Free Practice Questions for the PMI Agile PMI-ACP Exam (2026 Updated)

Agile promotes transparency through information radiators, such as task boards, burndown charts, and Kanban boards. These tools are designed to make real-time progress visible to all stakeholders. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1: Communications) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), stakeholders should be directed to these real-time, transparent sources of truth.

Option B is correct: using an information radiator promotes transparency and reduces dependency on individuals.

Option A is inappropriate—standups are for the team.

Option C and D are manual approaches that reduce transparency and don ' t scale.

The correct answer is C – Identify and monitor issues through a risk burndown chart.

Risk burndown charts track how risk exposure is increasing or decreasing over time. This agile artifact is used to communicate risk trends and drive conversations around risk mitigation. It’s especially useful when risks threaten iteration goals or release timelines.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Risk burndown charts are visual tools that track remaining project risk. They help identify whether risks are increasing or decreasing and enable proactive management.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Risk Management in Agile)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Tracking risks visually, such as in a risk burndown chart, helps stakeholders understand exposure levels and fosters risk-mitigation behavior across the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Risk Management)

Why the other options fall short:

A delays action and does not help real-time monitoring.

B tracks tasks, not risk.

D (issue log) may help but lacks the proactive visual trend tracking provided by a burndown chart.

Answer: C

The correct answer is D – Assume the team member ' s tasks to meet iteration goals and notify the Product Owner. Agile teams are self-organizing and accountable. High-performing teams take ownership of shared goals and redistribute work as needed to maintain commitment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams collaborate to deliver sprint goals, adapting to changes such as unavailability of team members. They adjust workload and communicate impacts transparently.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“When team composition changes, the team must redistribute work to ensure delivery. Ownership, trust, and flexibility are core traits of high-performing agile teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A signals dysfunction and abdicates team responsibility.

B implies external management of team staffing.

C violates the principle of self-organization.

Velocity is a team-specific metric and cannot be reliably estimated until the team has worked together for several sprints. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4 Sprint Planning and Velocity Tracking), velocity should be measured empirically, not predicted based on assumptions or external input.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning) emphasizes that new teams need to run a few sprints to establish a reliable velocity through real performance data, not estimation.

Option D is correct: actual performance determines true velocity.

Option A and B rely on speculation.

Option C incorrectly uses sponsor input for team planning, which goes against agile principles.

The best answer is B because agile teams should use frequent feedback, customer data, and learning to adapt priorities. The problem is that teams are continuing to invest in low-adoption features because feedback is reviewed too late. Integrating usage analytics into prioritization creates a shorter feedback loop and supports value-based decision-making.

Option A improves review frequency but still keeps decisions at an executive review level rather than embedding feedback into the team’s prioritization process. Option C shifts decision-making to regional managers, but agile prioritization should still consider product value, customer outcomes, and team learning. Option D focuses on output rather than outcome; delivering more features does not necessarily reduce churn or improve value.

PMI-ACP topics emphasize maximizing value, adapting to feedback, engaging stakeholders early, and using empirical information to improve future increments.

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The information radiator is a key tool in Agile that provides a real-time, visual display of the project ' s current status, including progress, completed tasks, blockers, and upcoming work. This is typically made accessible to all stakeholders and is updated regularly to ensure transparency and communication. Instead of relying on emails or meeting invites, the Scrum Master should direct the customer representative to the information radiator, as it provides the most up-to-date and easily accessible information about the project’s progress. This encourages transparency and aligns with Agile principles of open communication and visibility.

The correct answer is D – Turn the requests into user stories and prioritize them. In agile, all feature requests must be expressed in the form of user stories and added to the product backlog. Once added, they are prioritized collaboratively with the product owner and stakeholders, usually based on value, risk, and effort.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product backlog refinement includes breaking down large items into user stories, reprioritizing items, and ensuring they are properly understood by the team. This activity is critical in ensuring the right items are worked on at the right time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Refinement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile teams transform customer needs into user stories during backlog grooming. These are then prioritized by the product owner to ensure maximum value is delivered early.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Option A ignores customer needs. Option B (ordering by complexity) does not consider value. Option C skips the important step of converting feature requests into properly structured backlog items.

Answer: D

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The best answer is C because agile backlog prioritization should be collaborative and value-driven. Stakeholder input is essential, but prioritization should also consider technical feasibility, dependencies, risks, team capacity, product goals, and value delivery. The agile team, product ownership role, and stakeholders should work together to maintain alignment.

