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IIA-CRMA-ADV Certification in Risk Management Assurance Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The chief audit executive (CAE) has been asked to manage the regulatory compliance function for the organization's retail store operations. Store operations are included in the annual audit plan.

Which of the following strategies best fulfills the requirements of the Standards regarding these audits?

Options:

A.

The scope of store operations audits should exclude compliance.

B.

Store operations audits can be fully executed with appropriate disclosure to the board.

C.

Store operations audits should be performed by an external service provider.

D.

A store operations compliance audit should be performed by a staff internal auditor under the direction of the CAE.

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Questions 5

The director of purchasing, a certified internal auditor (CIA), signs a contract to procure a large order from a supplier whose products provide the best price, quality, and performance. A few days after signing the contract, the supplier presents the CIA with $1, 000 as a gift. Which statement regarding acceptance of the money is correct?

Options:

A.

Accepting the money would be prohibited only if it were non-customary.

B.

Accepting the money would violate the IIA Code of Ethics.

C.

Because the CIA is not acting as an internal auditor, accepting the money would be governed only by the organization's code of conduct.

D.

Because the contract was signed before the money was offered, accepting the money would not violate the IIA Code of Ethics.

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Questions 6

A candidate has applied for an entry level internal audit position. The candidate holds a CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) designation, and has six months of audit experience, but limited knowledge of accounting principles and techniques. According to the IIA guidance, which of the following is the most relevant reason for the chief audit executive to consider this candidate?

Options:

A.

Other internal auditors possess sufficient knowledge of accounting principles and techniques.

B.

The candidate's information systems knowledge and real-world experience in internal auditing.

C.

Accounting skills can be learned over time with appropriate training.

D.

An entry level position does not require expertise in any particular area.

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Questions 7

Which of the following is not a role of the internal audit activity in facilitating risk identification and evaluation?

Options:

A.

Evaluating risk management processes.

B.

Recommending accountability for risk management.

C.

Providing assurance that risks are evaluated correctly.

D.

Supporting managers to identify ways to mitigate risks.

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Questions 8

Which of the following statements describes a control failure that is not directly attributable to a customer billing application?

1. End users have raised a number of concerns regarding data integrity.

2. An untested program change is transferred from the test environment to production.

3. Purchase history does not reconcile with accounts receivable for some customers.

4. End user security is inadvertently granted to an unauthorized individual by management.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 9

Which of the following enhances the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) approves the annual internal audit plan.

B.

The CAE administratively reports to the board.

C.

The audit committee approves the CAE's annual salary increase.

D.

The chief executive officer approves the internal audit charter.

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Questions 10

A manufacturing organization discovers that the waste water released has failed to meet permitted limits.

Which control function will be least effective in correcting the issue?

Options:

A.

Performing a chemical analysis of the water, prior to discharge, for components specified in the permit.

B.

Posting signs that tell employees which substances may be disposed of via sinks and floor drains within the facility.

C.

Diluting pollutants by flushing sinks and floor drains daily with large volumes of clean water.

D.

Establishing a preventive maintenance program for the pretreatment system.

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Questions 11

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the principle of due professional care?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor evaluates the significant risks arising from a consulting engagement.

B.

An internal auditor declares that he would have a conflict of interest in providing planned audit support.

C.

An internal auditor has been given sufficient authority to access documents needed to make an appraisal of an issue.

D.

An internal auditor uses technology-based audit techniques to ensure that all significant risks are identified.

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Questions 12

An organization's chief audit executive (CAE) determines that the internal audit staff does not have the requisite skills to conduct an audit of the financial derivatives area. Which of the following would be the best course of action for the CAE to follow?

Options:

A.

Outsource the audit engagement to a qualified external auditing firm without burdening the audit committee with the decision.

B.

Determine the requisite knowledge needed, and obtain the proper training for auditors, even if the training will significantly push back the project's timeframe as outlined by the audit committee.

C.

Notify the audit committee of the problem, and assign the most competent auditors on staff to perform the audit engagement.

D.

Employ the skills of a financial derivatives expert to consult on the project, and supplement the consulting with a local seminar on financial derivatives.

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Questions 13

Why are preventative controls generally preferred to detective controls?

Options:

A.

Because preventive controls promote doing the right thing in the first place, and lessen the need for corrective action.

B.

