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PMI-002 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Employees in a balanced matrix often report to two or more managers. Functional managers and project managers share authority and responsibility for projects.

Options:

A.

Innovation

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Just in time

D.

Paradigm

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Questions 5

Your project sponsor has asked you to produce a Risk Management Plan for your current project. Which of the following best describes the plan you should adopt for your project?

Options:

A.

The plan must include the predefined risk management policies as they relate to the organization

B.

The plan must ensure that the level of details and risk management efforts are commensurate with the level of risk and importance of the project

C.

The plan must be predefined templates as defined by the organization

D.

The plan must include the predefined roles and responsibilities as they relate to risk management.

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Questions 6

Quality is _____________.

Options:

A.

Zero defects found

B.

Conformance to requirements

C.

The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs

D.

Both B and c

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Questions 7

Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications Management?

Options:

A.

Administrative Closure

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Conflict Resolution

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Questions 8

If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

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Questions 9

Which of the following is needed to develop a detailed project cost estimate?

Options:

A.

Management plan

B.

Resource requirements

C.

Project character

D.

Cost Plan

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Questions 10

Which of the following is true about pure risk?

Options:

A.

The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy.

B.

Pure risks involve the chance of both a profit and a loss.

C.

No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses.

D.

Botn A and c are correct.

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Questions 11

Which ensures that project objectives are met by monitoring and measuring progress and taking corrective action when necessary.

Options:

A.

Project controls

B.

Controlling process

C.

Control logs

D.

Project chart

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Questions 12

The level of authority a project manager has is __________.

Options:

A.

based on the organizational structure

B.

based on the amount of authority the manager of the project manager possesses

C.

based on the key stakeholder ' s influence on the project

D.

based on the project managers communication skills

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false?

Options:

A.

Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100%.

B.

The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined.

C.

Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can adequately determine conformance and non-conformance.

D.

All of the above are true.

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Questions 14

Cost benefit analysis, scorecard modelling, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of ____________.

Options:

A.

Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project

B.

Integral parts of the SOW

C.

Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment

D.

Project selection methods

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Questions 15

Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Develop Schedule

C.

Define Activities

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

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Questions 16

Which is generally the least accurate.

Options:

A.

Using stakeholders to predict cost

B.

Parametric modelling

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Computerized estimating

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Questions 17

At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Initial stage

B.

Closing stage

C.

Execution stage

D.

None of the above

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Questions 18

The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often collectively known as:

Options:

A.

The work package codes

B.

The project identifiers

C.

The code of accounts

D.

The element accounts

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Questions 19

A Project with a total funding of $70,000 was finished with a BAC value of $60,000. What term can best describe the difference of $10,000?

Options:

A.

Cost Variance

B.

Management Overhead

C.

Management Contingency Reserve

D.

Schedule Variance

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Questions 20

Which is not the tools and techniques used in Contract Administration:

Contract change control system

Contract negotiation

Payment system

Performance rating

Options:

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Questions 21

A Project Scope Management includes :

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Project Plan Execution

C.

Overall Change Control

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 22

Technical associations and consultants of a project are two examples of __________ ?

Options:

A.

Expensive additions

B.

Scope managers

C.

Expert judgment

D.

External Resources

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Questions 23

Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project durations more accurately?

Options:

A.

CPM

B.

PERT

C.

Schedule simulation

D.

Path convergence method

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Questions 24

Which of the following statements concerning bottom-up estimating is true?

Options:

A.

The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work items.

B.

Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy.

C.

Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy.

D.

Both A and B are true

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Questions 25

The major project scope management process includes:

Options:

A.

Change order control

B.

Initiation

C.

Program evaluation

D.

Scope statement

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Questions 26

Project management processes organized into ______________.

Options:

A.

Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing

B.

Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and closing

C.

Designing, developing, testing, and implementing

D.

Initiating, planning, contracting, developing, and closing

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Questions 27

You are project manager of a project and the funding for your project has been reduced. What is the BEST action to take in response to this?

Options:

A.

Perform detailed financial analysis and renegotiate for adequate funding.

B.

Inform in customer that the project will be delayed an adjust resources accordingly.

C.

Only do as much work as the new budget permits and document actions taken.

D.

Inform the customer of impacts and negotiate a change in scope.

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Questions 28

The cost effective rule for shortening a project is to crash the:

Options:

A.

Critical tasks-

B.

Non-critical tasks.

C.

Tasks with lowest cost.

D.

Tasks with highest cost.