Option A is incorrect because the change management team should not own backlog prioritization. Option B gives stakeholders too much unilateral control and ignores team insight. Option D ignores stakeholder priorities, which is not agile. Agile requires transparency, collaboration, and continuous alignment with business and customer value.

PMI-ACP topics emphasize engaging stakeholders, aligning work with organizational priorities, promoting shared vision and purpose, and ensuring the product remains aligned to organizational goals.

When the team determines that the highest-priority item will take longer than expected in the current sprint, it is essential to engage the product owner. The product owner is responsible for maintaining the product backlog and defining the priority of work items. By scheduling a meeting with the product owner, the team can collaboratively reassess the priorities and make adjustments based on the evolving understanding of the work required.

The product owner can help determine if the current high-priority item should be moved to the next sprint or if other adjustments to the backlog are needed. This ensures that the team is always focused on delivering the most valuable work within the given sprint time frame. Engaging with the product owner fosters collaboration and ensures alignment between the team and stakeholders, maintaining flexibility and focus on delivering customer value.

The correct answer is B – Lack of shared knowledge of user stories.

Distributed teams face challenges in collaboration, knowledge sharing, and communication. Without regular interaction, team members may not fully understand user stories, acceptance criteria, or customer needs. This leads to misalignment and potentially lower-quality outputs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Distributed teams face barriers to communication and knowledge sharing. Agile teams must use collaboration tools and practices to ensure that all members share an understanding of the user stories and priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Agile Team Communication)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Remote Agile teams must work harder to ensure clarity in user stories and maintain shared understanding. Without this, misunderstandings increase.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A (frequent integration) is a benefit, not a risk.

C is irrelevant to Agile effectiveness.

D is less common with Agile roles clearly defined (PO, SM, Dev Team).

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D – Develop and distribute a high-level summary of how Agile offers greater benefits than predictive to the organization ' s executive directors, and if executive directors agree with the summary, distribute it organization-wide.

Cultural change must be supported from the top. Executive buy-in is crucial for any organizational transformation. Agile coaches work with leadership to promote Agile values, educate key decision-makers, and cascade change throughout the organization in a structured and supported way.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Cultural change requires executive sponsorship. Coaches must engage with senior leadership to build understanding, alignment, and support before broader rollout.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Introducing Agile)

Mike Griffiths confirms:

“Agile adoption is most effective when leadership embraces its principles. Change must be seeded and supported at the executive level before diffusing to teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2 – Agile Mindset)

Other options:

A gives control to mid-management, which may hinder transformation.

B misdirects effort (vendors, not coaching focus).

C risks premature deployment without leadership support.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Show the stakeholder the progress radiators for the project.

Progress radiators, such as task boards, burndown charts, and Kanban boards, visually communicate the status of work in progress, completed items, and remaining scope. They are effective tools for quickly bringing stakeholders up to speed without interrupting the team or requiring extensive reporting.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Progress is tracked and made visible using information radiators such as burndown charts, task boards, and velocity charts. These tools allow stakeholders to monitor project health in real time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Transparency and visibility are essential in agile. Information radiators keep stakeholders informed and promote collaboration without relying on status reports.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Monitoring and Control)

Other options explained:

A and D offer limited insights or are inappropriate for immediate understanding.

B is valuable but time-limited; radiators provide continuous insight.

Answer: C

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Agile empowers teams to be self-organizing and self-managing. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6) and Mike Griffiths ' PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), the agile coach or Scrum Master facilitates the process but should encourage the team to resolve internal issues themselves. This develops ownership, team maturity, and accountability.

The team coach’s role is to support, not solve. Escalating issues unnecessarily or bypassing the team undermines agile principles. Therefore, Option C is correct: the coach should encourage the team to address and resolve the issue internally, stepping in only if the team cannot resolve it themselves.

Task boards (or visual boards) are a great way to facilitate communication within the team. By using a task board, team members can easily see what work has been completed, what is currently being worked on, and what still needs attention. This visual aid helps keep everyone on the same page, ensures that information is shared transparently, and can help identify potential bottlenecks or communication gaps. It improves collaboration and visibility, making it easier for the team to coordinate and align on tasks, leading to fewer delays in the development process.

The product owner is responsible for managing the product backlog and ensuring that it reflects the priorities and vision of the product. While the Scrum team can suggest changes or improvements during the refinement process, the product owner has the final say on what changes are made to the backlog. This ensures that the product backlog aligns with business needs, stakeholder expectations, and the overall product vision. Therefore, the product owner can reject changes to the backlog if they believe the changes do not align with these priorities.