Because preventive controls are more sensitive and identify more exceptions than detective controls.

C.

Because preventive controls include output procedures, which cover the full range of possible reviews, reconciliations and analysis.

D.

Because preventive controls identify exceptions after-the-fact, allowing them to be used after the entire review is complete and therefore finding exceptions that detective controls may have missed.

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Questions 14

During an account receivables audit, an internal auditor found a significant number of input errors resulting in a $500, 000 balance understatement.

Which of the following is the most important question the internal auditor should ask to develop an appropriate recommendation for this finding?

Options:

A.

Who?

B.

How?

C.

Why?

D.

When?

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Questions 15

While reviewing first quarter sales transactions, an internal auditor discovered that 10 invoices for a new customer had not been posted into the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger. Those 10 invoices were listed in an error report automatically generated by the sales processing system. The system had rejected the invoices because the customer's account number was not found in the customer master file. In this scenario, which of the following controls was lacking?

Options:

A.

Corrective control.

B.

Preventive control.

C.

Detective control.

D.

Directive control.

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Questions 16

A fraud investigation was completed by management, and a proven fraud was communicated to relevant authorities. According to MA guidance, which of the following roles would be most appropriate for the internal audit activity to undertake after the investigation?

Options:

A.

Plan employee sessions and team building strategies for the organization to improve awareness of fraud among employees.

B.

Review the investigation and implement any improvements to the process.

C.

Conduct lessons learned sessions to ascertain how the fraud occurred and which controls failed.

D.

Determine why The fraud was not detected earlier and design controls to strengthen early detection.

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Questions 17

Which of the following statements is true regarding assurance services provided to clients outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Assurance services for outside clients are not covered under the internal audit charter.

B.

Assurance services for outside clients must be approved on a case-by-case basis by the board of directors.

C.

The nature of assurance services for outside clients should be defined in the internal audit charter.

D.

The nature of assurance services for outside clients is the same as for internal clients.

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Questions 18

Which two of the following are preventive controls in a check disbursement process?

1. Daily reconciliation of the bank account used for check disbursements and prompt follow-up of un-reconciled items.

2. Segregation of the following duties: establishing new vendors, approving checks, and reconciling the bank account.

3. An activity report detailing who accesses the check disbursement system and the nature of any action taken in the system.

4. Evidence of strong access controls ensuring that authorized individuals have access only to the functions related to their responsibilities.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 19

Which of the following would not be a red flag for fraud?

Options:

A.

Several recent, large expenditures to a new vendor have not been documented.

B.

A manager has bragged about multiple extravagant vacations taken within the last year, which are excessive relative to the manager's salary.

C.

A weak control environment has been accepted by management to encourage creativity.

D.

New employees occasionally fail to meet established project deadlines due to staffing shortages.

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Questions 20

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the best example of a system application control?

Options:

A.

A physical security control over a data center.

B.

A system development life cycle control.

C.

A program change management control.

D.

An input control over data integrity.

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Questions 21

If an engagement client disputes that a specific action or process is within the scope of the internal audit activity, what would be the most appropriate way for the internal audit activity (IAA) to respond?

Options:

A.

Terminate the audit engagement in full because an operational audit will not be productive without the client's cooperation.

B.

Terminate only the specific action or process with which the client disagrees and work to determine a substitute function that will not impede further IAA or the client-audit relationship.

C.

Refer the client to the IAA's charter and the approved yearly audit plan, which includes the areas designated for audit in the current time period.

D.

Seek the approval of senior management or the board in mediation, allowing an overseer to clarify the scope of the audit engagement for the client.

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Questions 22

Which of the following are components of the COSO enterprise risk management framework?

1. Objective setting.

2. External environment.

3. Data collection.

4. Control activities.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Questions 23

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a mid-sized pharmaceutical organization has operational responsibility for the regulatory compliance function. The audit committee requests an assessment of regulatory compliance. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the CAE's best course of action?

Options:

A.

Have a proficient internal audit staff member perform the assessment and disclose the impairment in the audit report and to the board.

B.

Have a regulatory compliance staff member perform a self-assessment, to be reviewed by a proficient internal auditor.

C.

Have a proficient internal audit staff member perform the audit and report the results of the assessment directly to senior management and the board.

D.

Contract with a third-party entity or external auditor to complete the assessment and report the results to senior management and the board.

