C.

1.2. 4. and 5 only.

D.

2. 3. 4. and 5 only.

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Questions 74

According to MA guidance, which of the following best describes an adequate management (audit) trail application control for the general ledger?

Options:

A.

Report identifying data that is outside of system parameters

B.

Report identifying general ledger transactions by time and individual

C.

Report comparing processing results with original input

D.

Report confirming that the general ledger data was processed without error.

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Questions 75

According to MA guidance on IT which of the following best describes a but recovery and restore processes have not been defined?

Options:

A.

Hot recovery plan

B.

Warm recovery plan

C.

Cold recovery plan.

D.

Absence of recovery plan

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Questions 76

An organization decided to install a motion detection system in its warehouse to protect against after-hours theft. According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes this risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Reduction.

C.

Elimination.

D.

Sharing.

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Questions 77

According to MA guidance on IT. which of the following would be considered a primary control for a spreadsheet to help ensure accurate financial reporting?

Options:

A.

Formulas and static data are locked or protected.

B.

The spreadsheet is stored on a network server that is backed up daily.

C.

The purpose and use of the spreadsheet are documented.

D.

Check-in and check-out software is used to control versions.

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Questions 78

Which of the following risks is best addressed by encryption?

Options:

A.

Information integrity risk.

B.

Privacy risk

C.

Access risk

D.

Software risk

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Questions 79

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a primary component of a network security strategy?

Options:

A.

Application input controls

B.

Firewall controls.

C.

Transmission encryption controls

D.

Change management controls

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Questions 80

When initiating international ventures, an organization should consider cultural dimensions in order to prevent misunderstandings. Which of the following does not represent a recognized cultural dimension in a work environment?

Options:

A.

Self control.

B.

Power distance.

C.

Masculinity versus femininity.

D.

Uncertainty avoidance.

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Questions 81

Which of the following is not a potential area of concern when an internal auditor places reliance on spreadsheets developed by users?

Options:

A.

Increasing complexity over time.

B.

Interface with corporate systems.

C.

Ability to meet user needs.

D.

Hidden data columns or worksheets.

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Questions 82

A software that translates hypertext markup language (HTML) documents and allows a user to view a remote web page is called:

Options:

A.

A transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP).

B.

An operating system.

C.

A web browser.

D.

A web server.

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Questions 83

Refer to the exhibit.

IIA-ACCA Question 83

Presented below are partial year-end financial statement data (000 omitted from dollar amounts) for companies A and B:

If company A has a quick ratio of 2:1, then it has an accounts receivable balance of:

Options:

A.

$100

B.

$200

C.

$300

D.

$500

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Questions 84

An internal auditor is reviewing physical and environmental controls for an IT organization. Which control activity should not be part of this review?

Options:

A.

Develop and test the organization ' s disaster recovery plan.

B.

Install and test fire detection and suppression equipment.

C.

Restrict access to tangible IT resources.

D.

Ensure that at least one developer has access to both systems and operations.

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Questions 85

Which of the following are typical responsibilities for operational management within a risk management program?

1. Implementing corrective actions to address process deficiencies.

2. Identifying shifts in the organization ' s risk management environment.

3. Providing guidance and training on risk management processes.

4. Assessing the impact of mitigation strategies and activities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 86

A department purchased one copy of a software program for internal use. The manager of the department installed the program on an office computer and then made two complete copies of the original software.

Copy 1 was solely for backup purposes.

Copy 2 was for use by another member of the department.

In terms of software licenses and copyright law, which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Both copies are legal.

B.

Only copy 1 is legal.

C.

Only copy 2 is legal.

D.

Neither copy is legal.

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Questions 87

International marketing activities often begin with:

Options:

A.

Standardization.

B.

Global marketing.

C.

Limited exporting.

D.

Domestic marketing.

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Questions 88

If observed during fieldwork by an internal auditor, which of the following activities is least important to communicate formally to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Acts that may endanger the health or safety of individuals.