As a servant leader, it is important to address the root cause of the disruption, which in this case is the director ' s repeated visits and distracting conversations. Coaching the company director on agile practices and good communication helps them understand the need to minimize interruptions and foster a productive environment for the team. This approach will help align the director ' s behavior with Agile principles, ensuring that the team can focus on delivering value without unnecessary distractions. By educating the director, the servant leader can improve overall team dynamics and project efficiency.

The daily standup is focused on ensuring the team stays synchronized on their commitments for the sprint, and it is meant to be a short meeting where team members quickly discuss what they did the previous day, what they plan to do today, and any blockers they are facing. It is not a forum for external stakeholders to ask detailed questions about the sprint backlog or delivery timelines, as this can disrupt the team ' s focus and hinder the meeting ' s efficiency.

By explaining that the standup is about synchronizing commitments, the project manager helps the business partners understand the purpose of the meeting and suggests an appropriate time and place for discussing more detailed or strategic topics.

In Agile, change is considered a natural part of the process, as requirements evolve based on feedback and new insights. The Scrum Master should help the team understand that changes are an opportunity to improve the product and deliver more value to the stakeholders. While it ' s important to manage changes effectively, it ' s also crucial to communicate that continuous improvement and adaptation are integral parts of Agile practices. The Scrum Master should foster a positive environment where change is seen as a way to better meet the customer ' s needs rather than a hindrance to performance.

The correct answer is B – Align with stakeholder expectations and releasable product increments.

In Agile, sprint or iteration reviews provide an opportunity for the team to present completed work and validate it against stakeholder expectations. Demonstrations should showcase working, potentially shippable increments that align with business goals and value delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The purpose of iteration reviews is to showcase a working product increment. The review should focus on what was completed and how it aligns with stakeholder expectations and business objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Iteration Review)

PMBOK® Guide further reinforces this point:

“The team should deliver functional product increments that are valuable to stakeholders. These should be validated for alignment with scope and business value.”

(PMBOK® Guide, 6th Edition, Section 5.5 – Validate Scope)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Product demonstrations should confirm stakeholder needs are being met. The team’s focus should be on verifying value delivery, product completeness, and stakeholder alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Stakeholder Feedback)

Why other options fall short:

A is valuable context, but doesn’t directly ensure demonstration success.

C reflects team improvement but is not the purpose of a product demo.

D speaks to collaboration, not validation of stakeholder alignment.

Answer: B

The burndown chart displayed shows two lines:

A diagonal guideline (ideal trend line) representing the expected or planned burndown rate.

A line with plotted black squares representing the actual progress of work completed during the iteration (typically in story points or hours).

The actual progress line (with black squares) stays consistently above the ideal line throughout the iteration.

This indicates that less work was completed than planned at each point in time.

Toward the end of the iteration (around the 30th or 31st), the chart shows that the total remaining work does not reach zero—implying incomplete work by the iteration’s end.

Analysis of the Chart:Interpretation According to Agile Standards:According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Tracking Iteration Progress) and Mike Griffiths ' PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning):

A burndown chart that remains above the ideal line and does not reach the baseline (zero) by the end of the iteration reflects that the team is behind schedule and did not complete all planned work.

The burndown chart is a primary information radiator for evaluating scope completion versus time and is a critical tool for monitoring iteration performance.

Therefore:

Option C is correct:

" It trended behind schedule and did not complete everything on time. "

Option A is incorrect — the chart clearly shows a lag behind schedule.

Option B is incorrect — there is no indication that the iteration time box was extended.

Option D is incorrect — the team did not finish early or complete all tasks.

The correct answer is D – Encourage the team member to use experimentation/spikes for continuous improvement and help the team understand why it is important. Agile encourages learning and experimentation through techniques like spikes (time-boxed research or exploration activities).

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages teams to experiment and learn continuously. Time-boxed spikes can be used to investigate alternative designs, reduce uncertainty, and support informed decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes and Uncertainty Reduction)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Spikes are short, time-limited investigations into a design or technical approach. They are a vital part of agile development for reducing risk, exploring alternatives, and enabling innovation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A and C discourage innovation and agility.

B defers action rather than enabling real-time learning.

Answer: D

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In Agile, ensuring that the product works without bugs or missing features can be achieved through continuous testing and validation of the product. Test-driven development (TDD) is an approach where tests are written before the code is developed. This helps ensure that each feature is fully tested as it is built, focusing on customer requirements from the start and preventing issues from accumulating. By using TDD, the product owner ensures the product is being tested incrementally, which reduces the risk of defects and aligns with customer expectations for a high-quality product upon release.