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Questions 24

Which of the following does not need to be defined in the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The audit engagements to be performed during the upcoming year.

B.

The internal audit activity's position within the organization.

C.

The scope of internal audit activities.

D.

Management and the board of directors' agreement regarding the roles and responsibilities of the internal audit activity.

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Questions 25

Which of the following risk management activities is most appropriate for an internal auditor to undertake?

Options:

A.

Impose risk management processes.

B.

Coordinate risk management activities.

C.

Implement risk responses on management's behalf.

D.

Review the management of key risks.

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Questions 26

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an area in which the internal auditor should be proficient?

Options:

A.

Management principles.

B.

Computerized information systems.

C.

Internal audit standards, procedures, and techniques.

D.

Fundamentals of accounting, economics, and finance.

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Questions 27

What type of risk management strategy is being employed when an organization installs two firewalls to provide protection from unauthorized access to the network?

Options:

A.

Diversifying the risk that network access will not be available to legitimate, authorized users.

B.

Accepting the risk that there may be attempts at unauthorized access to the network.

C.

Avoiding the risk of having a direct network connection to un-trusted networks.

D.

Sharing the risk that either firewall could be compromised by hackers.

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Questions 28

A chief audit executive (CAE) of an international charity reports functionally to the audit committee of the board of directors and administratively to the charity's chief financial officer (CFO).

Which of the following would impair the internal audit function's independence?

Options:

A.

The CFO determines the scope of internal audit work in the accounting department.

B.

The CFO manages the accounting of the budget for the internal audit function.

C.

The CFO administers the annual evaluation process for the internal auditors.

D.

The CFO provides feedback on the CAE's audit reports.

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Questions 29

Which of the following scenarios exemplifies a potential internal control weakness?

Options:

A.

The same employee who receives cash from customers prepares a prelisting of cash receipts.

B.

The same employee who records cash receipts in the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger ensures that the ledger automatically updates the information.

C.

The same employee who restrictively endorses checks received from customers prepares the bank's check deposit slips.

D.

The same employee who makes deposits at the bank prepares the monthly bank reconciliation.

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Questions 30

An internal auditor is performing analytical reviews as part of an audit of a supermarket's merchandising department. Because the economy has declined since midyear, the auditor can expect to encounter which of the following?

Options:

A.

Higher inventory turnover.

B.

Higher operating margin.

C.

Lower obsolete stock disposal.

D.

Lower sales volume.

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Questions 31

According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes the activity that helps ensure risk responses are carried out effectively?

Options:

A.

Objective setting.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Event identification.

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Questions 32

An internal audit activity (IAA) provided assurance services for an activity it was responsible for during the preceding year.

As a result, which IIA Code of Ethics principle is presumed to be impaired?

Options:

A.

Competence.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Objectivity.

D.

Independence.

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Questions 33

During an engagement, an internal auditor decided to use variance analysis as an auditing techniques. Which of the following steps should the auditor pursue if he discovers unexpected deviations of actual results from budget?

Options:

A.

Report the deviations immediately to the audit committee.

B.

Gather additional information to determine the cause of the deviations.

C.

Conclude that the budget was unreasonably set and accept the deviations.

D.

Perform alternative forms of analytical procedures which provide no deviations.

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Questions 34

The audit committee is concerned that the small size of the internal audit activity (IAA) makes it impractical to achieve full conformance with the Standards. To address this concern, which of the following actions is most appropriate for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE should agree with the audit committee and implement only those standards appropriate to the size of the IAA.

B.

The CAE should request the audit committee to review the Standards to identify specifically which are creating the greatest concern.

C.

The CAE should seek sufficient funding to increase audit resources to meet the minimum requirements of the Standards.

D.

The CAE should explain that conformance with the Standards is essential and not dependent upon the size of the IAA.

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Questions 35

This chief audit executive (CAE) engaged an internal auditor to consult on an organization's complex information technology system. Shortly after beginning the engagement, the auditor unexpectedly resigned. Unfortunately, this auditor was the only available auditor with the necessary expertise. The CAE will not be able to hire someone with similar expertise in time to meet a regulatory deadline.

Which of the following would be the best course of action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Continue with the engagement in order to meet the regulatory deadline, but highlight areas in the final report that might need to be revised in the future.

B.