B.

Acts that favor one party to the detriment of another.

C.

Acts that damage or have an adverse effect on the environment.

D.

Acts that conceal inappropriate activities in the organization.

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Questions 89

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization ' s health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

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Questions 90

An internal auditor submitted a report containing recommendations for management to enhance internal controls related to investments. To follow up, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Observe corrective measures.

B.

Seek a management assurance declaration.

C.

Follow up during the next scheduled audit.

D.

Conduct appropriate testing to verify management responses.

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Questions 91

An internal auditor is conducting a financial audit. Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate when existing internal controls are weak?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures.

B.

Detail testing.

C.

Test of design.

D.

Test of control.

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Questions 92

Which of the following best illustrates the primary focus of a risk-based approach to control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

To evaluate controls regarding the computer security of an oil refinery.

B.

To examine the processes involved in exploring, developing, and operating a gold mine.

C.

To assess the likelihood and impact of events associated with operating a finished goods warehouse.

D.

To link a financial institution ' s business objectives to a work unit responsible for the associated risk.

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Questions 93

According to IIA guidance, organizations have the most influence on which element of fraud?

Options:

A.

Opportunity.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Incentives.

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Questions 94

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 95

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 96

According to IIA guidance, which of the following procedures would be least effective in managing the risk of payroll fraud?

Options:

A.

The employee’s name listed on organization’s payroll is compared to the personnel records.

B.

Payroll time sheets are reviewed and approved by the timekeeper before processing.

C.

Employee access to the payroll database is deactivated immediately upon termination.

D.

Changes to payroll are validated by the personnel department before being processed.

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Questions 97

An internal audit activity is using the auditing-by-element approach to audit the organization ' s controls around corporate social responsibility. Which of the following would be an element for the internal audit activity to consider?

Options:

A.

Working conditions.

B.

Employees ' families.

C.

Marketplace competition.

D.

Shareholders and investors.

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Questions 98

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization ' s board?

Options:

A.

Requesting a private meeting with senior management, without the presence of the chief audit executive.

B.

Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

C.

Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

D.

Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

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Questions 99

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor ' s differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client ' s differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

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Questions 100

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

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Questions 101

According to IIA guidance, which of the following should be formally documented in the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity ' s responsibility for imposing risk management processes.

B.

The internal audit activity ' s responsibility for the organization ' s governance framework.

C.

The nature of consulting services provided by the internal audit activity.

D.

The budgeting process for the internal audit activity.

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Questions 102

According to the HA Code of Ethics, which of the following statements best describes the principle of competency?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors shall perform their work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility.

B.

Internal auditors shall perform their work in accordance with the Standards.

C.

Internal auditors shall perform their work in accordance with the law and make disclosures expected by the law.

D.

Internal auditors shall be prudent in the use of information acquired while performing their work.

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Questions 103

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor noted that the time staff spent accessing customer information in large Excel spreadsheets could be reduced significantly through the use of macros. The auditor would like to train staff on how to use the macros. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

The auditor must not perform the training, because any task to improve the business process could impact audit independence.

B.

The auditor must create a new, separate consulting engagement with the business process owner prior to performing the improvement task.

C.

The auditor should get permission to extend the current engagement, and with the process owner ' s approval, perform the improvement task.

D.

The auditor may proceed with the improvement task without obtaining formal approval, because the task is voluntary and not time-intensive.

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Questions 104

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management ' s internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management ' s assertions?

Options:

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management ' s responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management ' s operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

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Questions 105

An organization ' s internal audit plan includes a recurring assurance review of the human resources (HR) department. Which of the following statements is true regarding preliminary communication between the auditor in charge (AIC) and the HR department?

1. The AIC should notify HR management when the draft audit plan is being developed, as a courtesy.

2. The AIC should notify HR management before the planning stage begins.

3. The AIC should schedule formal status meetings with HR management at the start of the engagement.

4. The AIC should finalize the scope of the engagement before communicating with HR management.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 106

Which of the following is an example of a risk avoidance strategy?