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Questions 29

Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 30

Which of the following is true about procurement documents?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers.

B.

Invitations for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents.

C.

Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers.

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 31

Which of the following best describes a sub network?

Options:

A.

Fragment Network

B.

ADM

C.

PDM

D.

A0N

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Questions 32

If you are a project manager and a change request has been denied, you should:

Options:

A.

Record it and save it.

B.

Pass on to the project team.

C.

Forget it

D.

None

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Questions 33

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

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Questions 34

The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of the other is called ________________.

Options:

A.

Event phenomenon

B.

Independent probability

C.

Statistical independence

D.

Statistical probability

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Questions 35

Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency reserves is false?

Options:

A.

A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part.

B.

Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.

C.

Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.

D.

Contingency reserves are normally included in the project ' s cost and schedule baselines.

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Questions 36

The project manager ' s leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order: _____________.

Options:

A.

Disciplinary, autocratic, and participative

B.

Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring

C.

Team building, team development, and responsibility assignment

D.

Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating

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Questions 37

Parametric Estimate Costs involves _____________.

Options:

A.

Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package

B.

Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs

C.

Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs

D.

Both A and B

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Questions 38

Root Cause Analysis is related to ________.

Options:

A.

Process Analysis

B.

Quality Audits

C.

Performance Measurements

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 39

80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of _________.

Options:

A.

Edward Deming

B.

PhiliP Crosby

C.

Juran

D.

Pareto

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Questions 40

Which of the following is true regarding IRR?

Options:

A.

IRR is a constrained optimization method.

B.

IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

C.

IRR is the discount rate when NPV is greater than zero.

D.

IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.

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Questions 41

You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help them determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model, which one of the following is the most important factor?

Options:

A.

Business needs

B.

Type of constraints

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

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Questions 42

Which is not a technique for Sequence Activities ?

Options:

A.

Rolling Wave Planning

B.

Mandatory Dependencies

C.

Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM

D.

Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

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Questions 43

Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which Sequence Activities technique ?

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]

B.

Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

C.

Fragment Network

D.

All of the above

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Questions 44

Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the Develop Human Resource Plan process:

Options:

A.

Risk Management activities

B.

Activity Resource requirements

C.

Budget Control activities

D.

Quality Assurance activities

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Questions 45

A Project Cost Management Plan is created as a part of:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs process

B.

Determine Budget process

C.

Control Costs process

D.

None

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Questions 46

When should a project manager be assigned to a project?

Options:

A.

As early in the project as feasible.

B.

Preferably before much project planning has been done.

C.

At least prior to the start of project plan execution.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 47

The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:

Options:

A.

A mathematical analysis technique for Develop Schedule

B.

A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration

C.

A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule

D.

A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration estimates

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Questions 48

Which of the following statements concerning a scope statement are true?

Options:

A.

H provides a documented basis for making future project decisions and for developing common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders.

B.

Scope statement and Statement of work are synonymous.

C.

Project justification and project objectives are not included or referenced in the scope statement.

D.

Once written, the scope statement should never be revise

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Questions 49

Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Project performance

C.

Control Schedule

D.

Project controls

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Questions 50

A scope management plan In which of the following scope management processes is the scope management plan prepared?

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Verify Scope

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Questions 51

The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is:

Options:

A.

Square foot estimating

B.

Template estimating

C.

Computerized estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 52

A Reserve Analysis technique is NOT used during __________.

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Estimating Activity Duration

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Estimate Costs

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Questions 53

Which of the following Enterprise Environmental factors are not the inputs for the Develop Human Resource Plan process:

Options:

A.

Organizational Chart Tempates

B.

Reduced Training Funds

C.

Hiring Freeze

D.

Technical competencies of project staff

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Questions 54

Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT weighted average?

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

6.3

D.

6.1

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Questions 55

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

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Questions 56

Which of the following is true regarding the NPV?

Options:

A.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

B.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.

C.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.

D.

NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.

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Questions 57

A Strong Matrix is _____.

Options:

A.

A balanced matrix organization

B.

Where all team members are brought together in one location

C.

Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own departments and to the project manager

D.

Power reset with Functional Manager

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Questions 58

A project manager ' s role is likely to be part-time in which of the following organizations?

Options:

A.

Weak matrix

B.

Projectized organization

C.

Balanced matrix matrix

D.

All of the above

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Questions 59

Which of the following is controlling changes to the budget.

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

None

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Questions 60

Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project?

Options:

A.

A strong matrix organization

B.

