Spring Sale Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: pass65

PMI-001 Project Management Professional v5 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Buy Now
Questions 5

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Buy Now
Questions 6

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Buy Now
Questions 7

A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

Options:

A.

Risk monitoring and controlling

B.

Risk response planning

C.

Qualitative risk analysis

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

Buy Now
Questions 8

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Buy Now
Questions 9

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

Options:

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

Buy Now
Questions 10

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Buy Now
Questions 11

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Buy Now
Questions 12

Which of the following tools will be used to produce performance reports that provide information to stakeholders about project cost, schedule progress, and performance?

Options:

A.

Communications methods

B.

Reporting systems

C.

Forecasting methods

D.

Variance analysis

Buy Now
Questions 13

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Records management system

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Project management software

D.

Issue log

Buy Now
Questions 14

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

Buy Now
Questions 15

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Buy Now
Questions 16

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

Buy Now
Questions 17

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

Buy Now
Questions 18

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

Options:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

Buy Now
Questions 19

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T & M)

Buy Now
Questions 20

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

Buy Now
Questions 21

Schedule milestones and a predefined budget are examples of:

Options:

A.

Project constraints.

B.

Requirements documentation.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Activity cost estimates.

Buy Now
Questions 22

What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Buy Now
Questions 23

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

Buy Now
Questions 24

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

Buy Now
Questions 25

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics

B.

Less rework

C.

Quality control measurements

D.

Benchmarking

Buy Now
Questions 26

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Buy Now
Questions 27

Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?

Options:

A.

Risk urgency assessment

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Risk register

D.

Schedule management plan

Buy Now
Questions 28

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

Buy Now
Questions 29

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

Buy Now
Questions 30

What process determines which risks might affect the project?

Options:

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

Buy Now
Questions 31

The person assigned by the performing organization to be responsible for achieving the project objectives is the:

Options:

A.

functional manager

B.

program manager

C.

project manager

D.

portfolio manager

Buy Now
Questions 32

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

Buy Now
Questions 33

Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor and project manager

B.

Project sponsor and functional manager

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project team and functional manager

Buy Now
Questions 34

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Buy Now
Questions 35

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Buy Now
Questions 36

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

Buy Now
Questions 37

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

Buy Now
Questions 38

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Options:

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Buy Now
Questions 39

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Buy Now
Questions 40

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Buy Now
Questions 41

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

Buy Now
Questions 42

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Buy Now
Questions 43

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

Buy Now
Questions 44

In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Monitor and control project work

D.

Risk response planning

Buy Now
Questions 45

Which of the following is an input of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Milestone list

C.

Resource calendars

D.

Activity list

Buy Now
Questions 46

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Buy Now
Questions 47

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

Buy Now
Questions 48

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

Options:

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Buy Now
Questions 49

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

Options:

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Buy Now
Questions 50

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

Options:

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

Buy Now
Questions 51

Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?

Options:

A.

Intranet sites

B.

Voice mails

C.

Video conferences

D.

Press releases

Buy Now
Questions 52

Team performance assessments is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Manage Project Team

Buy Now
Questions 53

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

Buy Now
Questions 54

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

Buy Now
Questions 55

The project manager for XYZ stationers is sequencing the activities for the project to set up a new office. It is known from knowledge of best practices that it is better to wait for the painters to finish painting the walls before the new floors are installed. This is an example of which of the following types of dependency?

Options:

A.

Precedence

B.

Discretionary

C.

External

D.

Mandatory

Buy Now
Questions 56

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

Buy Now
Questions 57

Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?

Options:

A.

Portfolio manager

B.

Project sponsor

C.

Project manager

D.

Project management office

Buy Now
Questions 58

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

Options:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

Buy Now
Questions 59

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Buy Now
Questions 60

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Buy Now
Questions 61

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T & M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Buy Now
Questions 62

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Buy Now
Questions 63

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Buy Now
Questions 64

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

Buy Now
Questions 65

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Buy Now
Questions 66

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

Options:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

Buy Now
Questions 67

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Buy Now
Questions 68

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Risk identification

B.

Qualitative risk analysis

C.

Risk management planning

D.