Options:

A.

Hedging against exchange rate variations.

B.

Limiting access to an organization ' s data center.

C.

Selling a nonstrategic business unit.

D.

Outsourcing a high-risk activity.

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Questions 107

Which of the following should be included in a privacy audit engagement?

1. Assess the appropriateness of the information gathered.

2. Review the methods used to collect information.

3. Consider whether the information collected is in compliance with applicable laws.

4. Determine how the information is stored.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 108

The chief risk officer (CRO) of a large manufacturing organization decided to facilitate a workshop for process managers and staff to identify opportunities for improving productivity and reducing defects. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CRO chose the workshop approach?

Options:

A.

It minimizes the amount of time spent and cost incurred to gather the necessary information.

B.

Responses can be confidential, thus encouraging participants to be candid expressing their concerns.

C.

Workshops do not require extensive facilitation skills and are therefore ideal for nonauditors.

D.

Workshop participants have an opportunity to learn while contributing ideas toward the objectives.

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Questions 109

Which of the following is least likely to help ensure that risk is considered in a work program?

Options:

A.

Risks are discussed with audit client.

B.

All available information from the risk-based plan is used.

C.

Client efforts to affect risk management are considered.

D.

Prior risk assessments are considered.

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Questions 110

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

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Questions 111

An organization ' s board would like to establish a formal risk management function and has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to be involved in the process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles should the CAE not undertake?

Options:

A.

Manage and coordinate risk management processes.

B.

Audit risk management processes.

C.

Become involved in risk oversight committees, monitoring activities, and status reporting.

D.

Accept management ' s responsibility for risk management without board approval.

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Questions 112

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

Options:

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider ' s experience in the type of work being considered.

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Questions 113

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

Options:

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

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Questions 114

A draft internal audit report that cites deficient conditions generally should be reviewed with which of the following groups?

1. The client manager and her superior.

2. Anyone who may object to the report’s validity.

3. Anyone required to take action.

4. The same individuals who receive the final report.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

1, 2, and 4

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Questions 115

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization ' s goals.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 116

Which of the following statements is false regarding roles and responsibilities pertaining to risk management and control?

Options:

A.

Senior management is charged with overseeing the establishment risk management and control processes.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for overseeing the evaluation risk management and control processes.

C.

Operating managers are responsible for assessing risks and controls in their departments.

D.

Internal auditors provide assurance about risk management and control process effectiveness.

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Questions 117

A chief audit executive (CAE) is determining which engagements to include on the annual audit plan. She would like to consider the organization ' s attitude toward risk and the degree of difficulty in achieving objectives. Which of the following resources should the CAE consult?

Options:

A.

The corporate risk register.

B.

The strategic plan.

C.

Internal and external audit reports.

D.

The board ' s meeting records.

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Questions 118

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee ' s reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

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Questions 119

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is most likely to enhance stakeholders ' perception of the value the internal audit activity (IAA) adds to the organization?

1. The IAA uses computer-assisted audit techniques and IT applications.

2. The IAA uses a consistent risk-based approach in both its planning and engagement execution.

3. The IAA demonstrates the ability to build strong and constructive relationships with audit clients.

4. The IAA frequently is involved in various project teams and task forces in an advisory capacity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 120

Which of the following situations would justify the removal of a finding from the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Management disagrees with the report findings and conclusions in their responses.

B.

Management has already satisfactorily completed the recommended corrective action.

C.

Management has provided additional information that contradicts the findings.

D.

Management believes that the finding is insignificant and unfairly included in the report.

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Questions 121

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

Options:

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Questions 122

The final internal audit report should be distributed to which of the following individuals?

Options:

A.

Audit client management only

B.

Executive management only

C.

Audit client management, executive management, and others approved by the chief audit executive.

D.

