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IIA-CIA-Part2 Internal Audit Engagement Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

Options:

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met.

B.

To ensure senior management supports the report ' s conclusions.

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated.

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Questions 5

An audit reveals that a manager ' s spouse is receiving paychecks, but is not employed by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions should the internal auditor take?

Options:

A.

Contact the external auditor and provide all relevant documentation.

B.

Report the finding to senior management in a timely manner, following the normal chain of command.

C.

Meet with the local manager to obtain more information on the finding before taking further action.

D.

Bypass the normal chain of command and contact the board directly to report the finding.

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Questions 6

The chief audit executive (CAE) should determine whether the internal audit activity has confirmed the status of all of management ' s corrective actions Doing so would help the CAE assess which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disclosure risk.

B.

Residual risk

C.

Compliance risk

D.

Inherent risk

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Questions 7

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

Options:

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client ' s business objectives.

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Questions 8

Considering the five-attribute approach to documenting deficiencies in an area under review which of the following answers the question. " What should be in place?’’

Options:

A.

Action plan

B.

Recommendation

C.

Condition

D.

Criteria

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Questions 9

An audit observation states the following:

" Despite the rules of the organization there is no approved credit risk management policy in the subsidiary. The subsidiary is concluding contacts with clients who have very high credit ratings. The internal audit team tested 50 contacts and 17 showed clients with a poor credit history "

Which of the following components are missing in the observation?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect.

B.

Effect and criteria

C.

Condition and cause

D.

Criteria and condition.

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Questions 10

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 11

An internal auditor is planning an audit engagement of a subsidiary organization. The auditor learns that a corporate investigator from the holding organization is investigating the subsidiary regarding a fraud case. Which of the following is true regarding the scope of the internal auditor’s engagement?

Options:

A.

As the fraud is already being investigated by the corporate investigator, it should be excluded from the scope of the audit engagement

B.

The engagement should be framed as an advisory engagement to support the corporate investigator ' s work

C.

The area under investigation should be excluded from the engagement scope if the auditor does not have the technical skills required to support a fraud investigation

D.

The scope should consider the nature of the fraud risk and control weaknesses identified from the fraud case

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Questions 12

An internal audit team leader is having difficulties completing the planning phase of an assurance engagement because the business unit lacks a system of internal controls. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal audit team leader?

Options:

A.

Defer the engagement until a system of internal control has been established

B.

Change the scheduled engagement from assurance to consulting to help correct the shortcomings

C.

Add a consulting component to the already scheduled assurance engagement

D.

Seek the involvement of the external auditor to assist with improving the internal controls

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Questions 13

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

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Questions 14

A chief audit executive (CAE) reviews the supervision of an internal audit engagement Which of the following would most likely assure the CAE that the engagement had adequate supervision?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor has an open door pokey for audit team members to discuss concerns

B.

The supervisor reviews weekly progress reports from the audit team members

C.

The supervisor reviews and initials internal audit workpapers for the engagement

D.

The supervisor meets periodically with management in the reviewed area to get feedback during the engagement.

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Questions 15

Which of the following activities best demonstrates an internal auditor ' s commitment to developing professional competencies?

Options:

A.

Requesting to be part of all engagements on the annual audit plan

B.

Attending a series of locally offered training courses.

C.

Completing a skills assessment and development plan for targeted training needs.

D.

Attending a webinar on how to use data analytics

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Questions 16

If there is a significant error or omission in the final audit report that was communicated to management, which of the following is the key action for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Communicate the corrected information to the manager of the audited department.

B.

There should be a follow-up audit to address the error or omission.

C.

The auditor should update the scope of the audit to include the omission.

D.

The corrected communication should be redistributed to the original recipients.

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Questions 17

During a previous audit engagement, an internal auditor recommended that management implement a whistleblowing process. During follow-up, the auditor discovered that the process has been outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate response for the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Insist on establishing an internal whistleblowing process, as originally recommended, because this is a key control.

B.

Review the agreement with the third-party service provider and ensure that appropriate controls are in place.

C.

Raise the issue to a higher level of management, as outsourcing the process was not previously discussed or agreed upon.

D.

Take no action, as management has accepted the risk of moving to a third party for this whistleblowing process.

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Questions 18

An internal auditor completed a test of 30 randomly selected accounts. For five of the accounts selected, the auditor was unable to find supporting documentation in the normal place of storage. Which of the following next steps would be most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Conclude that the test failed because at least 17 percent of the sample items were not supported.

B.

Select five new accounts to replace the ones that were missing supporting documentation.

C.

Expand the sample size to 60 to determine whether the error rate remains the same.

D.

Contact management to determine whether the supporting documentation can be located elsewhere.

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Questions 19

An internal auditor is assigned to validate calculations on the organization ' s building application As pad of the test the internal auditor is required to use an automated audit tool to simulate transactions for testing. Which of the following would most appropriately be used for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Generalized audit software.

B.

Utility software

C.

integrated test facilities

D.

Audit expert systems

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Questions 20

A healthcare organization ' s chief audit executive (CAE) noted that the organization ' s IT team relies heavily on a vendor. Therefore an IT vendor assessment review was added to the annual audit plan. During the review, the audit team discovered that the vendor had not been performing proper monitoring to ensure that the subcontractors it hired comply with the organization requirements. The organization ' s chief information officer (ClO) does not agree with the audit team ' s recommendation for the IT team to monitor the compliance level of vendor subcontractors. How should the audit team proceed to resolve this situation?

Options:

A.

Write a risk acceptance memo for the CIO to sign acknowledging the observation and indicating a willingness to accept the risk.

B.

Provide an example of the attestation form that vendors must use. Then, recommend that the IT team require vendors to submit the attestation form on a regular basis.

C.

Escalate the issue to the audit committee, as the CIO is unwilling to implement the recommended action plan.

D.

Escalate the issue to the CAE to assess whether the ClO ' s reasoning is acceptable.

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Questions 21

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers.

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management.

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Questions 22

The engagement supervisor would like lo change the audit program ' s scope poor to beginning fieldwork According to IIA guidance before any change is implemented what is the most important action that should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Document in the engagement workpapers the rationale for changing the scope.

B.

Confirm that the scope change would align to the organization ' s objectives and goals

C.

Confirm that the internal audit activity continues to have the necessary knowledge and skills

D.

Seek approval from the chief audit executive for the proposed scope change

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Questions 23

Which of the following situations is most likely to heighten an internal auditors professional skepticism regarding potential fraud?

Options:

A.

A procurement manager does not have the expected academic credentials for his position

B.

A salesperson frequently complains about the organization ' s policy on sales commissions.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor has requested advances against her monthly salary on several occasions

D.

A financial accountant is absent from work frequently due to regular medical procedures

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Questions 24

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an Important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction Based on this Information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

1.Effect of the control weakness.

2.Cause of the control weakness

3.Conclusion on the control weakness.

4.Recommendation for the control weakness.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1.2. and 4

C.

1,3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Questions 25

Which of the following is the next step in understanding a business process once an internal auditor has identified the process?

Options:

A.

Determine process outputs

B.

Determine process inputs.

C.

Determine process activities.

D.

Determine process goals

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Questions 26

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review to prevent tipping off probable audit lasts

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal a auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning

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Questions 27

Which of The following best justifies an internal auditor ' s decision to issue a preliminary audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit team and audit client have a serious dispute over the scope and objective of the engagement

B.

The internal audit team expects management to address certain issues immediately due to their severe impact

C.

The internal audit team anticipates that the formal final audit report would be undesirable for management due to the significance of outlined risks

D.

The internal audit team would like to issue a clean final audit report without any material observations or risks

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Questions 28

Due to price risk from the foreign currency purchase of aviation fuel, an airliner has purchased forward contracts to hedge against fluctuations in the exchange rate. When recalculating the exchange losses from individual purchases of jet fuel, which of the following details does the internal auditor need to validate?

1. The hedge documentation designating the hedge.

2. The spot exchange rate on the transaction date.

3. The terms of the forward contract.

4. The amount of fuel purchased.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 29

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is based on the results of a preliminary assessment of risks relevant to the area under review?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Audit resources

C.

Audit objectives

D.