A project coordinator

C.

A project expediter

D.

Direct executive involvement

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Questions 61

Comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk; all occur during a:

Options:

A.

Project audit.

B.

Contract negotiation.

C.

Stakeholder meeting.

D.

Resource leveling activity.

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Questions 62

Human resource adininistration is the primary responsibility of the_____________

Options:

A.

Project Management Team

B.

Human Resources Department

C.

Executive Manager

D.

Project Manager

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Questions 63

The review of key deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called:

Options:

A.

phase exit

B.

Ml point

C.

state gate

D.

all of the above

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Questions 64

Who should contribute to the development of a project plan?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Entire project team including project manager

C.

Senior management

D.

Just the planning department

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Questions 65

Another term for top down estimating is:.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

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Questions 66

The closing process scope includes:

Options:

A.

Contract closeout

B.

Final reporting

C.

Activity List

D.

Exit interview

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Questions 67

Assumptions in the project plan should be _________.

Options:

A.

Written down

B.

Understandable

C.

Not understandable

D.

No need to write

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Questions 68

Which of the following is not a form a leadership power?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Foimal

D.

Coercive

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Questions 69

The intent of the risk management process group is to ________.

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project

B.

Announce project risks

C.

Not consider risks affecting the company

D.

Announce project deliverables

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Questions 70

What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

Options:

A.

Project task

B.

w°rl < package

C.

sow

D.

None

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Questions 71

You are project manager and now in middle of creating RFP (Request for proposal). RFP (Request for proposal) is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 72

Which of the following is not a process of project human resource management?

Options:

A.

Organizational Planning

B.

staff Acquisition

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Team Development

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Questions 73

The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end date is called:

Options:

A.

Negative Float

B.

Total Float

C.

Float

D.

c and b

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Questions 74

Inputs of Develop Project Team include all EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Project staff

B.

Reward and recognition systems

C.

Resource calendars

D.

Project plan

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Questions 75

An input of the Collect Requirements process is a/an:

Options:

A.

Project Charter

B.

Project schedule

C.

Strategic plan

D.

Historical information

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Questions 76

Which of the following documents the characteristics of a product or service that the project was undertaken to build.

Options:

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project description

D.

Scope statement

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Questions 77

ISO Stands for __________.

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization

B.

International Standardized Organization

C.

' n Standardized Organization

D.

Indiana Standardized Organization

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Questions 78

You are project manager of a project and as part of the team acquisition process; you hire a new employee and assigns him to your project team. According to Maslow ' s hierarchy of needs, what needs level he most likely is at?

Options:

A.

Social need

B.

Physical need

C.

Safety and security

D.

Security

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Questions 79

If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?

Options:

A.

Historical information

B.

WBS

C.

Business plans

D.

RBS

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Questions 80

Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?

Options:

A.

Scope Statement

B.

Quality Plan

C.

WBS

D.

Development Plan

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Questions 81

You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working from US and some are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than $12 million. Because of the global concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internationalization

B.

Budget constraint

C.

Management constraint

D.

Quality constraint

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Questions 82

_________ is the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined.

Options:

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

F ' xed P|ice

C.

Time and material

D.

None

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Questions 83

Which one of the following is not an output of contract closure?

Options:

A.

c ' ose contracts

B.

Lessons learned documentation

C.

Deliverable acceptance

D.

Scope statement

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Questions 84

Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.

Options:

A.

True, real, or certain

B.

True, real, or uncertain

C.

Real

D.

Verbal

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Questions 85

Communication between the project manager and the project team members should take place:

Options:

A.

Via daily status report.

B.

Through approved documented forms.

C.

By written and oral communication.

D.

Through the formal chain of comman

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Questions 86

The peak point of Maslow ' s hierarchy is called:

Options:

A.

Survival.

B.

Safety.

C.

Physiological satisfaction.

D.

Self-actualization.

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Questions 87

You are the project manager and have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope process. What should you do next?

Options:

A.

Create WBS

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Value analysis

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 88

Which process involves monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 89

The project baseline is:

Options:

A.

original plans plus the approved changes

B.

important in the project initiation phase

C.

initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization

D.

None

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Questions 90

Who creates the the Lessons Learned document?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Project team

C.

Project Sponsor

D.

Stakeholders

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Questions 91

Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except _________.

Options:

A.

Team building

B.

Analysis of alternatives

C.

Convergent thinking

D) Q Uninhibited verbalization

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Questions 92

If the level of conformance directly increases as a result of new processes, the required cost of monitoring is likely to:

Options:

A.