Audit client management, executive management, and any those who request a copy.

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Questions 123

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization ' s enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

Options:

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

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Questions 124

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

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Questions 125

When setting the scope for the identification and assessment of key risks and controls in a process, which of the following would be the least appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

Develop the scope of the audit based on a bottom-up perspective to ensure that all business objectives are considered.

B.

Develop the scope of the audit to include controls that are necessary to manage risk associated with a critical business objective.

C.

Specify that the auditors need to assess only key controls, but may include an assessment of non-key controls if there is value to the business in providing such assurance.

D.

Ensure the audit includes an assessment of manual and automated controls to determine whether business risks are effectively managed.

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Questions 126

An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the cash receipts process?

Options:

A.

Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.

B.

Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.

C.

Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.

D.

Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.

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Questions 127

After finalizing an assurance engagement concerning safety operations in the oil mining process, the audit team concluded that no key controls were compromised. However, some opportunities for improvement were noted. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report these results?

Options:

A.

The CAE should send the final report to operational and senior management and the audit committee.

B.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management only, as there is no need to communicate this information to higher levels.

C.

The CAE should notify operational and senior management that the audit engagement was completed with no significant findings to report.

D.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management and notify senior management and the audit committee that no significant findings were identified.

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Questions 128

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

Options:

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

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Questions 129

Which of the following components should be included in an audit finding?

1. The scope of the audit.

2. The standard(s) used by the auditor to make the evaluation.

3. The engagement ' s objectives.

4. The factual evidence that the internal auditor found in the course of the examination.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 130

An IT contractor applied for an internal audit position at a bank. The contractor worked for the bank ' s IT security manager two years ago. If the audit manager interviewed the contractor and wants to extend a job offer, which of the following actions should the chief audit executive pursue?

Options:

A.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and state that the individual is free to perform IT audits, including security.

B.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, as it would be a conflict of interest.

C.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, but state that the individual is not allowed to work on IT security audits for one year.

D.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and ask the individual to apply again in one year.

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Questions 131

When establishing a quality assurance and improvement program, the chief audit executive should ensure the program is designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?

1. Add value.

2. Improve operations.

3. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

4. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the IIA Code of Ethics.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 132

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true when the internal audit activity is asked to investigate potential ethics violations in a foreign subsidiary?

Options:

A.

Communication of any internal ethics violations to external parties may occur with appropriate safeguards.

B.

Cultural impacts are less critical where the organization practices uniform polices around the globe.

C.

Cross-cultural differences should always be handled by the staff of the same cultural background.

D.

Local law enforcement should be involved as they are more familiar with the applicable local laws.

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Questions 133

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 134

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 135

When forming an opinion on the adequacy of management ' s systems of internal control, which of the following findings would provide the most reliable assurance to the chief audit executive?

• During an audit of the hiring process in a law firm, it was discovered that potential employees ' credentials were not always confirmed sufficiently. This process remained unchanged at the following audit.

• During an audit of the accounts payable department, auditors calculated that two percent of accounts were paid past due. This condition persisted at a follow up audit.

• During an audit of the vehicle fleet of a rental agency, it was determined that at any given time, eight percent of the vehicles were not operational. During the next audit, this figure had increased.

• During an audit of the cash handling process in a casino, internal audit discovered control deficiencies in the transfer process between the slot machines and the cash counting area. It was corrected immediately.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Questions 136

Which of the following responsibilities would fall under the role of the chief audit executive, rather than internal audit staff or the audit manager?

Options:

A.

Manage and support a quality assurance and improvement program.

B.

Maintain industry-specific knowledge appropriate to the audit engagements

C.

Set clear performance standards for internal auditors and the internal audit activity.

D.

Apply problem-solving techniques for routine situations.

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Questions 137

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor discovered that a sales manager approved numerous sales contracts for values exceeding his authorization limit. The auditor reported the finding to the audit supervisor, noting that the sales manager had additional new contracts under negotiation. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

The audit supervisor should include the new contracts in the finding for the final audit report.