Audit plan

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Questions 30

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement, decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible.

C.

if it is a consulting engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because the chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor ' s previous role when this engagement was assigned.

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Questions 31

During the preliminary survey of the procurement department, an internal auditor noted a major control weakness in the organization ' s ordering and receiving process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the internal auditor should take?

Options:

A.

Issue a final report on the control weakness to senior management.

B.

Bring the control weakness to the attention of the process owner for resolution.

C.

Note the control weakness for discussion during the exit meeting.

D.

Carry out an investigation of the control weakness for disciplinary action.

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Questions 32

An internal auditor completes a series of engagement steps and is ready to turn in the workpapers for the engagement supervisor’s review. The auditor has additional, separate notes about the engagement and is unsure what to do with them. The workpapers are complete and contain sufficient information to support the engagement work. What should the auditor do with the additional notes, according to IIA guidance?

Options:

A.

Include them in the workpapers for the engagement supervisor’s review.

B.

Omit them from the workpapers.

C.

There is no guidance on the inclusion of additional notes with workpapers.

D.

Retain them after the engagement is completed.

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Questions 33

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

Options:

A.

A description of their job responsibilities.

B.

A non-disclosure agreement

C.

An annual declaration of commitment to The HAs Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter

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Questions 34

An internal auditor wants to test the processing logic of a computer application during a specific period to ensure consistent processing of transactions. Which of the following is the best approach to achieve the objective of the test?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Integrated test facility

C.

Parallel simulation

D.

Generalized audit software

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Questions 35

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

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Questions 36

According to IIA guidance, which of the following reflects a characteristic of sufficient and reliable information?

Options:

A.

The establishment of an audit approach and documentation system

B.

The standardization of workpaper terminology and notations

C.

The ability to reach consistent audit conclusions regardless of who performs the audit

D.

The application of documentation standards m an appropriate and consistent manner

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Questions 37

What is the most likely reason an internal auditor would interview operational management during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To validate the engagement work program.

B.

To help the internal auditor understand the objectives of the area or process under review.

C.

To determine whether operational management has sufficient knowledge of risks and controls.

D.

To determine whether management followed through on action plans from a previous consulting engagement.

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Questions 38

The chief audit executive (CAE) determined that the internal audit activity lacks the resources needed to complete the internal audit plan Which of the following would be the most appropriate action tor the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Use guest auditors from within the organization, and leverage their experience by assigning them to lead engagements m areas where they previously worked

B.

Outsource some of the audits to the organization s external auditor who is already familiar with the organization

C.

Invite nonauditors to join the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational position, and assign them to join audit teams that are reviewing areas where they have no previous management responsibility

D.

Recruit recent college graduates and employ them as audit interns with an aim to offer permanent employment

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Questions 39

An internal auditor concluded that delays in an ongoing construction project have cost the organization $10 million to date. Which documents should be included in the audit workpapers to provide sufficient evidence to support the conclusion?

Options:

A.

Payment and work milestones

B.

Pictures from the construction site

C.

Initial sprint planning

D.

Project internal rate of return

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Questions 40

An internal auditor wants to identity potential ghost employees in the organization ' s payroll system The auditor extracts the following data

- Human resources data with employees ' names addresses employment conditions and identification codes

- Payroll data

- Logs from entrance systems

With this data, which of the following types of ghost employees will the auditor be able to identify?

Options:

A.

Employees who are being paid more than then approved wages

B.

Employees who get paid although their employment has expired

C.

Employees who are related to one of the subcontractors

D.

Employees who are physically present at the workplace but who do not perform the specified job duties

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Questions 41

An internal auditor is conducting a preliminary survey of the investments area, and sends an internal control questionnaire to the management of the function. (An extract of the survey is provided below).

1. Are there any restrictions for any company ' s investments?

2. Are there any written policies and procedures that document the flow of investment processing?

3. Are investment purchases recorded in the general ledger on the date traded?

4. Is the documentation easily accessible to an persons who need in to perform their job?

Which of the following is a drawback of testing methods like this?

Options:

A.

They ore kitted as they do not allow the auditor to test many controls.

B.

They do not highlight control gaps

C.

They are not useful for identifying areas on which the auditor should locus.

D.

They are limited as there is a risk that management may not answer fairly.

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Questions 42

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

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Questions 43

Which of the following best describes how an internal auditor would use a flowchart during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To prepare for testing the effectiveness of controls.

B.

To plan for evaluating potential losses.

C.

To prepare a sampling plan for the engagement.

D.

To evaluate the design of controls.

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Questions 44

At a construction company, an internal auditor is planning an audit of the company ' s process for designing and building grid connections The process involves customers making payments m three parts

• The first payment of 10% after approval of the customer s application

• The second payment of 70% prior to construction

• The third payment of 20% after construction is complete

Which of the following key controls should the auditor test to ensure that the company is not taking any unwanted credit risks?

Options:

A.

Controls that ensure that grid connection design is finalized before construction is approved to begin

B.

Controls that ensure construction orders are initiated after the second invoice is paid

C.

Controls that ensure all three invoices are calculated correctly according to the total project cost

D.

Controls that ensure that applications are verified for approval prior to initiating design and construction

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Questions 45

An engagement supervisor reviewed a staff internal auditor ' s documentation and noted that several edits should be made. The internal audit activity uses an electronic workpaper database and does not maintain paper files for its system of record. A system error prevents the engagement supervisor from adding her electronic signature to any workpaper in the database Given this situation which is the most appropriate response to provide evidence of supervisory review?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor should print sign and date each workpaper after the review is complete and scan the document into the database as evidence of review

B.

Because the engagement supervisor called the help desk to correct the IT problem, he should upload the support-request ticket from the help desk to serve as evidence of the review

C.

The engagement supervisor should ask another manager-level internal auditor not associated with the project to sign the workpaper on his behalf

D.

The engagement supervisor should instruct the staff internal auditor to add a note in the workpaper on his behalf indicating that the workpaper was reviewed and feedback was provided

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Questions 46

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address the risks highlighted by the internal audit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts management ' s explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

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Questions 47

An internal auditor observes a double payment transaction on a supplier invoice during an accounts payable engagement. Which of the following steps would be the most effective in helping the auditor determine whether fraud exists?

Options:

A.

Switch the existing assurance engagement into a fraud investigation engagement

B.

Extend the audit scope and perform additional testing of controls on other related areas

C.

Review the poor year ' s transaction volume and amounts paid compared to the poor year ' s budget

D.

Perform data analytics on the supplier ' s information, invoiced amounts, and payments performed

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Questions 48

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

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Questions 49

What is the primary purpose of creating a preliminary draft audit report?

Options:

A.

To save time during final report writing

B.

To meet the Standards requirement for developing a draft report prior to issuing a final report

C.

To use as a tool for communicating with management of the area under review.

D.

To require that management implements solutions to issues identified during the engagement

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Questions 50

A draft internal audit report that cites deficient conditions generally should be reviewed with which of the following groups?

1. The client manager and her superior.

2. Anyone who may object to the report’s validity.

3. Anyone required to take action.

4. The same individuals who receive the final report.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

1, 2, and 4

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Questions 51

Which of the following is critical to the success of an effective interview?

Options:

A.

Present audit evidence and information to support the internal auditor’s line of questioning.

B.

Establish credibility, trust, and rapport.

C.

Develop flowcharts and review them with the interviewee.

D.

Observe the process and discuss it with the interviewee.

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Questions 52

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether internal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes and come up with a proposal Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

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Questions 53

The chief audit executive (CAE) for a manufacturing company included in this year s audit plan a review of the company ' s laboratory, using an experienced external service provider. The audit plan was approved by the audit committee without any changes At the time of engaging the external service provider, the CAE also secured the approval from the CEO. Who is responsible for ensuring that the conclusions reached for this exercise are adequately supported7

Options:

A.

Audit committee

B.

CEO

C.

CAE.

D.

External service provider

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Questions 54

An internal auditor is conducting an initial risk assessment of an audit area and wants to assess management ' s compliance with privacy laws for safeguarding customer information stored on the organization ' s servers. Which course of action is appropriate for this phase of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Solicit the services of a specialist information systems auditor

B.

Obtain the most current approved copies of the organization ' s privacy policy

C.