Capturing and reviewing lessons learned is a vital practice in both agile and traditional environments. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives) and PMBOK® Guide (Lessons Learned Register), continuous learning from project execution helps teams and organizations improve predictability, quality, and efficiency.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement) highlights the importance of documenting insights and feeding them into future projects for organizational maturity.

Option A is correct: creating and reviewing a lessons learned repository supports organizational learning and better delivery.

Option B confuses issue tracking with structured learning.

Option C removes responsibility from the team—agile encourages team ownership of improvement.

Option D is helpful in some contexts but is not a repeatable organizational improvement tool like a lessons learned repository.

The correct answer is B – Ask the team for suggestions. Agile teams are self-organizing. The Scrum Master should facilitate problem-solving by enabling the team to collaboratively decide how to handle bottlenecks. This approach respects the team ' s autonomy and encourages shared ownership.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Scrum Masters facilitate team collaboration and self-organization. When problems arise, they engage the team in identifying and implementing solutions, rather than solving issues unilaterally.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Servant Leadership and Team Empowerment)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“The Scrum Master’s role is to facilitate rather than direct. If a team member falls behind, the team should collectively explore options for support, ensuring accountability and transparency.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A undermines team autonomy and assigns tasks, which the Scrum Master should not do.

C may help, but addressing issues privately doesn’t promote transparency.

D involves the Product Owner unnecessarily in team internal issues.

Answer: B

In Scrum, the goal is to have open discussions during estimation, where all team members, including junior developers, can express their thoughts and assumptions. The Scrum Master should encourage the junior developers to keep their estimations because these can highlight different perspectives, constraints, or assumptions that others may not have considered. This helps create a more comprehensive understanding of the work and fosters a collaborative environment. It also builds confidence in junior team members, allowing them to contribute more effectively and learn from their peers in the process.

When the team is not confident that the solution will work, delivering the minimum marketable feature (MMF) to customers for feedback is the best approach. The MMF represents the smallest, functional version of the product that can provide value to customers. By delivering this early and obtaining feedback, the team can validate assumptions, identify potential issues, and make necessary adjustments before committing to further development. This approach allows for early course correction and ensures the solution aligns with customer expectations and business needs.

The " Life Timeline " exercise is a technique used to build psychological safety and vulnerability-based trust. According to Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), exercises that encourage sharing personal stories and emotional journeys foster deep interpersonal connection, which is foundational to high-performance teams.

The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Building Trust) emphasizes the role of emotional intelligence and trust-building in agile teams, stating that teams become high-performing when they feel safe to express themselves without fear of judgment.

Option B is correct: the exercise builds vulnerability and trust—key drivers of high performance.

Option A focuses on trust but doesn ' t emphasize vulnerability, which is central here.

Option C is too generic.

Option D misframes the purpose—it’s about building connection, not assessing competencies.

In an adaptive environment, the project manager’s role is focused on facilitating collaboration and communication among stakeholders, teams, and sponsors to ensure that decisions are made quickly and effectively as circumstances change. This aligns with the agile principle of collaboration over contract negotiation and emphasizes adaptability and the ability to respond to changing needs. While project managers may still contribute to planning and other activities, fostering a collaborative and flexible decision-making process is key in an adaptive environment.

The correct answer is B – Recommend an Agile delivery approach and provide information to the stakeholders on Agile values and principles.

Agile enables early and continuous delivery of valuable software, short feedback loops, and faster time to market. When competitive advantage and speed are critical, introducing Agile principles allows the organization to remain flexible, respond to change, and deliver increments faster.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide quicker feedback, faster time to market, and more opportunity to deliver business value early. They are ideal in dynamic environments with evolving customer needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 1.3 – When to Use Agile)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile emphasizes early and continuous delivery, allowing organizations to test, learn, and adjust quickly to changes—critical for achieving business agility and competitive advantage.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 1 – Agile Mindset)

Why other options are not optimal:

A suggests a predictive mindset and planning before implementation.

C focuses only on Scrum roles, which may be too narrow for organizational-level change.

D relies on traditional governance structures that may resist Agile change.

Answer: B

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As a scrum master, the goal is to foster a collaborative and self-organizing environment. When conflicts arise, it is essential to guide the team in resolving the issue on their own rather than making unilateral decisions. The scrum master should:

Coach the team individually to understand the root causes of the conflict and ensure each team member feels heard.

Then, bring the team together in a more structured environment, such as the Sprint review, to discuss the disagreement openly and constructively. This helps the team resolve conflicts and learn how to handle similar situations in the future.

The correct answer is B – Ensure there is a balanced mix of people who are experts and members with broad experience based on the work to be performed and determine training needs.