Ask that a senior member of the organization's IT department with the required systems expertise join the audit team to assist in completing the engagement.

C.

Delay the engagement and inform the board of the situation, asking them to provide acceptable alternatives for completing the engagement.

D.

Remove the planned engagement from the audit plan and explain to senior management the problems with moving forward without an auditor with the necessary expertise.

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Questions 36

According to the Standards, for how long should internal auditors who have previously performed or had management responsibility for an operation wait to become involved in future internal audit activity with that same operation?

Options:

A.

Three months.

B.

Six months.

C.

One year.

D.

Two years.

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Questions 37

Which of the following statements accurately describes an internal auditor's responsibility with regard to due professional care?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor should express an opinion only when consensus with top management has been achieved.

B.

An internal auditor's opinion should be based on experience and free of all bias.

C.

An internal auditor's opinion should be based on factual evidence.

D.

An internal auditor's opinion should be limited to the effectiveness of internal controls.

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Questions 38

Which of the following would be considered a preventive control?

Options:

A.

A library control log.

B.

A review of exception reports.

C.

A password lock on a server.

D.

A software scan of financial records for irregularities.

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Questions 39

Which of the following is most likely to be considered a control weakness?

Options:

A.

Vendor invoice payment requests are accompanied by a purchase order and receiving report.

B.

Purchase orders are typed by the purchasing department using prenumbered forms.

C.

Buyers promptly update the official vendor listing as new supplier sources become known.

D.

Department managers initiate purchase requests that must be approved by the plant superintendent.

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Questions 40

Why is it important for the chief audit executive to periodically review the audit charter and present the results to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

Because management requires the review to measure effectiveness of the internal audit activity.

B.

So that the individual objectivity of the internal audit staff can be more clearly established.

C.

So that there is assurance of the internal audit staff's proficiency to complete audit activities.

D.

Because changes in the organization may impair the internal audit activity's ability to meet its objectives.

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Questions 41

Which of the following is not an appropriate activity for internal auditors to perform?

Options:

A.

Recommend management seek a consulting firm to advise on outsourcing.

B.

Highlight matters that require management's attention.

C.

Implement solutions for specific organizational problems.

D.

Accumulate data, obtain varying views, and report information to senior management.

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Questions 42

Which type of objectives can best be described as broad goals that promote the effective and efficient use of resources?

Options:

A.

Strategic objectives.

B.

Operational objectives.

C.

Reporting objectives.

D.

Compliance objectives.

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Questions 43

While attending a conference, an internal auditor won an all-expense paid trip sponsored by a vendor of the internal auditor's organization.

Which of the following actions are most appropriate for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Consult with an immediate supervisor and notify the organization's audit committee.

B.

Consult with an immediate supervisor and review the organization's ethics policy.

C.

Give the prize to a friend or family member and notitfy the organization's audit committee.

D.

Give the prize to a friend or family member and review the organization's ethics policy.

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Questions 44

An internal auditor is conducting an engagement in the accounts payable department, which includes expressing an opinion at the micro level. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding micro-level opinions?

1. They are most effective when using a combination of current and prior engagement findings to draw conclusions.

2. They typically are based on defined procedures such as those found in an accounts payable reconciliation process.

3. They are discrete and not normally shared with senior management or the board.

4. They can rely on evidence taken from the work of other assurance activities across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 45

Which of the following is an example of a management control technique?

Options:

A.

A budget.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The control environment.

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Questions 46

Which of the following factors have the greatest influence on the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Quality assessments and cultural biases of the internal audit activity.

B.

Rotational assignments and familiarity of the internal audit activity.

C.

Employee incentives and self review of the internal audit activity.

D.

Organizational positioning and scope control of the internal audit activity.

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Questions 47

According to COSO, which of the following is not considered one of the components of an organization's internal environment?

Options:

A.

Authority and responsibility to resolve issues.

B.

Framework to plan, execute and monitor activities.

C.

Integrated responses to multiple risks.

D.

Knowledge and skills needed to perform activities.

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Questions 48

The security department uncovered what appears to be a complex fraud in the accounting department. The CEO has requested the internal audit activity to investigate the fraud. If the internal audit staff lacks the expertise to conduct the investigation, how should the chief audit executive proceed?

Options:

A.

Disclose the deficiency, and request that the investigation be reassigned to the first line of defense.