Consult with legal counsel about new privacy laws to establish appropriate criteria

D.

Consider the detection risk of noncompliance with the laws

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Questions 55

In which of the following situations would an internal control questionnaire best suit the internal auditor ' s purpose?

Options:

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner

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Questions 56

Which of the following is one of the five attributes that internal auditors include when documenting a deficiency?

Options:

A.

The criteria used to make the evaluation

B.

The methodology used to analyze data

C.

The proposed follow-up engagement work to be performed

D.

The scope of work performed during the engagement

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Questions 57

Organizations that adopt just-in-time purchasing systems often experience which of the following?

Options:

A.

A slight increase in carrying costs.

B.

A greater need for inspection of goods as the goods arrive

C.

A greater need for linkage with a vendors computerized order entry system.

D.

An Increase in the number of suitable suppliers

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Questions 58

Which of the blowing is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Proving in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations

B.

Proving an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentially.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls ever the reliability of financial reporting

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Questions 59

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk

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Questions 60

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

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Questions 61

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

Options:

A.

The last available risk assessment.

B.

Requests from senior management and the board.

C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.

D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.

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Questions 62

Management requested internal audit consulting services. During fieldwork significant control issues were identified by the internal audit team. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

End the consulting engagement and report the results to management as planned

B.

Report the significant control issues to senior management and the board and recommend corrective action

C.

Mutually agree with the engagement client on corrective actions

D.

Focus on the consulting engagement and schedule an assurance engagement next to address the control issues

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Questions 63

An internal auditor wants to assess whether the organization ' s governing body was involved in strategic decisions for the use of social media. What could provide the most relevant evidence?

Options:

A.

The board ' s meeting minutes

B.

The executive committee’s social media budget report

C.

The organization’s marketing plan

D.

The organization’s procedures manual for daily social media management

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Questions 64

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the required elements of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments provide sufficient objectivity to provide evidence to the board that the internal audit activity understands the organization ' s control processes.

B.

Quality assessments focus on the internal audit activity’s structure, relationships with stakeholders, compliance with the Standards, and internal audit staff proficiency.

C.

in order to comply with the Standards, the internal audit activity must obtain an objective assessment of its processes and function at least once a year

D.

Internal auditors completing internal assessments must demonstrate certification to perform quality assessments

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Questions 65

An internal auditor collected several employee testimonials Which of the following is the best action for the internal auditor to take before drawing a conclusion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the testimonials are well documented

B.

Substantiate the testimonials with physical or documentary evidence

C.

Corroborate testimonials with the results from other soft control techniques

D.

Review the testimonials with the interviewed employees

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Questions 66

Which of the following is most likely to be judged as a significant residual risk that would exceed the organization ' s acceptable risk level?

Options:

A.

Any risk involving organizational expansion into a new geographical area with an unstable political environment.

B.

Any risk involving investments into bitcoin and suspicious derivatives

C.

Any risk that can cause material or financial loss

D.

Any risk that could cause injuries or pollute the environment

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Questions 67

An internal auditor was assigned to review controls in the accounts payable function. Most of tie accounts payable processes are performed by a third-party service provider. The auditor included in the audit report a number of control deficiencies involving processes performed by the service provider. The service provider requested a copy of the report Which of Vie following would be the most appropriate response from the chief audit executive (CAE)?

Options:

A.

The CAE would automatically sand a copy of the report to the service provider as many of the findings relate to Via area managed by the service provider

B.

The CAE may distribute the report to tie service provider at no cost, after consulting with legal counsel and tie chief compliance officer

C.

The CAE may provide a copy of the audit report to the service provider If an agreement & signed and the service provider agrees to reimburse the cost of the auditD, The CAE should benchmark with other organization in the industry by consorting with colleagues and distribute the report only I it is an acceptable practice m the industry

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Questions 68

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

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Questions 69

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended. However, during a follow-up engagement, the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager decided to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication.

B.

Discuss the issue with the board, which has ultimate responsibility to resolve this risk.

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager, attempt to change his view, and encourage him to implement the recommendations.

D.

Document the branch manager’s decision to accept the risk; otherwise, no other specific course of action is required.

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Questions 70

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

For both assurance and consulting engagements, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined.

B.

The expectations and objectives of an assurance engagement are usually determined by. or in conjunction with, the engagement client

C.

Internal auditors may not need to complete a preliminary risk assessment for a consulting engagement as they would when planning an assurance engagement.

D.

For both consulting and assurance engagements, internal auditors usually form the engagement objectives prior to completing the preliminary risk assessment

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Questions 71

Which of the following activities demonstrates an example of the chief audit executive performing residual risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of management not implementing a recommendation to address an observation.

B.

Inquiry of corrective action to be completed within a certain period.

C.

Reporting the status of every observation for every engagement in a detailed manner.

D.

Soliciting management’s feedback after completion of the audit engagement.

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Questions 72

Which statement best describes the benefit of using workpapers from recent internal audit engagements of the area under review to plan new engagements?

Options:

A.

Recent workpapers can help during the planning of a new engagement to understand any corrective actions taken by management to address previous engagement observations.

B.

Tests described in recent workpapers can be copied into the new workpapers to save time from reperforming a risk assessment.

C.

Recent workpapers serve as the best source for identification of the risks to be examined in the new engagement.

D.

The new engagement scope can be derived from recent workpapers to ensure the reperformance of engagement procedures.

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Questions 73

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

Options:

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

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Questions 74

Which of the following would be the most effective fraud prevention control?

Options:

A.

Email alert sent to management for checks issued over S100.000.

B.

installation of a video surveillance system in a warehouse prone to inventory loss

C.

New hire training to explain fraud and employee misconduct.

D.

Daily report that Identifies unsuccessful system log-in attempts

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Questions 75

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address this risks highlighted by the Internal audit Which of the following Is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts managements explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

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Questions 76

Which of the following activities demonstrates an example of the chief audit executive performing residual risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of management not implementing a recommendation to address an observation.

B.

Inquiry of corrective action to be completed within a certain period

C.

Reporting the status of every observation for every engagement in a detailed manner.

D.

Soliciting management ' s feedback after completion of the audit engagement.

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Questions 77

Management has taken immediate action to address an observation received during an audit of the organization ' s manufacturing process Which of the following is true regarding the validity of the observation closure?

Options:

A.

Valid closure requires evidence that ensures the corrected process will function as expected in the future

B.

Valid closure requires the client lo address not only the condition, but also the cause of the condition

C.

Valid closure of an observation ensures it will be included in the final engagement report

D.

Valid closure requires assurance from management that the original problem will not recur in the future

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Questions 78

Which of the following constitutes supervisory activity undertaken during the planning phase of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the process owner with the engagement objectives

B.

Reviewing engagement draft reports

C.

Ensuring workpapers support audit findings

D.

Approving audit work programs

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Questions 79

Which of the following statements best explains why an internal auditor should pay attention to retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

Retained earnings indicate the amount of potential dividends to be paid out to new investors.

B.

Retained earnings represent the amount of excess cash available in the organization.

C.

Retained earnings demonstrate that the organization was able to generate working capital from its own activities.

D.

Retained earnings constitute the main criterion used by ratings agencies to assess an organization.

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Questions 80

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 81

A technology firm ' s internal audit function is slated to perform a series of engagements assessing the security of its software development processes. To successfully perform these engagements, which competency should the internal audit function possess?

Options:

A.

Expertise in IT general controls

B.

Understanding of change management processes

C.

Proficiency in using design software

D.

Fluency in multiple programming languages

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Questions 82

During an assurance engagement an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking

D.

Persuasion and collaboration

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Questions 83

An internal auditor is performing a review of an organization ' s vendor for any possible conflicts of interest. Which of the following would provide the greatest assistance to the auditor in meeting this objective?

Options:

A.

Vendor contracts.

B.

Employee master list.

C.

Payment records.

D.

Purchasing policy.

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Questions 84

While reviewing engagement workpapers prepared by an internal audit team, the engagement supervisor identifies instances where there is no direct connection between certain workpapers and the engagement objectives. How should the engagement supervisor respond?

Options:

A.

Request that the internal auditors remove irrelevant workpapers from the records.