B.

The audit supervisor should communicate the finding to the supervisor of the sales manager through an interim report.

C.

The audit supervisor should remind the sales manager of his authority limit for the contracts under negotiation.

D.

The auditor should not reference the new contracts, because they are not yet signed and therefore cannot be included in the final report.

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Questions 138

An internal audit charter should do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Outline the schedule of future audits.

B.

Define the scope of internal audit activities.

C.

Establish the size of the internal audit activity.

D.

Communicate the internal audit activity ' s goals.

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Questions 139

While auditing an organization ' s credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditor ' s relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative ' s information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative is a customer.

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement.

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Questions 140

Management is developing and implementing a risk and control framework for use throughout the organization. Which of the following elements should be included in the organization ' s control framework?

1. Appropriate levels of authority and responsibility.

2. Supervision of staff and appropriate review of work.

3. The seniority of management in the organization.

4. The ability to trace each transaction to an accountable and responsible individual.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3.

B.

1.2, and 4.

C.

1.3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Questions 141

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are macro-level audit activities performed for an assurance engagement of the purchasing department?

1. Obtain and review all purchasing-related audit reports issued within the past year.

2. Meet with the quality assurance group to discuss its previous reports of any purchasing-related findings.

3. Review a memo written by the purchasing manager that outlines ongoing problems with the purchasing software.

4. Request a copy of the report from a purchasing audit conducted last year by an external service provider.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 4.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 142

Which of the following is the best way to detect fraud?

Options:

A.

Conduct anti-fraud training.

B.

Perform background investigations.

C.

Implement process controls.

D.

Activate a whistleblower hotline.

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Questions 143

During an audit engagement, the internal auditor discussed a risk mitigation recommendation with the manager of the area under review. The manager disagreed with the risk assessment and recommendation. The two failed to come up with an alternative solution, and the auditor decided to proceed with including the original recommendation in the engagement report. Which of the following is especially important in dealing with this type of situation?

Options:

A.

Soft skills in communication, negotiation, and collaboration.

B.

Technical skills in the area under review.

C.

Professional qualifications and certification in internal auditing.

D.

Confidentiality and independence.

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Questions 144

According to IIA guidance, which of the following external groups is most likely to represent a liability risk, based on activities associated with the organization ' s corporate social responsibility program?

Options:

A.

Consumers.

B.

Activists.

C.

Suppliers.

D.

Investors.

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Questions 145

The internal audit activity is planning a procurement audit and needs to obtain a thorough understanding of the subcontracting process, which can involve multiple individuals in multiple countries.

Which of the following internal audit tools would be most effective to document the process and the key controls?

Options:

A.

Internal control checklist.

B.

Procurement employee survey.

C.

Cross-functional flow chart.

D.

Segregation of duties matrix.

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Questions 146

Which of the following should an organization consider when developing strategic objectives for its business processes?

1. Contribution to the success of the organization.

2. Reliability of operational information.

3. Behaviors and actions expected of employees.

4. How inputs combine with outputs to generate activities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 147

Import quotas that limit the quantities of goods that a domestic subsidiary can buy from its foreign parent company represent which type of barrier to the parent company?

Options:

A.

Political.

B.

Financial.

C.

Social.

D.

Tariff.

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Questions 148

Which of the following statements is in accordance with COBIT?

1. Pervasive controls are general while detailed controls are specific.

2. Application controls are a subset of pervasive controls.

3. Implementation of software is a type of pervasive control.

4. Disaster recovery planning is a type of detailed control.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

2, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, and 4 only

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Questions 149

According to MA guidance, which of the following would indicate poor change management control?

1. Low change success rate

2. Occasional planned outages

3. Low number of emergency changes.

4. Instances of unauthorized changes

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 150

When management uses the absorption costing approach, fixed manufacturing overhead costs are classified as which of the following types of costs?

Options:

A.