B.

Proceed with the investigation, as internal auditors are not required to have fraud expertise.

C.

Outsource the sensitive investigation to a third-party consultant with fraud expertise.

D.

Select a member of the accounting department who is not involved in the fraud to join the investigation team in a consulting capacity.

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Questions 49

Which of the following documents is most appropriate in promoting the objectivity of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Usage of IT system policy.

B.

Risk management framework.

C.

Acceptance of gifts policy.

D.

Personal responsibility policy.

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Questions 50

In which of the following scenarios would the chief audit executive (CAE) be required to decline the assignment?

Options:

A.

The CAE would need to procure external services to deliver the internal audit assurance program.

B.

There is no expertise within the internal audit team for detecting and investigating fraud.

C.

There is no expertise within the internal audit team for auditing an IT engagement.

D.

There is no available expertise on the internal audit team to perform a consulting engagement.

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Questions 51

According to the COSO internal control framework, which of the following best describes the use of continuous auditing programs by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Control environment.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Monitoring.

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Questions 52

According to IIA guidance, the results of a formal quality assessment should be reported to which of the following groups?

Options:

A.

The audit committee and senior management.

B.

The audit committee and the external auditors.

C.

Senior management and management of the audited area.

D.

Senior management and the external auditors.

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Questions 53

According to IIA guidance, which of the following must the internal auditor consider to meet the requirements for due professional care?

Options:

A.

The training courses necessary to enhance the internal auditor's knowledge, skills, and other competencies.

B.

The appropriateness of assurance procedures necessary to ensure all significant risks will be identified.

C.

The use of innovative technology and data analysis techniques.

D.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement’s objectives.

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Questions 54

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes internal auditors' responsibility regarding fraud?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should take a leading role in investigating all fraud-related cases.

B.

Internal auditors must have sufficient knowledge to evaluate the risk of fraud.

C.

Internal auditors should report all fraud cases to law enforcement agents, in accordance with the Code of Ethics.

D.

Internal auditors are responsible for ensuring that fraud does not occur.

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Questions 55

What should the internal auditor's role be in assessing the organization's ethical climate?

Options:

A.

Perform ongoing surveys of the employees, customers, and partners of the organization to assess the organization's ethical climate. ^Evaluate the effectiveness of the organization's strategies and B. processes for achieving the desired level of legal and ethical compliance.

B.

Maintain a whistleblower hotline to identify inappropriate or illegal activity within the organization.

C.

Perform background checks of potential new employees before they are hired by the organization.

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Questions 56

While preparing for an audit of senior management expenses, the chief audit executive (CAE) learns that management is unable to locate a number of original expense claims to support the related disbursements. She decides to defer the engagement until they can be located. Which of the following principles likely guided the CAE's decision?

Options:

A.

Objectivity.

B.

Proficiency.

C.

Independence.

D.

Due professional care.

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Questions 57

A new internal audit activity is creating its first charter. According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives would be appropriate for inclusion in the charter?

Options:

A.

Continuously monitor the organization's overall risk activities in relation to its risk appetite.

B.

Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization's governance activities.

C.

Oversee the establishment and administration of an effective risk management program.

D.

Assist management in implementing recommended control improvements.

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Questions 58

Reviewing prior audit reports and supporting workpapers before an engagement starts enables an internal auditor to do which of the following?

1. To understand better the activity and processes that will be audited.

2. To identify the audit procedures that will be used during the engagement.

3. To ensure that matters of greatest vulnerability will be addressed.

4. To use the information obtained as evidence in the current engagement.

Options:

A.

4 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

1 and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 59

Which of the following types of social responsibilities is voluntary and guided purely by the organization's desire to make social contributions?

Options:

A.

The bottom of the pyramid responsibility.

B.

Innovative responsibility.

C.

Ethical responsibility.

D.

Discretionary responsibility.

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Questions 60

Which of the following is an activity that an internal auditor must not perform?

Options:

A.

Establish and provide continuing assurance on an anti-money laundering program for new hires.

B.

Survey employees for their understanding of anti-money laundering practices.

C.

Provide assurance for the effectiveness of anti-money laundering training.

D.

Assess the risk of being fined for ineffective anti-money laundering practices.