B.

Sign off on all workpapers, and arrange the documentation from most relevant to least relevant.

C.

Ensure that the final audit report indicates that the initial engagement objectives were expanded.

D.

Expand the scope of the audit and include the additional documentation.

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Questions 85

An electric utility provider measures working time spent on processing grid connection applications, response time for electricity outages, and the call center queuing time. Which of the following criteria would better suit a customer-oriented provider for measurement?

Options:

A.

Past performance

B.

Legal obligations

C.

Board-approved budget

D.

Stakeholder expectations

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Questions 86

Which of the following structures would best suit a maintenance organization that needs to adapt quickly to rapidly changing technology?

Options:

A.

Traditional

B.

Decentralized

C.

Centralized

D.

Customer-centric

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Questions 87

A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?

1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.

2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.

3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.

4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 88

When presenting an observation m writing which or the Mowing is usually true regarding the level of detail provided?

1. The description of the observation in the final audit report contains more detail then the description m the engagement workpapers

2. The description of the observation m the engagement workpapers contains more detail than the descriptor n a preliminary observation document

3. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the final audit report

4. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the engagement workpapers

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 89

During the filework phase of an assurance engagement the internal auditor decides that she wants to adjust the audit work program. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the auditor to take9

Options:

A.

Request additional information needed from management of the area under review.

B.

Obtain approval from the engagement supervisor

C.

Obtain the required resources, including IT. to complete the work

D.

Discuss the change in scope with management of the area under review.

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Questions 90

During follow-up, the chief audit executive (CAE) is having a discussion with management about the internal audit team ' s recommendations related to a significant issue Management accepted the issue but took no remedial action What is the next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

The CAE should reassess and validate the risk tolerance policy

B.

The CAE should escalate the issue to senior management .

C.

The CAE should reiterate the internal audit team ' s recommendations to management .

D.

The CAE should grant management more time to implement the recommendation and check the status of the issue during the next scheduled follow-up.

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Questions 91

As part of the preliminary survey, an internal auditor sent an internal control questionnaire to the accounts payable function Based on the questionnaire responses, the auditor determines that there is no established procedure for adding and approving new vendors. What would the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Determine that this situation is acceptable and focus on more significant issues

B.

Document the issue m the draft audit report

C.

Document the observation for further follow up when testing the operating effectiveness of controls

D.

Interview the personnel associated with this observation.

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Questions 92

Which of the following is the most important concept to be included in a consulting engagement agreement?

Options:

A.

Define the duties and responsibilities needed from management to perform the engagement.

B.

Disclose the fact that auditors who perform the work may not be subject matter experts in the topic of the review.

C.

Clarify that matters discovered during the engagement may also be reported to senior management and the audit committee.

D.

Disclose the fact that follow-up reviews may be conducted to ensure that recommendations are implemented adequately.

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Questions 93

Which of the following internal audit activity staffing models has the disadvantage that auditors are always new and in training?

Options:

A.

Career model.

B.

Center of competence model.

C.

Rotational model.

D.

Hybrid model.

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Questions 94

An internal auditor has been asked to join a project team to help design controls in a software application to address specific risks that have been identified by the team Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Facilitate a control assessment to ensure all application risks were appropriately identified

B.

Advise the project team on how to develop effective controls

C.

Direct the project team to implement the appropriate controls within the software application

D.

Provide assurance that the design of the controls will mitigate the identified application risks

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Questions 95

A manager has allowed a subordinate employee to have greater control and responsibility over the tasks that he performs This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Job enlargement

B.

Job enrichment

C.

Horizontal loading of the job.

D.

Job rotation.

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Questions 96

An IT auditor is reviewing the access controls in an organization ' s accounting application. The auditor intends to deploy a tool that can help test the logical controls embedded in the system to ensure employee access is granted according to need. Which of the following would help achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

Audit expert systems.

D.

integrated test facility

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Questions 97

According to IIA guidance, when would an interim report typically be produced?

Options:

A.

During a standard audit engagement when management wants to address an issue before the final report is drafted.

B.

Following each workshop conducted during a consulting engagement.

C.

During lengthy audit engagements involving several organizational units.

D.

Following management ' s update tor actions taken on outstanding recommendations.

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Questions 98

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization ' s board?

1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 99

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager ' s decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

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Questions 100

In a small internal audit function, a single auditor is responsible for conducting the entire audit engagement. In this situation, what is the benefit of using a checklist as part of an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Allocation of tasks and responsibilities within the team.

B.

Facilitation of review by business representatives involved.

C.

Overview of results from previous audits.

D.

Retention of an audit trail regarding completion of tasks.

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Questions 101

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive would best ensure that internal auditors demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Developing policies and procedures for the internal audit activity

B.

Ensuring the internal audit activity is not found fallible during audit engagements.

C.

Undertaking all engagements that management requests of the internal audit activity.

D.

Ensuring the internal audit activity reports functionally to the board of directors

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Questions 102

According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory of Motivation, which of the following factors are mentioned most often by satisfied employees9

Options:

A.

Salary and status.

B.

Responsibility and advancement

C.

Work conditions and security.

D.

Peer relationships and personal life

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Questions 103

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio.

B.

Profit margin.

C.

Current ratio.

D.

Times interest earned.

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Questions 104

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

Options:

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity’s position within the organization.

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Questions 105

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, an internal auditor seeks to gam an understanding of now when the area under review is accomplishing its objectives When of the

Following information-gathering techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

A review of the key performance indicators of me area under review.

B.

A walkthrough of the key processes of the area under review.

C.

An interview with the manager regarding the area ' s business plan.

D.

A review of previous audit and follow- up results of the area under review

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Questions 106

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management

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Questions 107

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

Options:

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Questions 108

A toy manufacturer receives certain components from an overseas supplier and uses them to assemble final products Recently quality reviews have identified numerous issues regarding the components ' compliance with mandatory quality standards. Which type of engagement would be most appropriate to assess the root causes of the quality issues?

Options:

A.

A risk assessment

B.

An operational audit

C.

A third-party audit

D.

A fraud investigation

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Questions 109

According to HA guidance, which of the following is the Key planning step internal auditors should perform to establish appropriate engagement objectives prior to starting an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Review the organizational structure, management roles and responsibilities and operating procedures

B.

Evaluate management ' s risk assessment and the internal audit activity ' s risk assessment

C.

Assess process How and control documents used to meet regulatory requirements

D.

Review meeting notes from discussions involving management of the area to be reviewed.

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Questions 110

A manufacturing organization specializes in the production of evaporated milk and breakfast cereals. The manufacturing processes create significant loss in the form of waste and byproducts. The provision for normal production loss is known to senior management, but little action is taken when abnormal production losses occur. The organization sells its production byproducts to fish farmers at a reduced price. The byproducts are a widely recognized and used product in the fish farming industry. The organization has a policy that also allows its employees to purchase the byproducts at a negligible price. Based on the above, which of the following risks should the internal audit function consider when planning an engagement of the production process?

Options:

A.

The production team may be incentivized to increase production losses.

B.

The production team may work overtime and be overworked.

C.

Increased misappropriation of finished products.

D.

Risk that the finished product quality may be impaired.

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Questions 111

An internal auditor selects a sample of paid invoices and matches them to receiving reports. What is the most likely purpose for this procedure?

Options:

A.

To ensure all customer shipments are billed appropriately.

B.

To ensure invoices are only paid for goods received.

C.

To ensure all liabilities have been satisfied.

D.

To ensure invoices are only paid for goods ordered.

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Questions 112

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team’s IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization ' s IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

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Questions 113

Which of the following statements is true regarding partnership liquidation?

Options:

A.

Operations can continue after the liquidation, if all partners agree.

B.

Partnership liquidation ends both the legal and economic life of an entity

C.

Partnership liquidation occurs when there is capital deficiency.

D.

When a partnership Is liquidated, each partner pays creditors from cash received

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Questions 114

Which of the following could increase risks to the organization’s control environment?

Options:

A.

Strong board of directors oversight.

B.

Incentive-based compensation structures

C.

Lower than average employee turnover.

D.

Implementation of a fraud hotline

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Questions 115

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) lo propose interim changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan ' '

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval.