Quantitative risk analysis

Buy Now
Questions 69

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

Buy Now
Questions 70

Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

Buy Now
Questions 71

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

Buy Now
Questions 72

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Buy Now
Questions 73

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

Buy Now
Questions 74

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Buy Now
Questions 75

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Buy Now
Questions 76

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

Buy Now
Questions 77

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

Buy Now
Questions 78

Procurement audits, negotiated settlements, and a records management system are tools and techniques used in which Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Close Procurements

B.

Administer Procurements

C.

Plan Procurements

D.

Conduct Procurements

Buy Now
Questions 79

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 80

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

Buy Now
Questions 81

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Buy Now
Questions 82

The end point of a project phase can be referred to as:

Options:

A.

project failure

B.

closing process

C.

stage gate

D.

lifecycle

Buy Now
Questions 83

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Buy Now
Questions 84

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Buy Now
Questions 85

What do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional and project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

Buy Now
Questions 86

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Buy Now
Questions 87

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Buy Now
Questions 88

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Buy Now
Questions 89

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Buy Now
Questions 90

Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?

Options:

A.

Procurement package

B.

Negotiated settlements

C.

Procurement file

D.

Procurement management plan

Buy Now
Questions 91

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

Buy Now
Questions 92

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

Buy Now
Questions 93

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

Buy Now
Questions 94

The Plan Procurements process includes documenting project purchasing decisions and what other steps?

Options:

A.

Specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers

B.

Specifying the approach and selecting a seller

C.

Identifying potential sellers and obtaining seller responses

D.

Specifying the approach and managing procurement relationships

Buy Now
Questions 95

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

Options:

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

Buy Now
Questions 96

Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles although spending little or no time meeting face to face?

Options:

A.

Co-location team

B.

Virtual team

C.

Departmental team

D.

Consultant team

Buy Now
Questions 97

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Buy Now
Questions 98

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Buy Now
Questions 99

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Options:

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Buy Now
Questions 100

Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:

Options:

A.

decreased likelihood of conflicting interests between stakeholders.

B.

decreased likelihood of the projects progress being impeded.

C.

increased likelihood of project failure.

D.

increased likelihood of project success.

Buy Now
Questions 101

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

Buy Now
Questions 102

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

Options:

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

Buy Now
Questions 103

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Buy Now
Questions 104

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

Buy Now
Questions 105

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Buy Now
Questions 106

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

Buy Now
Questions 107

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

Buy Now
Questions 108

How is quality control performed?

Options:

A.

By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them

B.

By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and determining corrective actions as needed

C.

By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes

D.

By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards

Buy Now
Questions 109

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Buy Now
Questions 110

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

Buy Now
Questions 111

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Buy Now
Questions 112

Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Project sponsors

C.

Project management team

D.

Insurance claims department

Buy Now
Questions 113

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

Options:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages

B.

Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment

C.

Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

Buy Now
Questions 114

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

Options:

A.

negotiation

B.

organizational theory

C.

meeting

D.

networking

Buy Now
Questions 115

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Buy Now
Questions 116

Project Management Process Groups are linked by:

Options:

A.

the outputs they produce

B.

discrete or one-time events

C.

the project management plan

D.

common tools and techniques

Buy Now
Questions 117

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

Buy Now
Questions 118

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

Buy Now
Questions 119

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

Options:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

Buy Now
Questions 120

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

Buy Now
Questions 121

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

Options:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

Buy Now
Questions 122

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Buy Now
Questions 123

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Buy Now
Questions 124

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Buy Now
Questions 125

When does risk monitoring and control occur?

Options:

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

Buy Now
Questions 126

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Buy Now
Questions 127

What is a tool to improve team performance?

Options:

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

Buy Now
Questions 128

What are the five Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing

B.

Introduction, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing

C.

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Ending

D.

Introduction, Planning, Implementation, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closure

Buy Now
Questions 129

Create WBS is part of which of the following Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Cost Management

Buy Now
Questions 130

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Buy Now
Questions 131

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 132

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

Options:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

Buy Now
Questions 133

For a project to be successful, the project team must do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Complete the project in sequential phases.

B.

Overlook minor stakeholders.

C.

Produce ongoing repetitive products, services, or results.

D.

Select the appropriate processes required to meet the project objective.

Buy Now
Questions 134

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Options:

A.

Cost Control

B.

Quality Planning

C.

Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Cost Budgeting

Buy Now
Questions 135

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

Buy Now
Questions 136

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

Buy Now
Questions 137

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

Options:

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

Buy Now
Questions 138

Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management information system (PMIS)

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Scheduled network analysis

Buy Now
Questions 139

Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control Charts

C.

Pareto Chart

D.

Histogram

Buy Now
Questions 140

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

PMI-001 Question 140

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

0

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Buy Now
Questions 141

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

Buy Now
Questions 142

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 143

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

Buy Now
Questions 144

The run chart created during the Perform Quality Control process on a project is used to show the:

Options:

A.

relationship between two variables

B.

data points plotted in the order in which they occur

C.

most common cause of problems in a process

D.

frequency of occurrence

Buy Now
Questions 145

A car company authorized a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages. With which of the following strategic considerations was this project mainly concerned?

Options:

A.

Market demand

B.

Legal requirements

C.

Strategic Opportunity

D.

Technological advance

Buy Now
Questions 146

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Buy Now
Questions 147

Which of the following buffers protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain?

Options:

A.

Critical buffer

B.

Project buffer

C.

Duration buffer

D.

Feeding buffer

Buy Now
Questions 148

A process is defined as:

Options:

A.

A set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a certain objective.

B.

A set of guidelines that explains how to carry out a particular task.

C.

The inputs for a task and the tools and techniques required to carry out the task.

D.

A collection of logically related project activities, usually culminating in the completion of a major deliverable.

Buy Now
Questions 149

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Buy Now
Questions 150

Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project staff assignments

D.

Performance reports

Buy Now
Questions 151

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Buy Now
Questions 152

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Buy Now
Questions 153

Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project management

B.

Program management

C.

Portfolio management

D.

Relationship management

Buy Now
Questions 154

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Buy Now
Questions 155

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

Buy Now
Questions 156

Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

Options:

A.

Schedule Analysis

B.

Checklist Analysis

C.

Assumption Analysis

D.

Cost-Benefit Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 157

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Buy Now
Questions 158

Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

Buy Now
Questions 159

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Buy Now
Questions 160

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Buy Now
Questions 161

The cost performance baseline is typically displayed in the form of:

Options:

A.

An S-curve.

B.

A normal curve.

C.

A U-curve.

D.

A positive slope line.

Buy Now
Questions 162

Cost aggregation is typically performed by aggregating work packages in accordance with the:

Options:

A.

Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).

B.

Cost of quality (COQ).

C.

Rough order of magnitude (ROM).

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Buy Now
Questions 163

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Buy Now
Questions 164

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

Buy Now
Questions 165

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Buy Now
Questions 166

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Buy Now
Questions 167

An output of Control Schedule is:

Options:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

Buy Now
Questions 168

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Buy Now
Questions 169

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Buy Now
Questions 170

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

Options:

A.

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.

The scope management plan.

C.

Work performance reports.

D.

Change requests.

Buy Now
Questions 171

Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for Opportunities

C.

Decision Tree Analysis

D.

Risk Data Quality Assessment

Buy Now
Questions 172

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Buy Now
Questions 173

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

Options:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

Buy Now
Questions 174

What is the critical chain method?

Options:

A.

A technique to calculate the theoretical early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates

B.

A schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources

C.

A schedule compression technique that analyzes cost and schedule trade-offs to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost

D.

A technique to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project

Buy Now
Questions 175

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

Buy Now
Questions 176

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

Buy Now
Questions 177

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Buy Now
Questions 178

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Buy Now
Questions 179

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

Buy Now
Questions 180

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

Buy Now
Questions 181

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 182

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

Buy Now
Questions 183

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

Options:

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

Buy Now
Questions 184

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Buy Now
Questions 185

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

Options:

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

Buy Now
Questions 186

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

Buy Now
Questions 187

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

Options:

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

Buy Now
Questions 188

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

Buy Now
Questions 189

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

Buy Now
Questions 190

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

Options:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

Buy Now
Questions 191

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

Options:

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

Buy Now
Questions 192

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Buy Now
Questions 193

The product scope description is used to:

Options:

A.

Gain stakeholders support for the project.

B.

Document the characteristics of the product.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Formally authorize the project.

Buy Now
Questions 194

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

Options:

A.

Flowcharting

B.