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Questions 61

While performing an accounts payable engagement, a senior auditor wants to conduct several tests of controls for travel expenses. Which of the following actions are most appropriate for the senior auditor to undertake?

1. Ensure all tests use a random sampling technique.

2. Consider a judgmental approach for the sample size.

3. Assess testing errors through root cause analysis.

4. Ensure that the entire data set is tested.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 62

With regard To IT governance, which of the following is the most effective and appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluate the skills and experience of potential chief information officer candidates to assess the best fit based on the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Evaluate the organization's governance standards and assess IT-related activities to identify gaps and develop policies, ensuring alignment with the organization's risk appetite.

C.

Assist management in interpreting complex IT-related privacy and security risk exposures and evaluating potential mitigation strategies.

D.

Assess whether governance activities are aligned with the organization's risk appetite and take into consideration emerging risks.

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Questions 63

Forty-five percent of an organization's customer payments are submitted online. Eight percent of online payments are rejected. Executive management decides to outsource its online payment services to a contractor that will assume 75 percent of the total value of rejected payments. The organization estimates $1.25 million customer payments due during the contract period.

Which of the following represents the organization's residual risk for online customer payments due?

Options:

A.

$11, 250

B.

$25, 000

C.

$33, 750

D.

$45, 000

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Questions 64

An internal audit team is performing an audit of workplace accident claims.

Which of the following actions by the audit team best demonstrates due professional care?

Options:

A.

Having an occupational health officer on the engagement team.

B.

Determining that the claims have been classified properly.

C.

Placing reliance on medical reports from the injured worker's doctor.

D.

Reviewing claims to ensure all accidents actually occurred in the workplace.

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Questions 65

Which of the following actions should the audit committee take to promote organizational independence for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Delegate final approval of the risk-based internal audit plan to the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

Approve the annual budget and resource plan for the internal audit activity.

C.

Assist the CAE with hiring objective and competent internal audit staff.

D.

Encourage the CAE to communicate and coordinate with the external auditor.

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Questions 66

Which of the following combinations of conditions is most likely a red flag for fraud?

Options:

A.

The practice of surprise audits and the implementation of an employee support program.

B.

Hiring an employee with a prior fraud conviction and yearly management review.

C.

Occasional accounting department overrides and discontinuation of the anonymous fraud hotline due to infrequent use.

D.

A veteran employee in upper management experiencing financial difficulties and recently implemented enhanced controls.

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Questions 67

Which of the following would be the most important consideration by the internal audit activity when selecting employees to perform an internal quality assessment?

Options:

A.

Their understanding of auditing standards.

B.

Previous experience working with the internal audit activity.

C.

Their reporting line within the organization.

D.

The nature of their regular duties and responsibilities.

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Questions 68

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement.

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement.

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Questions 69

Which of the following is a detective control strategy against fraud?

Options:

A.

Requiring employees to attend ethics training.

B.

Performing background checks on employees.

C.

Implementing a control self-assessment.

D.

Performing a surprise audit.

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Questions 70

Which of the following is not a standard technique that the chief audit executive (CAE) would use to provide evidence of supervisory review of working papers?

Options:

A.

The CAE initials and dates every working paper after it has been reviewed.

B.

The CAE completes an engagement working paper checklist.

C.

The CAE prepares a memorandum discussing the results of the working paper review.

D.

The CAE utilizes an external third party to make an objective recommendation after each working paper review.

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Questions 71

During the course of an audit, an internal auditor discovers that a valuable employee in the research department has been patenting new developments in the employee's name that are unrelated to the basic business of the organization.

The organization does not have a policy addressing this specific issue, but does have a general policy that all important new discoveries by employees are the property of the organization.

Division management views the employee's actions as extra incentive to retain the employee.

A decision to include the employee's action in the engagement final communication would be:

1. A violation of the IIA Code of Ethics.

2. A violation of the reporting requirements in the Standards.

3. Justified and necessary, according to the IIA Code of Ethics and Standards.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1 and 2 only

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Questions 72

Which of the following techniques would best assist an internal auditor in evaluating the efficiency of a wholesale grocery distributor`s process to fill and package orders for shipping?

Options:

A.

A Bedford analysis of orders filled to average delivery times.

B.

Decision trees rating actual performance against requirements.

C.

Queuing theory to assess potential bottlenecks in the process.

D.

A program evaluation and review technique chart.