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO tor approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval.

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Questions 116

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management ' s action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

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Questions 117

Which of the following would be most useful for an internal auditor to obtain during the preliminary survey of an engagement on internal controls over user access management?

Options:

A.

The policy for granting, modifying, and deleting user access to ensure processing requirements are clearly articulated.

B.

A sample of change request forms to verify whether the forms bear the required approval for the user access change.

C.

User access reports that were reviewed by management to ensure that access rights are appropriate for employee roles.

D.

A current listing of system users and an employee listing to determine whether system users are active employees of the organization.

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Questions 118

An internal audit manager assigns an audit team to test purchase transactions by selecting a sample from transactions processed by each of the three procurement officers.

Which of the following techniques will help the audit team achieve this sampling objective?

Options:

A.

Systematic sampling.

B.

Stratified sampling.

C.

Stop-or-go sampling

D.

Discovery sampling.

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Questions 119

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

Options:

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE ' s salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

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Questions 120

Which of the following would be most likely found in an internal audit procedures manual?

Options:

A.

A summary of the strategic plan of the area under review.

B.

Appropriate response options for when findings are disputed by management.

C.

An explanation of the resources needed for each engagement.

D.

The extent of the auditor ' s authority to collect data from management.

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Questions 121

Which of the following statements about internal audit ' s follow-up process is true?

Options:

A.

The nature, timing, and extent of follow-up for assurance engagements is standardized to ensure quality performance.

B.

The actions of external auditors and other external assurance providers is not encompassed by internal audit ' s follow-up process.

C.

Internal auditors have responsibility for determining if management and the board have implemented the recommended action or otherwise accepted the risk.

D.

The follow-up process must be complete and documented in the working papers in order to conclude the engagement.

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Questions 122

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization ' s health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

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Questions 123

An organization must maintain a current ratio of at least 1.2 to comply with debt covenants. Its current ratio is now 0.9. Which year-end transaction can increase the current ratio?

Options:

A.

Paying off an overdraft debt using funds from another bank current account.

B.

Purchasing inventory using funds from long-term bank loans.

C.

Acquiring a new car through leasing.

D.

Factoring short-term accounts receivable in exchange for cash.

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Questions 124

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors

C.

The internal audit activity ' s purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management ' s assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

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Questions 125

According to MA guidance, which of the following factors should an internal auditor consider when assessing the likelihood of fraud risk1?

Options:

A.

The effect on the organization ' s reputation

B.

Any potential damage to the organization ' s relationship with customers.

C.

Past fraud allegations and actual occurrences

D.

The potential and realized financial impacts

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Questions 126

During an audit, the chief audit executive reviews and approves changes to the audit program. Which of the following describes this activity?

Options:

A.

Engagement reporting

B.

Continuous monitoring

C.

Engagement supervision

D.

Engagement risk assessment

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Questions 127

The audit manager asked the internal auditor to perform additional testing because several irregularities were found in the financial information. Which of the following would be the most appropriate analytical review for the auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Compare the firm ' s financial performance with organizations in the same industry

B.

Interview all managers involved in preparing the financial statements

C.

Perform a bank reconciliation to confirm the cash balance in the financial statements.

D.

Trace each financial transaction to the original supporting document

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Questions 128

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?

Options:

A.

CSA allows management to have input into the audit plan.

B.

CSA allows process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improving control deficiencies.

C.

CSA can improve the control environment.

D.

CSA increases control consciousness.

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Questions 129

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

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Questions 130

An organization obtains maintenance personnel from a third-party service provider. The third-party service provider submits monthly timetables of contracted maintenance personnel and bills the organization on an hourly basis. Which of the following will most likely help an internal auditor validate the number of hours billed by the third-party service provider?

Options:

A.

Conduct a due diligence review of the third-party service provider

B.

Ask the third-party service provider to provide internal time-keeping records

C.

Obtain access logs from entrances to the organization ' s facilities

D.

Interview the manager responsible for contracting external personnel

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Questions 131

According to IIA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the Internal audit activity^

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan.

B.

CAE meets privately with the CEO at least annually

C.

CAE meets privately with the board at least annually.

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

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Questions 132

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization ' s principal risk events.

C.

The organization ' s risk response strategies

D.

The organization ' s major control activities

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Questions 133

Which of the following statements is false regarding audit criteria?

Options:

A.

Audit criteria should be consistent across audit assignments.

B.

Audit criteria should represent reasonable standards against which to assess existing conditions.

C.

Audit criteria should provide flexibility but allow identification of nonadherence.

D.

Audit criteria should equate to good or acceptable management practices.

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Questions 134

While conducting an information security audit, an internal auditor learns that the existing disaster recovery plan is four years old and untested. The auditor also learns that in the four years since the recovery plan was implemented, the information systems have undergone extensive changes. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform management and request that the plan be tested immediately.

B.

Update the recovery plan for management, as part of the review.

C.

Evaluate the recovery plan and report weaknesses to management.

D.

Recommend that management and users update and test the recovery plan.

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Questions 135

In addition to gathering information, which of the following is a primary objective of a client interview conducted during the planning stage of an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

To obtain sufficient audit evidence.

B.

To test the client ' s knowledge.

C.

To agree on the auditor’s scope of authority.

D.

To establish rapport.

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Questions 136

An internal auditor is assessing whether a vendor onboarding procedure is being followed in all business units. The procedure has been centrally designed and depicts activities and validations that must be performed at every step. Which of the following is the most suitable way to compile an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

Develop statements that are based on the procedure requirements and ask respondents to select yes or no responses

B.

Develop open questions that inquire about the appropriateness and efficacy of the procedure

C.

Develop closed questions asking managers to describe the onboarding process in detail

D.

Develop multiple response questions where a respondent has to identify one correct answer out of four

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Questions 137

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity ' s responsibility within a risk and control framework?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity constitutes the first line of defense in effective risk management.

B.

The internal audit activity provides direction regarding internal controls implementation.

C.

The internal audit activity verifies that management has met its responsibility for implementing effective controls.

D.

The internal audit activity implements the internal control framework and advises management regarding best practices

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Questions 138

The following is a list of major findings in the executive summary report for an audit of the contract management process

- Noncompliance with contract provisions requiring vendors to obtain insurance policies with indemnity value of not less than $1 million

- Compliance with contract obligations and deliverables is not monitored

- No contract agreement with five vendors providing core services

Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion that can be drawn from these findings?

Options:

A.

These are weaknesses resulting from a lack of a documented contracting policy

B.

Substandard service delivery by vendors may not be detected

C.

Management should expedite actions to rectify the observations identified

D.

The internal controls guiding contract management are not operating effectively

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Questions 139

Which of the following statements is true regarding managements use of judgement to design, implement, and conduct internal control?

Options:

A.

The use of judgment enhances managements ability to make better decisions about internal control, but cannot guarantee perfect outcomes.

B.

introducing judgment generally diminishes managements ability to make good decisions about internal control

C.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in areas such as specifying and using suitable accounting principles.

D.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in assessing whether components are present, functioning, and operating together

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Questions 140

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the best first step to manage risk when a third party is overseeing the organization’s network and data ' ?

Options:

A.

Creating a comprehensive reporting system for vendors to demonstrate their ongoing due diligence in network operations.

B.

Drafting a strong contract that requires regular vendor control reports and a right-to-audit clause

C.

Applying administrative privileges to ensure right-to-access controls are appropriate

D.

Creating a standing cybersecurity committee to identify and manage risks related to data security.

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Questions 141

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor most likely be questioned on?

Options:

A.

The auditor confirms the organization ' s ownership of physical equipment by verifying its presence on site visually.

B.

The auditor vouches for a sample of check copies to support voucher packages to test the checks ' validity.

C.

The auditor vouches a sales invoice to a shipping document to conclude that the invoice has been issued.

D.

The auditor recalculates the allowance for doubtful accounts based on management assertions.

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Questions 142

Which of the following should an internal auditor document to support an assurance engagement’s conclusions?

Options:

A.

Evidence of all data used in an engagement

B.

Internal audit policies and workpaper templates

C.

Workpapers, cross-referenced to audit observations

D.