Scrum encourages cross-functional, self-organizing teams with complementary skills. Building a balanced team that reflects both depth and breadth of experience ensures optimal delivery while enabling team learning.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are cross-functional. The team may need T-shaped skills—members with deep expertise in one area and a willingness to broaden knowledge in other areas. Creating balanced teams with knowledge diversity leads to better collaboration and learning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Team selection should prioritize diversity of skill sets and the ability to collaborate, not just performance history. The goal is a team that can deliver value collectively, not as individuals.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are not suitable:

A may reduce team diversity and discourage healthy conflict resolution.

C may not be feasible in distributed environments and is not a strict requirement.

D focuses on individual velocity contributions, which contradicts Agile’s team-based delivery focus.

Answer: B

Estimation challenges are common among new agile teams. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Requirements and Estimating Techniques), improving estimation accuracy involves team collaboration, continuous feedback, and inspecting and adapting techniques such as Planning Poker, affinity estimation, or triangulation. These discussions should happen in dedicated planning or retrospective meetings, but estimation issues can be flagged and lightly discussed in daily scrums to initiate deeper review.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning) advises that estimation is a team activity, not an individual one, and that teams learn and improve accuracy over time through feedback loops and shared insights.

Option B is correct because discussing estimating challenges—even briefly during daily scrums—raises team awareness and drives improvement.

Option A and C deal with symptoms rather than the root cause.

Option D suggests using metrics for performance evaluation, which contradicts agile values (Agile Manifesto: " Individuals and interactions over processes and tools " ).

In Scrum, responsibilities are distributed among the product owner, scrum master, and development team to ensure clear accountability and efficient value delivery.

The product owner manages the product backlog, ensures alignment with business goals, and defines the priorities for the team.

The scrum master facilitates the Scrum process, removes impediments, and ensures adherence to Agile principles.

The development team owns the sprint backlog and is responsible for incremental delivery toward the sprint goal.

This division of responsibilities ensures that each role focuses on their core areas, fostering transparency, collaboration, and value-driven development.

The correct answer is B — Communicate the issue to the team in the next stand-up meeting.

Agile emphasizes early detection and resolution of impediments through daily communication. The Daily Stand-up is the appropriate forum to raise issues, so the entire team is aware and can decide collaboratively how to proceed.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Daily stand-ups allow team members to communicate problems and identify impediments early. The team collaboratively determines how to respond to issues raised.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 — Stand-up Meetings)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Issues must be shared early and openly. The stand-up is designed to expose blockers and ensure collective team awareness and decision-making.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Option A skips collaboration and bypasses the team’s self-organizing nature. Options C and D delay the communication until the retrospective, which would result in lost time and potentially compound the issue.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D because organizational transformation to agile requires more than process changes—it requires a shift in mindset. Training teams on agile values and principles builds a shared foundation and helps foster commitment to agile ways of working.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile transformation requires attention to both practices and mindset. Leaders must help teams embrace agile values, empower decision-making, and promote an agile culture through education and active support.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Organizational Change and Transformation)

From PMBOK® Guide – 7th Edition:

“Successful transformation begins with people understanding the why and how of agile. Change cannot happen effectively without adequate training and communication.”

(PMBOK Guide 7th Ed., Principle 1 – Be a Diligent, Respectful, and Caring Steward)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile success is rooted in the team’s understanding of core principles. Agile leaders must invest in developing a strong foundational mindset, as well as practices. Education is a critical enabler of sustainable agile adoption.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Option A is a partial strategy but doesn’t ensure cultural transformation.

Option B is necessary but not sufficient—buy-in alone won’t change behavior.

Option C is tactical and useful but doesn’t address team-wide mindset change.

Answer: D

The correct answer is C – Refer to the remaining prioritized backlog items. Agile planning is iterative and based on the product backlog’s prioritization. During iteration planning, once the team has identified most story points to be delivered, it should refer back to the product backlog and select the next highest-priority user stories to fill in the remaining capacity, considering the team’s historical velocity.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Iteration planning begins with the team reviewing the prioritized backlog items. Based on their velocity, they determine how many stories can be completed. Teams select stories from the top of the backlog and stop when they reach their capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Iteration Planning)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“Agile teams rely on a prioritized backlog maintained by the product owner. Iteration planning involves pulling the highest-priority stories into the sprint until the team reaches its forecasted velocity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options are incorrect:

A is counter to adaptive planning and proactive engagement.

B focuses on technical feasibility, not business priority.

D ignores prioritization and may add low-value work.