Direct product costs

B.

Indirect product costs

C.

Direct period costs

D.

Indirect period costs.

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Questions 151

The board has requested that the internal audit activity be involved in all phases of the organization ' s outsourcing of its network management. During which of the following stages is the internal auditor most likely to verify that the organization ' s right-to-audit clause is drafted effectively?

Options:

A.

Implementation and transition phase.

B.

Monitoring and reporting phase

C.

Decision-making and business-case phase.

D.

Tendering and contracting phase.

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Questions 152

Which of the following examples demonstrates that the internal audit activity uses descriptive analytics in its engagements?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor analyzed electricity production and sales interim reports and compiled a risk assessment.

B.

An internal auditor extracted sales data to a spreadsheet and applied judgmental analysis for sampling.

C.

An internal auditor classified solar panel sales by region and discovered unsuccessful sales representatives.

D.

An internal auditor broke down a complex process into smaller pieces to make it more understandable.

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Questions 153

In creating a risk-based plan, which of the following best describes a top-down approach to understanding business processes?

Options:

A.

Identifying the processes at the activity level.

B.

Analyzing the organization ' s strategic plan where the business processes are defined.

C.

Analyzing the organization ' s objectives and identifying the processes needed to achieve the objectives.

D.

Identifying the risks affecting the organization, the objectives, and then the processes concerned.

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Questions 154

Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibility of the internal audit activity (IAA) regarding IT governance?

1. The IAA does not have any responsibility because IT governance is the responsibility of the board and senior management of the organization.

2. The IAA must assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

3. The IAA may assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

4. The IAA may accept requests from management to perform advisory services regarding how the IT governance of the organization supports the organization’s strategies and objectives.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 155

When granting third parties temporary access to an entity ' s computer systems, which of the following is the most effective control?

Options:

A.

Access is approved by the supervising manager.

B.

User accounts specify expiration dates and are based on services provided.

C.

Administrator access is provided for a limited period.

D.

User accounts are deleted when the work is completed.

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Questions 156

A brand manager in a consumer food products organization suspected that several days of the point-of-sale data on the spreadsheet from one grocery chain were missing. The best approach for detecting missing rows in spreadsheet data would be to:

Options:

A.

Sort on product identification code and identify missing product identification codes.

B.

Review store identification code and identify missing product identification codes.

C.

Compare product identification codes for consecutive periods.

D.

Compare product identification codes by store for consecutive periods.

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Questions 157

Which of the following statements is false regarding the internal audit approach when a set of standards other than The IIA ' s Standards is applicable to a specific engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor may cite the use of other standards during audit communications.

B.

If the other standards are government-issued, the internal auditor should apply them in conjunction with The IIA ' s Standards.

C.

If there are inconsistencies between the other standards and The IIA ' s Standards, the internal auditor must use the more restrictive standards.

D.

If there are inconsistencies between the other standards and The IIA ' s Standards, the internal auditor must use the less restrictive standards.

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Questions 158

Which of the following best describes a market signal?

Options:

A.

The bargaining power of buyers is forcing a drop in market prices.

B.

There is pressure from the competitor ' s substitute products.

C.

Strategic analysis by the organization indicates feasibility of expanding to new market niches.

D.

The competitor announces a new warranty program.

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Questions 159

The percentage of sales method, rather than the percentage of receivables method, would be used to estimate uncollectible accounts if an organization seeks to:

Options:

A.

Use an aging schedule to more closely estimate uncollectible accounts.

B.

Eliminate the need for an allowance for doubtful accounts.

C.

Emphasize the accuracy of the net realizable value of the receivables on the balance sheet.

D.

Use a method that approximates the matching principle.

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Questions 160

An internal auditor discovered that several unauthorized modifications were made to the production version of an organization ' s accounting application. Which of the following best describes this deficiency?

Options:

A.

Production controls weakness.

B.

Application controls weakness.

C.

Authorization controls weakness.