Satisfaction ratings from management of the area under review

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Questions 143

The chief audit executive was asked to define me internal audit activity s key performance indicators (KPIs) tor the upcoming year. The KPIs must measure efficiency and effectiveness. Which of the following is an example of a KPI that measures effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports are consistently submitted prior to the audit report deadline

B.

Post engagement surveys completed by management indicate a " meets or exceeds expectations " idling

C.

There is a significant reduction of travel costs per project over the next fiscal year

D.

Internal auditors identify a minimum number of issues and provide recommendations to address them for each audit

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Questions 144

According to IIA guidance which of the following best describes reliable information?

Options:

A.

Reliable information is factual adequate, and convincing so that a prudent informed person would reach the same conclusions as the internal auditor

B.

Reliable information is the best attainable information through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Reliable information supports engagement observations and recommendations and is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

Reliable information helps the organization and the internal audit activity meet its goals

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Questions 145

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding heat maps?

Options:

A.

A heat map sets likelihood to have higher priority than impact.

B.

A heat map sets impact to have higher priority than likelihood.

C.

A heat map recognizes that the priority of impact and likelihood can vary.

D.

A heat map recognizes impact and likelihood as equally important

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Questions 146

Which of the following statements is false regarding roles and responsibilities pertaining to risk management and control?

Options:

A.

Senior management is charged with overseeing the establishment risk management and control processes.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for overseeing the evaluation risk management and control processes.

C.

Operating managers are responsible for assessing risks and controls in their departments.

D.

Internal auditors provide assurance about risk management and control process effectiveness.

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Questions 147

An internal auditor conducted interviews with several employees, documented the interviews analyzed the summaries, and drew a number of conclusions. What sort of audit evidence has the internal auditor primarily obtained?

Options:

A.

Documentary evidence

B.

Testimonial evidence

C.

Analytical evidence

D.

Physical evidence

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Questions 148

A chief audit executive (CAE) following up on action plans from previously completed audits identifies that management has determined that certain action plans are no longer necessary If the CAE disagrees with managements decision, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE must discuss the matter with senior management

B.

The CAE must discuss the matter with key shareholders.

C.

The CAE must discuss the matter with legal counsel.

D.

The CAE must discuss the matter with the board

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Questions 149

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

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Questions 150

An internal audit function described scenarios of fraud indicators and fraud-related key words. The objective is for this data to serve as an input into algorithms that will forecast potentially fraudulent behavior and prevent the execution of flagged transactions. Which of the following analytic methods is the internal audit function most likely developing?

Options:

A.

Diagnostic analytics

B.

Descriptive analytics

C.

Prescriptive analytics

D.

Predictive analytics

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Questions 151

Which is the most appropriate evaluation criterion regarding the quality of audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Every workpaper should provide reasonable evidence of work conducted.

B.

Every workpaper should result in appropriately worded audit findings.

C.

Every workpaper should include a conclusion regarding the likelihood of fraud.

D.

Every workpaper should be approved by the engagement client.

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Questions 152

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The engagement objectives are the boundaries for the engagement, which outline what will be included in the review

B.

The risk-based objectives of the engagement can be determined once the scope of the engagement has been formed

C.

For a consulting engagement, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined

D.

For an assurance engagement, once the scope is established and testing has begun, the scope cannot be modified.

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Questions 153

Which of the following would best prevent phishing attacks on an organization?

Options:

A.

An intrusion detection system

B.

Use of firewalls

C.

Regular security awareness training

D.

Application hardening

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Questions 154

Which of the following is an example of internal benchmarking?

Options:

A.

Book value per common share ratio is lower than that of the prior year.

B.

Staff turnover ratio is higher than the comparable organization in the same industry.

C.

Utilities expense of the sales unit is higher than that of the customer service unit.

D.

Sales are significantly higher than the industry’s average for five years.

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Questions 155

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

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Questions 156

Which of the following computerized audit tools or techniques should be used if the internal auditor wants to extract specific files and records in the database?

Options:

A.

An expert or decision support system

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

A system utility program

D.

An integrated test facility

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Questions 157

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment.

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms.

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with internal policy.

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Questions 158

An internal auditor has been assigned to facilitate a risk and control self-assessment for the finance group. Which of the following is the most appropriate role that she should assume when facilitating the workshop?

Options:

A.

Express an opinion on the participants ' inputs and conclusions as the assessment progresses.

B.

Provide appropriate techniques and guidelines on how the exercise should be undertaken.

C.

Evaluate and report on all issues that may be uncovered during the exercise.

D.

Screen and vet participants so that the most appropriate candidates are selected to participate in the exercise.

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Questions 159

Which of the following manual audit approaches describes testing the validity of a document by following it backward to a previously prepared record?

Options:

A.

Tracing

B.

Reperformance

C.

Vouching

D.

Walkthrough

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Questions 160

Which of the following is the best audit procedure to obtain evidence of an organization ' s legal ownership of a new property?

Options:

A.

Review documents registered with the appropriate governmental authority.

B.

Examine the board of directors ' minutes and look for approvals to acquire property.

C.

Confirm with senior management and legal counsel concerning property acquisition.

D.

Confirm ownership with the title company that handles the escrow account.

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Questions 161

Senior management requested that the internal audit activity perform a consulting project to assist in making a decision on a new software system. Which of the following would be used to determine the engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

An assessment of risks to the business objectives

B.

An understanding of the engagement client ' s expectations

C.

The probability of significant errors fraud or noncompliance

D.

Criteria previously established by the board

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Questions 162

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management’s self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

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Questions 163

Where should internal auditor focus their attention when identify and assessing key risks during the planning stage of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Audit risk.

C.

Residual risk.

D.

Inherent risk

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Questions 164

The external auditor has identified a number of production process control deficiencies involving several departments. As a result, senior management has asked the internal audit activity to complete internal control training for all related staff. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to follow?

Options:

A.

Refuse to accept the consulting engagement because it would be a violation of independence.

B.

Collaborate with the external auditor to ensure the most efficient use of resources.

C.

Accept the engagement but hire an external training specialist to provide the necessary expertise.

D.

Accept the engagement even if the audit engagement staff was previously responsible for operational areas being trained.

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Questions 165

The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization has completed this year’s risk-based audit plan and realized that current staff resources are insufficient to meet the needs of the plan. What course of action should the CAE take?

Options:

A.

Amend the audit plan so that available audit resources are adequate to meet the plan’s requirements.

B.

Inform the board and senior management of the resources needed, as well as the associated risks.

C.

Communicate early to those unit managers whose areas would most likely not be able to get reviewed.

D.

Get approval from human resources regarding overtime payment to be made in an effort to complete the audit plan.

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Questions 166

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a charitable contribution from the organization. Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee ' s final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions.

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities.

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Questions 167

The final engagement communication contains the following observation:

The internal auditor discovered that three of the 10 contracts reviewed failed to meet the organization ' s competitive bidding requirements Management explained that senior management deemed these purchases to be critical and awarded them as sole-source. "

Which of the following components is missing in the documentation of the observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria.

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

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Questions 168

An organization is expanding into a new line of business selling natural gas. The internal auditor is planning an engagement and wants to obtain a general understanding of the natural gas market the market share that the organization wants to win, and the competitive advantage that the organization may have. Which of the following would be the best source of such information?

Options:

A.

Interview responsible managers and read strategic documents

B.

Conduct internet searches on gas sales and analyze market players

C.

Review gas clients ' portfolio and compile statistics on sales margins

D.

Analyze the organization ' s revenues and calculate the proportion of gas

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Questions 169

Which of the following statements is true regarding the final assurance engagement report issued to management?

Options:

A.

Ratings are only used to assess the condition of an observation made by an internal auditor.

B.

Audit findings may be communicated to management prior to issuance of the final approved audit report.

C.

Communications must be relevant logical, and free from errors before they are disseminated.

D.

The audit report must present the information in the following order (1) audit scope, (2) engagement objectives, and (3) engagement results

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Questions 170

Which of the following reasonably represents best practices regarding what should be the level of internal audit resource investment in monitoring and following up on engagement outcomes?

Options:

A.

Limited resources should be employed since the actual engagement is already completed and the onus of corrective actions rests with management

B.