Stay the same.

B.

Decrease.

C.

Be more predictable.

D.

Increase.

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Questions 93

The responsibility assignment matrix is a project management tool used to ________.

Options:

A.

Ensure team members understand their specific roles.

B.

Develop the work breakdown structure based on available resources.

C.

Establish project members availability to work on the project.

D.

Depict the project ' s organizational structure.

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Questions 94

On a project, quality should generally be of ________.

Options:

A.

Equal priority with schedule, but higher priority than cost

B.

Higher priority than cost and schedule

C.

Equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule

D.

Equal priority with cost and schedule

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Questions 95

Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of which of the following:

Options:

A.

Project Management Team

B.

Human Resources Department

C.

Executive Manager

D.

Project Manager

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Questions 96

Maintenance should ________.

Options:

A.

Be considered part of the project life cycle because it is part of the total life cycle costing needed to do benefit/cost analysis in Collect Requirements

B.

Be part of the work breakdown structure to give the total scope of the required activities and effort

C.

Not be considered as a part of the project life cycle

D.

Be managed carefully because it is often a source of scope creep

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Questions 97

Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?

Options:

A.

Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction

B.

Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to achieve personal objectives

C.

Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation

D.

A Definitive resolution is seldom achieved

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Questions 98

Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 99

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 100

Which organization has set the de facto standards for project management techniques?

Options:

A.

PMBOK

B.

PMI

C.

PM0

D.

PMA

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Questions 101

Which of the following methods is a technique used to predict project duration by analyzing which sequence of activities has the least amount of scheduling flexibility?

Options:

A.

Dependency diagramming

B.

PERT

C.

Critical Path

D.

Grant chart

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Questions 102

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

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Questions 103

A project ' s scope statements are developed during scope:

Options:

A.

Initiation.

B.

Verification.

C.

Planning.

D.

Definition.

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Questions 104

Reverse analysis is a tool or technique in all of the following processes EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Activity resource estimation

C.

Cost estimation

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 105

Which of the following describes a group of elated schedule activities aggregated at some summary level, displayed reported as a single activity at summary level?

Options:

A.

Work activity

B.

Control account

C.

Planning package

D.

Hammock activity

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Questions 106

Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include ______________.

Options:

A.

Withdrawing, compromising, controlling, and forcing

B.

Controlling forcing smoothing, and withdrawing

C.

Confronting, compromising, smoothing and directing

D.

Smoothing, confronting, forcing, and withdrawing

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Questions 107

The communications management plan is primarily dependent on the ____________.

Options:

A.

Length of the project

B.

Physical location of team members

C.

Specific needs of the project

D.

Project deliverables

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Questions 108

The ___________ documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to create.

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Scope statement

C.

Product description

D.

Technical article

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Questions 109

The principle states that " Employees who believe that their efforts will lead to effective performance and who anticipate important rewards for their accomplishments become productive stay productive. " This principle illustrates which of the following theory?

Options:

A.

Expectancy theory

B.

Maslow theory

C.

Herzberg theory

D.

None

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Questions 110

To shorten project duration, resources have been added to tasks on the critical path. The plan should then be reviewed for the __________.

Options:

A.

Lagging time on other paths

B.

Emergence of a new critical path

C.

Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path

D.

Longest task remaining in the plan

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Questions 111

Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?

Options:

A.

Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nears completion.

B.

The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.

C.

Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project.

D.

a and b

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Questions 112

The two closing procedures are called:

Options:

A.

Contract close out and Verify Scope

B.

Contract close out and administrative closure

C.

Project closure and product verification

D.

Project closure and lessons learned

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Questions 113

Which of the following are inputs to the Source Selection process?

Options:

A.

Evaluation criteria

B.

Organizational policies

C.

Procurement documents

D.

Both A and B

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Questions 114

Which of the following are the outputs of Collect Requirements Process?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements management plan

C.

The requirements tractability matrix

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 115

The overall intentions and direction of an organization with regard to quality as formally expressed by top management is a ____________.

Options:

A.

Quality Plan

B.

Quality Statement

C.

Quality Policy

D.

TQM

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Questions 116

Percent complete is calculated by ___________.

Options:

A.

ACWP/BAC

B.

BCWP-ACWP

C.

BCWP/BAC

D.

EAC/BAC

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Questions 117

How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informally?

Options:

A.

40-60%

B.

50-70%

C.

60-80%

D.