Answer: C

The best answer is A because the scenario emphasizes delivering value early and often. This aligns with the agile principle of frequent delivery of working increments and shorter feedback cycles. Working with different business units also supports stakeholder collaboration, but the strongest clue in the question is “deliver value early and often.”

Option B refers to self-organizing teams and emergent design, which is not the main focus of the scenario. Option C reflects the agile value of individuals and interactions over processes and tools, but the question is more about early and frequent value delivery. Option D sounds agile-aligned, but it is not the best PMI-ACP answer here because the scenario specifically points to frequent delivery.

PMI-ACP emphasizes building increments, shortening feedback loops, maximizing value within a timeframe, and adapting based on learning and feedback.

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The correct answer is B – Break the story up and focus on the most valuable parts. Agile promotes progressive elaboration, and large or complex stories (epics) should be broken down into smaller, testable user stories. This practice enables clarity, faster feedback, and more accurate planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Large stories (epics) should be split into smaller user stories to enable understanding, estimation, and incremental delivery. Stories should be small enough to be completed within an iteration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – User Stories and Story Splitting)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When a user story is too large or unclear, the team should break it down into smaller pieces, focusing on the most valuable parts first. Story splitting is a key agile practice.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A discourages collaboration and learning.

C delays the resolution unnecessarily.

D avoids solving the actual problem and abandons valuable work.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is C – Conduct retrospectives at the end of every sprint.

According to the Agile framework, regular retrospectives are a key practice to inspect and adapt the process. If team members have concerns about the Scrum Master ' s processes, the appropriate time and space to bring up and resolve such issues is the Sprint Retrospective.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a time-boxed event that enables the team to inspect itself and create a plan for improvements to be enacted during the next iteration. It provides a structured opportunity for feedback and reflection.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5, Iteration Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths further adds:

“Teams must take ownership of their process. The role of the agile leader, such as a Scrum Master, is to facilitate improvement via mechanisms like retrospectives. They are not responsible for enforcing process, but for enabling continuous improvement.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A may undermine the team ' s self-organization and brings hierarchy into team-level process adjustments.

B may address some confusion, but doesn’t actively involve the team in process improvement.

D is inappropriate—sprint planning is for work planning, not process feedback.

Therefore, the most agile-appropriate and validated solution is: C

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The first priority for the Scrum Master should be to ensure the project has a dedicated, cross-functional team. Scrum teams are self-organizing and cross-functional, meaning they have all the skills needed to complete the work without relying on external resources. The Scrum Master should focus on forming a team that can collaboratively work on the product development, ensuring they are committed to the project and understand their roles and responsibilities within the Scrum framework. This is essential for the team to be effective and aligned with the Scrum principles, ensuring that they can deliver value in iterative cycles.

To improve the team’s productivity, it is essential to keep both the product backlog and the iteration backlog up to date. The product backlog contains the overall product features and requirements, while the iteration backlog focuses on the work planned for the current iteration. Ensuring that both backlogs are updated as issues and new tasks arise will help maintain clarity and avoid confusion, enabling the team to prioritize and track progress more effectively. This will also help minimize delays and rework, as the team will have a clear, accurate view of what needs to be done and what has been accomplished.

The correct answer is C — Ask management to ensure that the resource is available to only one project at a time.

Agile promotes dedicated, stable teams over multitasking. Task-switching reduces productivity and leads to context-switching overhead. If a key resource is overburdened and switching between multiple projects, the best solution is to secure focused commitment by escalating to management for support.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams should be dedicated and work on one project at a time. Splitting attention across multiple efforts reduces velocity and quality due to context switching.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.1 – Team Composition)

Mike Griffiths highlights:

“Effective agile teams are stable, long-lived, and dedicated. Shared resources create bottlenecks, undermine predictability, and impair team dynamics.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A may solve bandwidth issues but not focus or ownership.

B addresses symptoms, not the core issue of divided focus.

D tolerates a harmful practice that contradicts agile team stability.

Answer: C

When plotting performance and dependencies on the product roadmap, the product manager should consider features, stages of development, technology and infrastructure, dependencies, and risks. These components are critical for understanding how the product will evolve over time, the technical requirements, how different parts of the system depend on each other, and the potential risks that may arise. This approach ensures that the team can manage dependencies effectively, mitigate risks, and deliver the product in line with business goals and timelines.

Step 1: Identify Total Story Points in the Backlog

From the backlog table:

Total story points = 6 + 4 + 8 + 4 + 21 + 7 + 5 + 9 + 3 + 5 = 72

Step 2: Determine the Team ' s Velocity

The risk register mentions a burn reduction of 1 story point per sprint from sprint 4 to sprint 6 due to a holiday schedule. However, assuming a normal velocity of 5 story points per sprint, we can estimate sprint completion.