No resources should be exclusively deployed for that at all rather it should be planned as part of future engagements in the same area

C.

Resources should only be provided towards this if doing so does not result in depletion of resources for new engagements planned in the current period

D.

Resources should be allocated to this without conditions as long as doing so meets the expectations of management and the judgment of the chief audit executive.

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Questions 171

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control self-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers.

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit hours.

D.

internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only if the other assurance providers report directly to the board

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Questions 172

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires?

Options:

A.

Internal control questionnaires are useful m evaluating the effectiveness of standard operating procedures

B.

internal control questionnaires provide reliable documents allowing internal auditors to cover many control procedures in little time

C.

Internal control questionnaires can be used by internal auditors as an interview guide

D.

Internal control questionnaires provide direct audit evidence which may need corroboration

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Questions 173

According to IIA guidance, which of the following steps should precede the development of audit engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls.

B.

Scope establishment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Review of resources.

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Questions 174

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor ' s review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor ' s approval of resources allocated to the engagement

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Questions 175

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action Which of the following describes managements action in this case?

Options:

A.

A condition-based action plan

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

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Questions 176

When is an organic organizational structure likely to be more successful than a mechanistic organizational structure?

Options:

A.

When a manufacturing organization has stable demand for its products.

B.

When an organization is subjected to strong political and social pressures

C.

When a manufacturer has reliable resources and suppliers.

D.

When an organization is infrequently affected by technological advances

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Questions 177

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

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Questions 178

Which of the following is a primary reason for an internal auditor to use a risk and control questionnaire when auditing financial processes?

Options:

A.

To gain an understanding of the control environment

B.

To collect as much financial data as possible before engagement fieldwork begins.

C.

To test the effectiveness of financial controls in an efficient and relatively inexpensive way

D.

To facilitate the quantification of financial data obtained

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Questions 179

Which of the following offers the best explanation of why the auditor in charge would assign a junior auditor to complete a complex part of the audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The senior auditors are unavailable, as they are currently working on other portions of the engagement.

B.

The auditor in charge believes that the junior auditor should obtain a specific type of experience.

C.

The audit engagement has a tight deadline and the work must be completed timely.

D.

The auditor in charge is unable to identify audit staff with all of the required skills needed to complete the engagement.

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Questions 180

If an engagement supervisor discovers insufficient information to draw a conclusion in workpapers, which action should she take first?

Options:

A.

Assign another auditor to complete the audit step and produce a new error-free workpaper.

B.

Document the problem as a review comment and continue with the audit.

C.

Discuss the matter with the auditor who produced the workpapers and improve the training manual.

D.

Complete the audit step herself to ensure accuracy and take additional steps to improve the audit training plan.

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Questions 181

Which of the following best describes the guideline for preparing audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Workpapers should be understandable to the auditor in charge and the chief audit executive.

B.

Workpapers should be understandable to the audit client and the board.

C.

Workpapers should be understandable to another internal auditor who was not involved in the engagement.

D.

Workpapers should be understandable to external auditors and regulatory agencies.

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Questions 182

Besides a chief audit executive ' s professional experience what determines the frequency and approach to assessing residual risk?

Options:

A.

The frequency of executing the internal audit engagements

B.

The frequency of changes in the organization environment

C.

The expectations set by the board and senior management

D.

The expectations set by operating management and senior management

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Questions 183

Some lime after the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor teamed that several internal control deficiencies were not remedied, despite management ' s previous agreement to remedy them According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response ' 5

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor must notify the chief audit executive (CAE) that the deficiencies have not been rectified

B.

The engagement supervisor should rely on professional judgment as to whether the CAE should be informed, or the management action plan should be adjusted

C.

The engagement supervisor should rely on his negotiation skills and issue an ultimatum to management to remedy the control deficiencies

D.

Ensure that these deficiencies are captured in the documentation as high-priority areas to be reviewed during the next audit.

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Questions 184

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors.

C.

The internal audit activity ' s purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management ' s assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

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Questions 185

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization ' s strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 186

At a conference an internal auditor presented a new computer-assisted audit technique developed by his organization The presentation included sample data derived from performing audit engagements for the organization. Travel costs were paid by the conference organizers and the trip was approved by the chief audit executive (CAE). However, neither management nor the CAE was aware that the internal auditor would be making a presentation based on work completed for the organization According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is most relevant regarding the actions of the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor did not violate the standard of objectivity because the presentation had no impact on the organization.

B.

The auditor violated the principle of confidentiality by disclosing information about the organization without approval.

C.

The auditor should have obtained permission before using the material, but did not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards

D.

The auditor breached the conflict of interest standard by accepting payment for travel costs

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Questions 187

Senior management wants assurance that third-party contractors are following procedures as agreed with the organization. Which type of audit would be most appropriate

to achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

A compliance audit.

B.

A due diligence audit.

C.

A financial audit.

D.

An external audit.

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Questions 188

An organization has identified new strategic goals, and a current objective is to determine an optimal course of action to meet those goals. Which data analytics method is used to achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Diagnostic analysis

B.

Predictive analysis

C.

Network analysis

D.

Prescriptive analysis

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Questions 189

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

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Questions 190

Which of the following would offer the strongest evidence to support the internal auditor ' s conclusion that a product is in stock, as stated in the accounting records?

Options:

A.

The auditor performs an observation.

B.

The vendor provides third-party confirmation.

C.

The auditor documents interviews with multiple warehouse personnel.

D.

Warehouse management submits photographs of the product on the inventory shelf.

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Questions 191

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

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Questions 192

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor ' s use of review notes?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

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Questions 193

Which of the following is an example of a directive control?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Exception reports

C.

Training programs,

D.

Supervisory review.

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Questions 194

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization ' s goals.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 195

According to HA guidance on IT, which of the following actions would be performed as part of the " Define IT Universe " stage of the IT audit plan development process?

Options:

A.

Identify significant applications that support the business operations

B.

Assess risk and rank subjects using business risk factors

C.

Identify how the organization structures its business operations

D.

Select audit subjects and bundle into distinct audit engagements

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Questions 196

An organization ' s finance manager plans to implement a state-of-the-art management system to better manage the organization ' s receivables. The finance manager consulted the chief audit executive (CAE) and asked for her assistance in determining whether the organization is able to accommodate this system. How would the CAE proceed to determine the objectives of this engagement

Options:

A.

Ask the CEO to determine the scope and objectives of the engagement

B.

Request that the board disclose its concerns over governance for inclusion in the engagement

C.

Discuss the concerns with the finance manager and work together to agree on the engagement objectives

D.

Review previous audit reports from the area and develop engagement objectives to address the area ' s key risks and controls

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Questions 197

Which of the following best describes the manual audit procedure known as vouching?

Options:

A.

Testing the validity of information by following it backward to a previously prepared record

B.

Testing the accuracy of the control by reperforming the task or process required

C.

Soliciting and obtaining written verification of the accuracy from an independent third party

D.

Testing the completeness of information forward from a record to a subsequently prepared document

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Questions 198

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 199

An internal auditor uses a data query tool in the purchasing process to review the vendor master file for authorizations Which of the following describes the control objective likely being tested?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness

B.

Response

C.

Efficiency

D.

Mitigation.

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Questions 200

The audit committee has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to conduct an ad hoc forensic investigation of the purchasing department within a month due to the significance and urgency of a recently discovered risk The internal audit activity currently has no available staff with relevant experience or qualifications Which of the following is the CAE ' s best option for fulfilling the internal audit activity ' s responsibilities in this case?

Options:

A.

Outsource the investigation to independent professional consultants

B.

Select certain internal auditors and remove them from their current assignments so that they can begin a forensic investigation course

C.

Recruit additional internal auditors possessing relevant qualification and experience

D.

Decline the engagement at this time

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Questions 201

Which of the following is least likely to help ensure that risk is considered in a work program?

Options:

A.

Risks are discussed with audit client.

B.

All available information from the risk-based plan is used.

C.

Client efforts to affect risk management are considered.

D.

Prior risk assessments are considered.

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Questions 202

According to IIA guidance, which of the following typically serves as the basis for an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Past audit findings.

B.

Scope and audit objectives.

C.

Techniques and resources.