D.

Change controls weakness.

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Questions 161

As it relates to the data analytics process, which of the following best describes the purpose of an internal auditor who cleaned and normalized data?

Options:

A.

The auditor eliminated duplicate information.

B.

The auditor organized data to minimize useless information.

C.

The auditor made data usable for a specific purpose by ensuring that anomalies were identified and corrected.

D.

The auditor ensured data fields were consistent and that data could be used for a specific purpose.

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Questions 162

Operational management in the IT department has introduced performance evaluation policies that are linked to employees achieving continuing education hours. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap

B.

Monitoring gap

C.

Accountability/reward failure.

D.

Communication failure.

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Questions 163

Which of the following statements is true regarding the roles and responsibilities associated with a corporate social responsibility (CSR) program?

Options:

A.

The board has overall responsibility for the internal control processes associated with the CSR program.

B.

Management has overall responsibility for the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and internal control processes associated with the CSR program.

C.

The internal audit activity is responsible for ensuring that CSR principles are integrated into the organization ' s policies and procedures.

D.

Every employee has a responsibility for ensuring the success of the organization ' s CSR objectives.

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Questions 164

Which of the following is a typical example of structured data?

Options:

A.

Production information maintained in relational tables.

B.

Tweets and posts of users on social media.

C.

Photos and videos stored in hard drive catalogs.

D.

Sales reports documented in word processing software.

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Questions 165

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be a primary reason for an internal auditor to test the organization ' s IT contingency plan?

Options:

A.

To ensure that adequate controls exist to prevent any significant business interruptions.

B.

To identify and address potential security weaknesses within the system.

C.

To ensure that tests contribute to improvement of the program.

D.

To ensure that deficiencies identified by the audit are promptly addressed.

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Questions 166

A holding company set up a centralized group technology department, using a local area network with a mainframe computer to process accounting information for all companies within the group. An internal auditor would expect to find all of the following controls within the technology department except:

Options:

A.

Adequate segregation of duties between data processing controls and file security controls.

B.

Documented procedures for remote job entry and for local data file retention.

C.

Emergency and disaster recovery procedures and maintenance agreements in place to ensure continuity of operations.

D.

Established procedures to prevent and detect unauthorized changes to data files.

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Questions 167

An organization has started allowing employees to use their personal smart devices to accept vendor payments. What should the organization ' s bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy include to specifically address security and privacy required by the Payment Card Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)?

Options:

A.

Approved devices

B.

Mobile applications

C.

Data storage.

D.

Backups and transfers

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Questions 168

Which type of bond sells at a discount from face value, then increases in value annually until it reaches maturity and provides the owner with the total payoff?

Options:

A.

High-yield bonds.

B.

Commodity-backed bonds.

C.

Zero coupon bonds.

D.

Junk bonds.

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Questions 169

Within an enterprise, IT governance relates to the:

1. Alignment between the enterprise ' s IT long term plan and the organization ' s objectives.

2. Organizational structures of the company that are designed to ensure that IT supports the organization ' s strategies and objectives.

3. Operational plans established to support the IT strategies and objectives.

4. Role of the company ' s leadership in ensuring IT supports the organization ' s strategies and objectives.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 170

Which of the following are appropriate functions for an IT steering committee?

1. Assess the technical adequacy of standards for systems design and programming.

2. Continually monitor of the adequacy and accuracy of software and hardware in use.

3. Assess the effects of new technology on the organization`s IT operations.

4. Provide broad oversight of implementation, training, and operation of new systems.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 171

Maintenance cost at a hospital was observed to increase as activity level increased. The following data was gathered:

Activity Level -

Maintenance Cost

Month

Patient Days

Incurred

January

5,600

$7,900

February

7,100

$8,500

March

5,000

$7,400

April

6,500

$8,200

May

7,300

$9,100

June

8,000

$9,800

If the cost of maintenance is expressed in an equation, what is the independent variable for this data?