Normal sprint velocity: 5 story points per sprint

Reduced velocity for sprints 4-6: 4 story points per sprint

Step 3: Calculate Total Sprints Needed

First 3 sprints: 5 points per sprint → 5 × 3 = 15 story points completed

Sprints 4-6: 4 points per sprint → 4 × 3 = 12 story points completed

Remaining story points after sprint 6: 72 - (15 + 12) = 45 story points

Remaining sprints needed at normal velocity (5 story points per sprint): 45 ÷ 5 = 9 sprints

Total Sprints Required

Sprints 1-6: Already planned.

Additional 9 sprints needed.

Total sprints to complete the backlog: 6 + 9 = 15 sprints.

The correct answer is C – Create an environment of continued learning by providing opportunities for team members to develop their skills as generalized specialists.

Agile encourages the concept of “T-shaped” team members—individuals who have deep expertise in one area and broad skills across multiple areas. Promoting cross-skilling and continued learning reduces risk, increases collaboration, and helps build a resilient, self-sustaining team.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should strive to become cross-functional and develop generalized specialists who can collaborate effectively across domains.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Building High-Performing Teams)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile promotes team learning. Encouraging members to grow as generalized specialists reduces reliance on single individuals and improves flexibility.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A helps but is not sufficient on its own.

B is a solid practice but doesn ' t directly promote skills growth.

D goes against Agile values of team development and empowerment.

Answer: C

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In agile, the Product Owner is the ultimate decision-maker regarding backlog prioritization and scope changes. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Backlog Prioritization), any changes that affect value delivery, schedule, or scope should be discussed with the Product Owner, who evaluates the business impact.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery) reinforces that product direction and scope decisions must be handled through collaboration between the team and the Product Owner.

Option D is correct: seeking Product Owner input ensures value-based decision-making and customer alignment.

Option A (re-estimating the entire project) is unnecessary and burdensome.

Option B rejects valuable input and ignores iterative flexibility.

Option C goes against agile principles of focus and sustainable pace.

When there is uncertainty about how certain product features should work, creating a prototype is an effective way to reduce that uncertainty. Prototyping allows the product owner to test ideas, gather feedback from users early in the process, and make adjustments based on real-world input. This approach helps clarify the product ' s functionality and ensure that the team is building something that meets user needs, all while maintaining flexibility and adaptability in the Agile environment.

The correct answer is A – Facilitate a team discussion to identify knowledge gaps and determine the best way to address them.

The agile coach ' s role is to foster team ownership and encourage collaborative problem solving. When knowledge gaps are uncovered, the first step is to create transparency and engage the team in identifying how to resolve the gap—through pairing, mentoring, spikes, or backlog adjustments.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders coach teams to self-identify impediments and explore solutions collaboratively. Coaching helps teams build awareness and take ownership of their development and process improvements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Rather than providing direct solutions, agile coaches should help teams uncover their own improvements through retrospection, facilitated discussion, and group problem solving.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement / Coaching)

Why the other options fall short:

B and C externalize the problem instead of building team capability.

D may be part of the solution, but the team should explore it collectively—not as a unilateral decision.

Answer: A

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Transparency is key in agile. The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communications) emphasizes the use of information radiators—visual displays such as task boards, burndown charts, or Kanban boards that immediately communicate project status. These tools make progress visible to all stakeholders without needing detailed documentation.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement) reinforces that collocated displays or shared online boards reduce misunderstandings and keep stakeholders aligned.

Option D is correct: a public project board offers real-time visibility and promotes transparency.

Option A contradicts agile by emphasizing documentation over working software.

Option B limits visibility to a subset of stakeholders and is passive.

Option C disrupts the team’s daily focus—stand-ups are not intended for stakeholder participation.

To understand the needs of different user types, agile teams use personas and extreme characters to represent a range of users, including edge cases. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Requirements and Personas) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), personas help teams build empathy and ensure that stories reflect actual user roles—not just generic assumptions.

Option D is correct: personas and extreme characters ensure inclusive and realistic story coverage.

Option A and B focus on communication and sequencing but not user diversity.

Option C (process flows) is more technical and doesn’t solve the misalignment with user perspectives.

To prevent the issue of the customer declining to accept the final deliverable after the demo, the project manager should prioritize frequent releases and feedback loops. By releasing new features or updates frequently, customers have the opportunity to provide feedback earlier in the process, which allows for adjustments to be made during development rather than at the end. This iterative process ensures that the final product better aligns with the customer ' s expectations and requirements.