75-90%

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Questions 118

When Identify Risks should be performed?

Options:

A.

During Concept Phase

B.

During Development Phase

C.

During Implementation Phase

D.

Identify Risks should be performed on a regular basis throughout the project

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Questions 119

Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

shaie

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Questions 120

You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?

Options:

A.

Pi ' ojectized

B.

Strong Matrix

C.

Weak Matrix

D.

Functional

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Questions 121

The product description of a project can help to create procurement details. Which one of the following best describes product description?

Options:

A.

The product description defines the contracted work, based on the requirements of the project customer

B.

The product description defines the contracted work

C.

The product description defines the requirements for the contract work

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 122

Which of the following best describes project scope?

Options:

A.

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions

B.

The description of the project deliverables

C.

The authorizing document that allows the project manager to move forward with the project and to assign resources to the tasks

D.

The process of planning and executing all of the required work to deliver the project

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Questions 123

A tool which is used to illustrate links between work packages or activities and team members is called _______.

Options:

A.

Define Scope Matrix

B.

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

C.

Roles Assignment Matrix

D.

Project Scope and Roles Matrix

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Questions 124

The seller delivers a fixed price plus incentive fee project at a cost of $90,000. The terms of the contract are a ceiling price of $120,000, a target cost of $ 100,000, a target profit of $10,000, and a target price of $110,000. The share ratio is 70/30. The final price (your total reimbursement) is _________.

Options:

A.

$93,000

B.

$96,000

C.

$97,000

D.

None of the above

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Questions 125

The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to which of the following:

Options:

A.

Edward Deming

B.

Philip Crosby

C.

Juran

D.

Pareto

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Questions 126

Which process involves Formal product acceptance and end of project?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 127

Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 128

The items at the lowest level of the WBS are called __________.

Options:

A.

Code of accounts

B.

Subtasks

C.

Work packages

D.

Nodes

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Questions 129

A work breakdown structure is a ______.

Options:

A.

Result of the Collect Requirements process

B.

Deliverable oriented grouping of project elements that organizes and defines the total scope of the project

C.

Structure that can be used to track the project ' s time, cost, and quality performance against a defined baseline

D.

Valuable communications tool, but cannot be used to establish the number of required networks for Control Costs

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Questions 130

Which of the following are not essential for project close out ?

Options:

A.

Documenting formal acceptance of the product.

B.

Documenting the lessons learned

C.

Documenting the final project scope

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Questions 131

18 You are the project manager of a software company. As software development can be very chaotic, your company has decided to follow a more rigorous approach to software development. Specifically your company has chosen to adopt the extreme programming XP methodology for your current software project. The XP methodology is highly iterative, and produces numerous deliverables include UML diagrams, architecture diagrams, prototypes and test-cases. Assume you are in the Sequence Activities phase of the project. Which of the following sequencing methods should you use to identify the logical relationships between tasks, so that the activities can be sequenced correctly?

Options:

A.

ADM

B.

PDM

C.

GEPT

D.

A0A

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Questions 132

The customer service VP expresses concern over a project in which you are involved. His specific concern is that if the project is implemented as planned, he will have to purchase additional equipment to staff his customer service center. The cost is substantial and was not taken into consideration in the project budget. The project sponsor insists that the project must go forward as originally planned or the customer will suffer. Which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The conflict should be resolved in favor of the customer.

B.

The conflict should be resolved in favor of the project sponsor.

C.

The conflict should be resolved in favor of the VP of customer service.

D.

None

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Questions 133

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the _________.

Options:

A.

Owner

B.

client

C.

Sponsor

D.

Customer

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Questions 134

What type of organizational structure usually experiences the MOST team nervousness at project close-out?

Options:

A.

Weak matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

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Questions 135

Estimate At Completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of total:

Options:

A.

Forecasted project cost.

B.

Cost of the unfinished work.

C.

Resources projected at project complain

D.

Value of work performed to date.

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Questions 136

A project success can be achieved only if:

Options:

A.

There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.

B.

The project sponsor leads the initiatives.

C.

The project manager is an expert in managing resources.

D.

Allof the above

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Questions 137

Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the project should be prepared and distributed during which of the following process?

Options:

A.

Distribute Information

B.

Administrative Closure

C.

Organizational Planning

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 138

You are the project manager of a large construction project. The project objective is to construct a set of buildings in the city within 18 months from the project start date. Resources are not readily available because they are currently assigned to other projects. Nick, an expert crane operator, is needed for this project two months from today. Which of the following skills will you use to get Nick assigned to your project?