Options:

A.

Fixed cost.

B.

Variable cost.

C.

Total maintenance cost.

D.

Patient days.

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Questions 172

Which of the following statements regarding program change management is not correct?

Options:

A.

The goal of the change management process is to sustain and improve organizational operations.

B.

The degree of risk associated with a proposed change determines if the change request requires authorization.

C.

In order to protect the production environment, changes must be managed in a repeatable, defined, and predictable manner.

D.

All changes should be tested in a non-production environment before migrating to the production environment.

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Questions 173

An organization has a complex systems infrastructure consisting of multiple internally developed, off the shelf, and purchased but significantly customized applications. Some of these applications share databases or process data that is used by another stand-alone application, and interfaces have been written to move data between these applications as needed through batch processing Which of the following situations presents the greatest risk exposure given this environment?

Options:

A.

Documentation of each system and its interactions, interfaces, and dependencies with other systems and databases is not gathered and maintained.

B.

Batch processing jobs include key financial data that is not posted to the accounting system until the next day. preventing real-time queries.

C.

The job scheduling tool frequently malfunctions, causing scheduled jobs not to run. An error message is sent to IT personnel when a job fails.

D.

The implementation of a major update for a key application is delayed until any potential interdependencies are identified and analyzed.

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Questions 174

What is the most significant potential problem introduced by just-in-time inventory systems?

Options:

A.

They require significant computer resources.

B.

They are susceptible to supply-chain disruptions.

C.

They require complicated materials-supply contracts.

D.

They prevent manufacturers from scaling up or down to meet changing demands.

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Questions 175

Which of the following stages of group development is associated with accepting team responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Forming stage.

B.

Performing stage.

C.

Norming stage.

D.

Storming stage.

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Questions 176

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding analytical procedures?

Options:

A.

Data relationships are assumed to exist and to continue where no known conflicting conditions exist.

B.

Analytical procedures are intended primarily to ensure the accuracy of the information being examined.

C.

Data relationships cannot include comparisons between operational and statistical data

D.

Analytical procedures can be used to identify unexpected differences but cannot be used to identify the absence of differences

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Questions 177

Which of the following best describes the concept of relevant cost?

Options:

A.

A future cost that is the same among alternatives.

B.

A future cost that differs among alternatives.

C.

A past cost that is the same among alternatives.

D.

A past cost that differs among alternatives.

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Questions 178

According to IIA guidance, which of the following steps are most important for an internal auditor to perform when evaluating an organization ' s social and environmental impact on the local community?

    Determine whether previous incidents have been reported, managed, and resolved.

    Determine whether a business contingency plan exists.

    Determine the extent of transparency in reporting.

    Determine whether a cost/benefit analysis was performed for all related projects.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 179

Which of the following statements is true regarding reversing entries in an accounting cycled

Options:

A.

Reversing all previous closing adjustments is a mandatory step in the accounting cycle

B.

Reversing entries should be completed at the end of the next accounting period after recording regular transactions of the period

C.

Reversing entries are identical to the adjusting entries made in the previous period.

D.

Reversing entries are the exact opposite of the adjustments made in the previous period.

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Questions 180

Which of the following describes the free trade zone in an e-commerce environment?

Options:

A.

Zone that separates an organization ' s servers from outside forces.

B.

Area in which messages are scrutinized to determine if they are authorized.

C.

Area where communication and transactions occur between trusted parties.

D.

Zone where data is encrypted, users are authenticated, and user traffic is filtered.

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Questions 181

An internal auditor is trying to assess control risk and the effectiveness of an organization ' s internal controls. Which of the following audit procedures would not provide assurance to the auditor on this matter?

Options:

A.

Interviewing the organization ' s employees.

B.

Observing the organization ' s operations.

C.

Reading the board ' s minutes.

D.

Inspecting manuals and documents.

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Exam Code: IIA-ACCA
Exam Name: ACCA CIA Challenge Exam
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 604

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