D.

Stakeholders ' expectations.

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Questions 203

During the planning process for a human resources audit, an internal auditor obtains an organizational chart. The auditor observes a flat organizational structure. Which of the below risks should the auditor consider for this engagement?

Options:

A.

Transactions and decision-making require multiple approvals, resulting in processing delays.

B.

Career and promotion paths are not easily visible and defined.

C.

Communication is likely to be top-down, with little feedback from lower-level employees.

D.

Employees have little autonomy, which may result in employee turnover or low morale.

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Questions 204

Which of the following is true regarding the communication of engagement results with stakeholders?

Options:

A.

When the chief audit executive (CAE) concludes that management has accepted a level of risk that may be unacceptable to the organization, the CAE must discuss the matter with senior management. If the CAE determines that the matter has not been resolved, the CAE should seek the opinion from regulatory bodies.

B.

The CAE should avoid issuing any interim reports, even for high-risk observations, prior to the issuance of the final written report to avoid leakage of sensitive information.

C.

It is mandatory for the CAE to assess the potential risk to the organization, consult with senior management and legal counsel as appropriate, and control dissemination by restricting the use of the results prior to releasing them to parties outside of the organization if not otherwise mandated by legal, statutory, or regulatory requirements.

D.

The board should always be given the final written internal audit reports at the conclusion of all internal audit engagements. Executive summaries should be avoided in all cases.

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Questions 205

A chief audit executive (CAE) a developing a work program for an upcoming engagement that will review an organization’s small contracting services. When of the following would the CAT need to consider most when developing the work program?

Options:

A.

The contracting department ' s staffing changes within the last year

B.

The certifications held by the internal auditors assigned to the engagement

C.

The internal audit activity ' s increase n budget and staffing for the year

D.

The organization ' s recent changes to how it processes payments

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Questions 206

An internal auditor is using attributes sampling to test internal controls. Under which of the following circumstances would the auditor increase the original sample size to estimate error occurrence at a given precision and confidence level?

Options:

A.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision exceeds the acceptable error rate.

B.

The sample rate of occurrence is less than the acceptable error rate.

C.

The acceptable rate of occurrence less the precision exceeds the sample rate of occurrence.

D.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision equals the acceptable error rate.

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Questions 207

Which of the following procedures would provide the most reliable evidence for an internal auditor testing whether defective products are effectively being identified and removed during processing before shipping to customers?

Options:

A.

Reviewing quality department survey results, which show 96% of employees believe all defective products are removed prior To shipping.

B.

Physically inspecting a sample of completed processing cycles for detective products prior to shipment.

C.

Observing employees while they raped products for defects

D.

Reviewing a quality report provided by management mat snows 13 products were identified and removed during me most recent processing cycle

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Questions 208

During a review of the treasury function an internal auditor identified a risk that all bank accounts may net to include in the daily reconciliation process.

Which of the following responses would be most effective to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

The treasury supervisor establishes a threshold for amounts on bank statements to be reconciled against data in the system

B.

The treasury analyst performs a daily reconciliation of al bank statements obtained via email against data in the system

C.

The treasury analyst reviews a daily report automatically generated by the treasury system, which shows bank statements that have not been uploaded into the accounting system.

D.

The treasury supervisor seeks an annual confirmation from the bank regarding the bank statements processed within a year

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Questions 209

An internal auditor is reviewing the accuracy of commission payments by recalculating 100% of the commissions and comparing them to the amount paid. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is most appropriate for identified variances?

Options:

A.

Document the results and report the overall percentage of variances.

B.

Determine the significance of the variances and investigate causes as needed.

C.

Review the results and investigate the cause of all variances.

D.

Report all variances to management and request an action plan to remediate them.

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Questions 210

Which of the following recommendation types is most likely to propose the most long-term solutions?

Options:

A.

Condition-based recommendations

B.

Cause-based recommendations

C.

Effect-based recommendations

D.

Root cause-based recommendations

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Questions 211

Applying ISO 31000; which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment.

D.

The method of determining the risk level

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Questions 212

An organization buys crude oil on the open market and refines it into a high-quality gasoline. The price of crude oil is extremely volatile. Which of the following is the most appropriate risk management technique to protect the organization against these price fluctuations?

Options:

A.

Enter into long-term gasoline purchase agreements with end customers.

B.

Trade crude oil derivatives at financial markets in order to benefit from price fluctuations

C.

Purchase crude oil-related derivatives such as futures or options

D.

Stock as much raw materials as possible and consider Investing into additional facilities

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Questions 213

What information would be most useful to an internal auditor who is attempting to identify specific processes to include in the scope of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Recent organizationwide recognition awards given to employees within the area.

B.

The timing of the most recent audit of the area.

C.

Management ' s presentation to the board regarding recent area achievements.

D.

Recent area performance indicators against productivity metrics.

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Questions 214

An organization ' s health-care insurance costs have been rising approximately 10 percent per year for several years Which of the following analytical review procedures would best evaluate the reasonableness of the increase in health-care costs?

Options:

A.

Develop a comparison of the costs incurred with similar costs incurred by other organizations

B.

Obtain the government index of health-care costs for the comparable period of time and compare the rate of increase with that of the cost per employee incurred by the organization.

C.

Obtain a bid from another health-care administrator to provide the same administrative services as the current health-care administrator.

D.

Review all claims and compare with appropriate procedures to ensure that overpayments have not occurred

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Questions 215

An internal auditor is planning to audit the organization ' s payroll function, which was recently outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Review management ' s organ nationwide risk assessment

B.

Understand the objectives and strategies of the new arrangement

C.

Revise the scope of the audit engagement

D.

Form objectives for the audit engagement

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Questions 216

Which of the following best demonstrates internal auditors performing their work with proficiency?

Options:

A.

internal auditors meet with operational management at each phase of the audit process.

B.

Internal auditors adhere to The IIA ' s Code of Ethics.

C.

Internal auditors work collaboratively with their engagement team.

D.

Internal auditors complete a program of continuing professional development.

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Questions 217

Which of the following measures immediate short-term liquidity?

Options:

A.

Current ratio

B.

Profit margin

C.

Quick ratio

D.

Times interest earned

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Questions 218

Which of the following internal audit procedures commonly involves sampling?

Options:

A.

Confirmation and financial statement analysis

B.

Reperformance and inspection

C.

Vouching and tracing

D.

Trend analysis and benchmarking

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Questions 219

Which of the following is the most appropriate objective for establishing a professional development plan for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A plan that focuses on furthering the independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

A plan that ensures internal auditors collectively possess expertise in various fields to avoid outsourcing.

C.

A plan based on individual preferences and proposals, which helps internal auditors achieve greater success.

D.

A plan that focuses on filling gaps in the current skills needed to complete audit objectives.

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Questions 220

Which of the following is the best approach for the internal audit function to communicate moderate and high risk observations to management?

Options:

A.

Prepare a formal observation worksheet for all observations identified and send to management to review and provide feedback at the end of fieldwork.

B.

Verbally communicate the high risk observations to management when identified and prepare a documented worksheet that includes the root cause, effect, and recommendations.

C.

Prepare a formal observation worksheet for the high risk observations and a separate worksheet for the medium risk observations in an email to management.

D.

Verbally communicate all observations to management at the end of fieldwork and provide a formal worksheet for review and feedback.

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Questions 221

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the internal audit activity’s work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment.

B.

Policies that match internal auditors ' performance with feedback from management of the area under review

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of Inappropriate business relationships

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Questions 222

An internal auditor submitted a report containing recommendations for management to enhance internal controls related to investments. To follow up, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Observe corrective measures.

B.

Seek a management assurance declaration.

C.

Follow up during the next scheduled audit.

D.

Conduct appropriate testing to verify management responses.

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Questions 223

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Results of internal assessments need to be reported to the board at least once every five years.

B.

The external assessor must present the findings from the external assessment to senior management and the board upon completion.

C.

Deficiencies within the internal audit activity must be reported to the board as soon as they are noted

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring of the internal audit activity’s performance must be reported to senior management and the board at least annually

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Questions 224

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

Options:

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource.

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department.

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: Internal Audit Engagement
Last Update: May 4, 2026
Questions: 747

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