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Questions 73

While reviewing the workpapers of a new auditor, the auditor in charge discovered that additional audit procedures might be necessary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be most relevant for the auditor in charge to consider when making this decision?

Options:

A.

Resource management.

B.

Coordination.

C.

Due professional care.

D.

Engagement supervision.

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Questions 74

According to the IIA guidance, who is responsible for periodically assessing the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The board.

B.

The chief audit executive.

C.

Senior management.

D.

The external auditors.

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Questions 75

An organization has implemented a new automated payroll system that contains a table of pay rates that are matched to employee job classifications. Which control should an internal auditor suggest in order to ensure that the table is updated correctly, and is used only for valid pay changes?

Options:

A.

Restrict data-table access from management and line supervisors who have the authority to determine pay rates.

B.

Require a supervisor in the department, who has the ability to change the table, to compare the changes to a signed management authorization.

C.

Ensure that adequate edit and reasonableness checks are built into the automated system.

D.

Require a manager, who is independent of the system and who cannot change the table, to authorize and sign-off on any employee pay changes.

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Questions 76

Which of the following is the most effective strategy to manage the risk of foreign exchange losses due to sales to foreign customers?

Options:

A.

Hire a risk consultant.

B.

Implement a hedging strategy.

C.

Maintain a large foreign currency balance.

D.

Insist that customers only pay in a stable currency.

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Questions 77

An accounts receivable clerk receives cash payments, posts the payments to customer accounts, and prepares the daily cash deposit.

The clerk has been stealing some cash and manipulating the customer payments to hide the theft.

This fraud could be detected with which of the following controls?

Options:

A.

Monthly bank reconciliations are performed by the clerk on a timely basis.

B.

Total cash deposits for the month are reconciled to the cash receipts journal.

C.

Names, amounts, and dates on remittance advices are reconciled with the names, amounts, and dates recorded in the cash receipts journal.

D.

Total cash deposits are compared with the bank reconciliation.

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Questions 78

When developing the organization's first risk universe, which of the following would the chief audit executive be least likely to consider?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk that an organization is willing to seek or accept.

B.

The extent and degree of interdependency for identified key risks.

C.

The boundaries established to manage the amount of risk taken.

D.

The exposure to risks following management's risk responses.

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Questions 79

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a formal risk management framework?

1. It facilitates a methodical approach to risk mitigation.

2. It defines and standardizes the terminology used in risk communication.

3. It establishes the risk tolerance levels to be accommodated in the strategy.

4. It facilitates the alignment of risk mitigation strategies with management priorities.

Options:

A.

1.2, and 3.

B.

1,2, and 4.

C.

1.3, and 4.

D.

2. 3, and 4.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is an example of a risk avoidance strategy?

Options:

A.

Hedging against exchange rate variations.

B.

Limiting access to an organization's data center.

C.

Selling a nonstrategic business unit.

D.

Outsourcing a high-risk activity.

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Questions 81

Who is responsible for setting the risk appetite?

Options:

A.

External auditors.

B.

Chief risk officer.

C.

Operations management.

D.

Board of directors.

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Questions 82

Which of the following controls could an internal auditor reasonably conclude is effective by observing the physical controls of a large server room?

Options:

A.

Adequate signs are in place to assist in locating safety equipment.

B.

Servers are secured individually to their racks by locks.

C.

Foam fire extinguishers are operable to protect against electrical fires.

D.

Swipe card access is required to gain access to the server room.

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Questions 83

Which of the following activities should the chief audit executive perform to ensure compliance with an organization's code of conduct?

Options:

A.

Act as an adviser to the committee responsible for reviewing violations of the code.

B.

Review and adjudicate all violations of the code of conduct.

C.

Lead the committee responsible for the oversight of the code.

D.

Implement a system of procedures to inform all employees of the code.

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Questions 84

Management is developing and implementing a risk and control framework for use throughout the organization. Which of the following elements should be included in the organization's control framework?

1. Appropriate levels of authority and responsibility.

2. Supervision of staff and appropriate review of work.

3. The seniority of management in the organization.

4. The ability to trace each transaction to an accountable and responsible individual.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3.

B.

1.2, and 4.

C.

1.3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Exam Code: IIA-CRMA-ADV
Exam Name: Certification in Risk Management Assurance
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 283

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