Earned value

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Pareto analysis

Buy Now
Questions 195

What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Buy Now
Questions 196

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Buy Now
Questions 197

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Buy Now
Questions 198

Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Buy Now
Questions 199

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 200

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 201

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

Options:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

Buy Now
Questions 202

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 203

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Buy Now
Questions 204

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

Buy Now
Questions 205

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Buy Now
Questions 206

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Buy Now
Questions 207

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

Buy Now
Questions 208

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Buy Now
Questions 209

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

Buy Now
Questions 210

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Buy Now
Questions 211

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Buy Now
Questions 212

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

Buy Now
Questions 213

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Buy Now
Questions 214

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Buy Now
Questions 215

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

Options:

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

Buy Now
Questions 216

Which of the following tools and techniques are utilized in the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Product analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Inspection

Buy Now
Questions 217

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

Buy Now
Questions 218

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Options:

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

Buy Now
Questions 219

The Closing Process Group includes which of the following Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management and Project Procurement Management

B.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

C.

Project Risk Management and Project Integration Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Quality Management

Buy Now
Questions 220

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

Options:

A.

Coaching

B.

Avoidance

C.

Consensus

D.

Influencing

Buy Now
Questions 221

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

Options:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

Buy Now
Questions 222

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

Buy Now
Questions 223

What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

Buy Now
Questions 224

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Buy Now
Questions 225

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Contract administration

B.

Direction and management of project execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Qualitative risk analysis

Buy Now
Questions 226

Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?

Options:

A.

Probabilistic

B.

Most likely

C.

Expected

D.

Anticipated

Buy Now
Questions 227

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Buy Now
Questions 228

Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

EV= $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200

Options:

A.

0.67

B.

1.5

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Buy Now
Questions 229

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

Buy Now
Questions 230

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

Buy Now
Questions 231

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

Options:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Buy Now
Questions 232

Which is an output from Distribute Information?

Options:

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

Buy Now
Questions 233

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Buy Now
Questions 234

Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Plan

B.

Project Schedule Network

C.

Project Management Software

D.

Project Scope Management Plan

Buy Now
Questions 235

Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

Buy Now
Questions 236

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Buy Now
Questions 237

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

Options:

A.

Benchmarking.

B.

Context diagrams.

C.

Brainstorming.

D.

Prototyping.

Buy Now
Questions 238

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Buy Now
Questions 239

The following is a network diagram for a project.

PMI-001 Question 239

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

Buy Now
Questions 240

The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements.

B.

Conduct Procurements.

C.

Estimate Activity Durations.

D.

Estimate Activity Resources.

Buy Now
Questions 241

The following is a network diagram for a project.

PMI-001 Question 241

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

Buy Now
Questions 242

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

Buy Now
Questions 243

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Buy Now
Questions 244

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

Buy Now
Questions 245

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

Buy Now
Questions 246

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Options:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

Buy Now
Questions 247

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

Buy Now
Questions 248

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Buy Now
Questions 249

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

Buy Now
Questions 250

What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

D.

Contract Statement of Work (SOW)

Buy Now
Questions 251

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Buy Now
Questions 252

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

Options:

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

Buy Now
Questions 253

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

Buy Now
Questions 254

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

Buy Now
Questions 255

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

Buy Now
Questions 256

What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

Options:

A.

Project boundaries

B.

Project constraints

C.

Project assumptions

D.

Project objectives

Buy Now
Questions 257

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Options:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

Buy Now
Questions 258

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Buy Now
Questions 259

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

Buy Now
Questions 260

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Buy Now
Questions 261

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Options:

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

Buy Now
Questions 262

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

Options:

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

Buy Now
Questions 263

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

Options:

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Buy Now
Questions 264

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

Options:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

Buy Now
Questions 265

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

Buy Now
Questions 266

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Buy Now
Questions 267

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Buy Now
Questions 268

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Buy Now
Questions 269

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Buy Now
Questions 270

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Buy Now
Questions 271

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Cost-benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

Buy Now
Questions 272

You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Perform periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Buy Now
Questions 273

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Buy Now
Questions 274

Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers

B.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control

C.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers

D.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers

Buy Now
Questions 275

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

Buy Now
Exam Code: PMI-001
Exam Name: Project Management Professional v5
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 918

PDF + Testing Engine

$63.52  $181.49

Testing Engine

$50.57  $144.49
buy now PMI-001 testing engine

PDF (Q&A)

$43.57  $124.49
buy now PMI-001 pdf