Options:

A.

Negotiation and influencing skills

B.

Communication and organizational skills

C.

Problem solving skills

D.

Communication skills

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Questions 139

A project is defined as ________________.

Options:

A.

A process of considerable scope that implements a plan

B.

An endeavour, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people and constrained by limited resources

C.

A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service

D.

An objective based effort of temporary nature

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Questions 140

80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of ___________.

Options:

A.

Edward Deming

B.

PhiliP Crosby

C.

Juran

D.

Pareto

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Questions 141

Estimated at Completion is determined by ___________.

Options:

A.

ETC + ACWP

B.

BAC - ETC

C.

BAC/CPI

D.

Both A and C

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Questions 142

Which of the following statement is true about Quality control?

Options:

A.

Monitoring specific project results to determine If they comply with relevant quality standards

B.

Evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis

C.

Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project

D.

Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project

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Questions 143

What are the four parts of the communications model?

Options:

A.

Sending, Receiving, Decoding, and Comprehending

B.

Sender, Message, Medium, and Receiver

C.

Communicator, Message, Receiver, and Decoder

D.

Communicating, Transmitting, Receiving, and Comprehending

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Questions 144

Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except ___________.

Options:

A.

Team building

B.

Analysis of alternatives

C.

Convergent thinking

D.

Uninhibited verbalization

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Questions 145

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

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Questions 146

You are project manager and the monthly report to the client showed zero schedule variance. However, member of the team know that a milestone has been missed which will cause an overall delay to the project. Which one of the following is being inadequately reported?

Options:

A.

Communication plan variance

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Critical path status

D.

Risk analysis

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Questions 147

The Collect Requirements process is:

Options:

A.

Developing a plan from major stakeholders

B.

Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions

C.

Formalizing acceptance of the project scope

D.

Planning project milestones

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Questions 148

Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to:

Options:

A.

See what mistakes others have made

B.

See how others have solved problems

C.

" Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives "

D.

All of the above

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Questions 149

Which process is not included in the Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Develop Schedule and Control Schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 150

The __________ task relationship is defined by the activity duration:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start

B.

Finish-to-finish

C.

Start-to-finish

D.

None of the above

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Questions 151

A Change Control Board should be _______?

Options:

A.

flexible

B.

Include the project manager

C.

appropriate authority

D.

al1 of the above

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Questions 152

A Resource Leveling is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 153

Reserve Analysis technique is NOT used during __________.

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Estimating Activity Duration

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Estimate Costs

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Questions 154

A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is represented by:

Options:

A.

Lead time

B.

Lag time

C.

Negative Lag

D.

a or g

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Questions 155

What is CI?

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement

B.

A sustained, gradual change

C.

Constancy of purpose and commitment to quality as part of its focus

D.

All of the above

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Questions 156

___________ is a groups of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

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Questions 157

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is called __________.

Options:

A.

Product scope

B.

Staffing scope

C.

The project

D.

Project scope

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Questions 158

Parametric Estimate Costs involves:

Options:

A.

Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package

B.

Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs

C.

Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs

D.

Both A and B

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Questions 159

___________ must be measured regularly to identify variance from the plan.

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Project performance

C.

Schedule progress

D.

Cost and schedule

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Questions 160

As part of the quality audit, the scope statement is checked against the work results to ensure the conformance to the customer requirements. The results should be documented and used for which of the following:

Options:

A.

Estimating future projects

B.

Changing the project scope

C.

Defining future project tasks

D.

Validating the quality process

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Questions 161

During project lose out, the final task is __________.

Options:

A.

Verify that contractual obligations were met

B.

Transfer the deliverables to the client

C.

Reassign team member

D.

Complete lessons learned records

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Questions 162

Which of the following is not a process of project human resource management?

Options:

A.

Organizational Planning

B.

stan < Acquisition

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Team Development

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Questions 163

Which of the following are inputs belong to Estimates Activity Resources?

Options:

A.

Activity List

B.

Resource Calendar

C.

Activity attributes

D.

All of the above are inputs of Estimates Activity Resources

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Questions 164

A relatively small number of causes typically produce a majority of the problems and defects is a concept of ___________.

Options:

A.

Edward Deming

B.

phil ' P Crosby

C.

Juian

D.

Pareto

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Questions 165

During the execution of a software project, the vendor proposes an upgrade of a part of project without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved, where would this change BEST be documented?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Procurement Management plan

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Quality assurance plan

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Questions 166

Who is the person responsible for obtaining funding for a new project ' s conceptual study?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

President

C.

Chief financial officer

D.

Project sponsor

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Questions 167

Project initiation is all of the following except:

Options:

A.

A process of formally recognizing that a new project exists

B.

A process of formally recognizing that an existing project should continue into its next phase

C.

It links the project to the ongoing work of the performing organization

D.

Its inputs are product description, strategic plan, constraints, and assumptions

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Questions 168

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the ___________.

Options:

A.

Owner

B.

Sponsor

C.

Customer

D.

client

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Questions 169

A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group is called _________.

Options:

A.

Autocratic

B.

Consultation In a group

C.

Consensus

D.

One-to-one consultation

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Questions 170

The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called resource _______.

Options:

A.

Tracking

B.

Loading

C.

Crashing

D.

Levelling

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Questions 171

A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called __________.

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Arbitration

C.

Smoothing

D.

Forcing

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Questions 172

The three major types of communication are:

Options:

A.

Written, verbal, and non-verbal

B.

Verbal, formal documentation, and informal documentation

C.

Verbal, written, and graphic

D.

Verbal, written, and electronic

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Questions 173

Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used during the Perform quantitative risk analysis Process?

Options:

A.

Expected Monetary Value Analysis

B.

Risk Categorization

C.

Interviewing

D.

Sensitivity Analysis

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Questions 174

You are a project manager and the management wants you to help them determine which projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model, the most important factor is which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Business needs

B.

Type of constraints

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

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Questions 175

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

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Questions 176

Which of the following best describes the risks that still remain after avoidance, transfer, or mitigation responses have been implemented?

Options:

A.

Contingency risks

B.

Tertiary risks

C.

Residual risks

D.

Secondary risks

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Questions 177

When a project is being performed under contract, who provides SOW ?

Options:

A.

The buyer

B.

The contractor

C.

The Project sponsor

D.

The Project manager

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Questions 178

Which of the following is required for Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Charter update

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 179

Project management processes is organized into:

Options:

A.

Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing

B.

Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and closing

C.

Designing, developing, testing, and implementing

D.

Initiating, planning, contracting, developing, and closing

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Questions 180

All of the statements regarding control accounts and planning packages are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Control accounts and planning packages are tools and techniques of Develop Schedule process.

B.

A control account is an assigned WBS level used to monitor cost and schedule performance of significant element of work.

C.

Planning packages reflect a future segment of work within a control account that has not yet been decomposed into detailed work packages.

D.

As work becomes more clearly defined, planning packages are converted into work packages.

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Questions 181

Fast tracking involves:

Options:

A.

Developing workarounds for previous problems.

B.

An increase in project risk.

C.

Getting people to work longer with overtime.

D.

Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.

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Questions 182

During project integration activities, a project sponsor ' s role can best be described as doing which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues

B.

Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders

C.

Showing management the project progress and status reports

D.

None

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Questions 183

The process to change a contract clause is _______ the project change control system.

Options:

A.

Not related to

B.

An input to

C.

The same as

D.

Integrated within

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Questions 184

Which of the following is true about a project charter?

Options:

A.

A project charter should be published under the name of a manager external to the project.

B.

A project charter should be published under the project sponsor ' s name.

C.

A project charter should be published under the name of the project manager.

D.

A project charter should be published under the name of the project champion.

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Questions 185

You are the project manager for Tech Days Seminar Homes. Your new project assignment is to head the Days Seminar Home opening in Mountainview, CA. You are estimating the duration of the project plan activities, devising the project schedule, and monitoring and controlling deviations from the schedule. Which of the Project Management Knowledge Areas are you working in?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Quality Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Questions 186

Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Develop the project charter

C.

Develop the project statement of work

D.

Develop project closing document

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Questions 187

_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.

Options:

A.

Cost plus incentive fee

B.

F ' xed P|ice

C.

Time and material

D.

" ' s^ ' s nc* ' elated to price

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Questions 188

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

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Questions 189

During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.

Options:

A.

Alternative identification

B.

" ' s^ assessment

C.

Alternative selection

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 190

You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has ended before its stated objective

B.

' s st ' " cunning but missing resources

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

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Questions 191

In which phase you define the final deliverable?

Options:

A.

Closing

B.

Execution

C.

Planning

D.

Initiation

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Questions 192

A requirement document is an input of __________ process?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Define Scope

C.

Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 193

If a project with a SPI of 0.8, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is running ahead of the schedule

B.

The project is running behind of the schedule

C.

Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D.

None

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Questions 194

___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

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Questions 195

What are common types of cost-reimbursable contracts?

Options:

A.

CPF

B.

CPFF

C.

CPIF

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 196

Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as ________.

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Quality Assurance

C.

Quality Control

D.

Quality Measurement

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Questions 197

Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Updating risk register

B.

Determining risk roles and responsibilities

C.

Identifying risk categories

D.

Developing a risk management plan

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Questions 198

Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Foimal

D.

Coercive

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Questions 199

If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is running ahead of the schedule

B.

The project is running behind of the schedule

C.

Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D.

None

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Questions 200

What is a corrective action?

Options:

A.

An action that brings future project events Into alignment with the project plan

B.

An action to correct something in the project

C.

An action to prevent something in the project

D.

Corrective action is not related to project

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Questions 201

Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Requirements document created in collect requirements process

B.

Project files from previous projects

C.

Project Charter

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 202

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

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Questions 203

Project success can be achieved only if:

Options:

A.

There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.

B.

The project sponsor leads the initiatives.

C.

The project manager is an expert in managing resources.

D.

Team members like project manager.

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Questions 204

Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

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Questions 205

What are the inputs for Initiation process?

Options:

A.

Product description and Strategic plan

B.

Selection criteria

C.

Historical information

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 206

Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

Options:

A.

Executive Communication

B.

Risk Management

C.

Quality Management

D.

Scope Statement

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Questions 207

Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project?

Options:

A.

Quality baseline

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Process improvement plan

D.

QA checklist

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Questions 208

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 209

Market conditions are a part of ________.

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Project management concerns

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Cost factor

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Questions 210

A tight matrix is ___________________.

Options:

A.

A balanced matrix organization

B.

Where all team members are brought together in one location

C.

Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own departments and to the project manager

D.

Both A and c

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Questions 211

All of the following are outputs from Report Performance EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Trend analysis

B.

" S " curves, histograms, bar charts, and tables

C.

Performance reports

D.

Change requests

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Questions 212

During project integration activities, a project sponsor ' s role can best be described as doing which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues

B.

Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders

C.

Showing management the project progress and status reports

D.

None

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Questions 213

According to the PMBOK Guide, the project statement of work (SOW) should contain or reference all the following elements except?

Options:

A.

Business need, strategic plan, and product scope description

B.

Requirements, business need, and stakeholder expectations

C.

Strategic plan, product scope description, stakeholder influences, and business need

D.

Project purpose, business case, stakeholder influences, and product scope description

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Questions 214

Make payment to seller is done in _________.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 215

Employees in a balanced matrix often report to ______________.

Options:

A.

Two or more managers

B.

One manager

C.

Only functional manager

D.

None

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Questions 216

Completion of a product scope is measured against which of the following:

Options:

A.

WBS and WBS Dictionary

B.

Product Requirements

C.

Project Management Plan

D.

Product Management Plan

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Questions 217

Reserve analysis is a tool or technique in all of the following processes EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Determine budget

B.

Activity resource estimation

C.

Monitor and control risks

D.

Activity duration estimation

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Questions 218

From a buyer ' s standpoint, which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

Procurement planning should include consideration of potential subcontracts.

B.

Procurement planning does not include consideration of potential subcontracts since this is the duty of the contractor.

C.

Subcontractors are first considered during the Solicitation Process.

D.

None of the above

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Questions 219

Collocation can mean _______________.

Options:

A.

All, or almost all, team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the project.

B.

Active team members may be at different physical locations, but meet on a regular basis.

C.

A war room is established where team members can meet periodically.

D.

Both A and c are correct.

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Questions 220

The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under different conditions determines its ____________.

Options:

A.

Usability

B.

Flexibility

C.

Operability

D.

Availability

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Questions 221

All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT ___________.

Options:

A.

Memos

B.

Verbal circulation of a rumour

C.

videos

D.

Inputting data into a spreadsheet

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Questions 222

In which type of organization the team building is likely to be most difficult?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Project Expediter

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Questions 223

Which of the following processes involves obtaining information (bids and proposals) from prospective sellers?

Options:

A.

Procurement Planning

B.

Source Selection

C.

Contract Administration

D.

Solicitation

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Questions 224

Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is an example of which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Scope Creep

B.

Change Control

C.

Quality Assurance

D.

Integrated Change Control

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Exam Code: PMI-002
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 748

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