The correct answer is C — During the retrospective, discuss the issue and create an action plan to avoid it in the future.

When teams misestimate or experience incomplete work, it’s important to reflect during the retrospective and create action items. This is a fundamental aspect of agile: continuous inspection, adaptation, and team-driven improvement.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives help identify opportunities for improvement. The team reviews its estimation accuracy and adjusts processes or practices based on patterns observed.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 — Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“Estimating complexity is an area for ongoing learning. Teams use retrospectives to improve their sizing, identify knowledge gaps, and refine their planning techniques.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A unnecessarily involves a project manager (non-agile).

B assumes one-size-fits-all rules, which limits team agility.

D ignores the structured opportunity the retrospective provides for team learning.

Answer: C

—

The best approach for the agile coach would be to address the root cause of the concern immediately and help the team reflect on their current processes to identify ways to improve. This can be achieved by engaging the team in a discussion that focuses on understanding the issues related to the technical design and the definition of done (DoD).

This will allow the team to openly discuss and identify specific areas of the technical designs that do not meet the DoD. By understanding the underlying issues, the coach can help the team find solutions and ensure that future work aligns with the agreed-upon quality standards and expectations.

The correct answer is C – Seek regular input from project stakeholders, and reflect this input in the backlog’s priorities. Agile is a stakeholder-driven process, and backlog refinement should be informed by continuous feedback. The product owner maximizes value by regularly reviewing stakeholder needs and reprioritizing accordingly.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The product owner is responsible for maintaining the backlog and ensuring it reflects stakeholder priorities. Ongoing engagement with stakeholders ensures the product delivers maximum value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Management)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile product owners engage stakeholders continuously to update priorities and deliver value incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is good practice but doesn’t address the stakeholder engagement challenge.

B confuses story size with business value.

D lacks the agility required in a fast-moving project.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A – Plan activities that will require the team to work collaboratively on a regular basis.

Agile teams thrive on collaboration, shared ownership, and collective problem solving. While individual performance may meet goals short-term, long-term value and quality come from integrated teamwork. An agile practitioner should help foster collaboration through team-building activities or practices like pair programming, collective backlog grooming, and swarming.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are self-organizing and collaborative. Encouraging collaborative practices builds trust, increases quality, and improves alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Collaboration does not happen automatically—it must be supported. Facilitating shared work and group problem-solving leads to stronger team dynamics and better outcomes.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are less effective:

B introduces rigid evaluation that contradicts agile values.

C bypasses coaching and assumes the current team can’t improve.

D ignores the growing problem of misalignment and disengagement.

Answer: A

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The Minimum Viable Product (MVP) is the smallest set of features needed to satisfy early adopters and deliver value quickly while enabling further development based on feedback. From the conversation:

Android phone integration: The customer specifically asks if they can connect their phone to the calendar app, so integrating with Android is a key MVP feature.

Scheduler to add events: The customer requests the ability to schedule and manage upcoming releases, including quarterly metrics deadlines and other key dates. This is fundamental functionality for the calendar app.

Product increment release dates: The customer wants the calendar to show release dates, so having the ability to display product increment release dates is essential.

Retrospectives are held to inspect what went well and what could be improved. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6), teams should use retrospectives to identify issues, root causes, and impediments, not just successes. Identifying and discussing the problems that arose helps the team avoid similar issues in future sprints.

Mike Griffiths in his PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement) emphasizes the importance of open discussions around problems and the value of a safe environment where teams can reflect and improve.

Option B is correct: by highlighting the problems that emerged, the Scrum Master sets the stage for continuous improvement and alignment with organizational goals.

Continuous delivery is a key practice in DevOps, ensuring that code is always in a deployable state. This practice allows for faster, more reliable releases, promoting automation and consistent feedback loops in the development process. It helps teams to iterate quickly and deploy changes frequently, which is a hallmark of DevOps.

When the organization transitions from longer to shorter iterations, it’s crucial to provide the team with the right support and ensure they have the resources to adapt. Requesting support from the enterprise coach and HR can help the team manage this change effectively, providing them with necessary training or assistance. Additionally, assessing the impact of the change and brainstorming solutions with the team helps address concerns about testing and ceremonies, while allowing the team to provide input on how they can adapt to the new iteration length without compromising quality or efficiency.

Before the workshop, the team members should read and identify relevant user stories from the product backlog that directly contribute to the goal of developing the feature for receiving and resolving customer complaints. This ensures that the stories being worked on are well-understood and aligned with the release goal.

The team should also consider the possible risks associated with each selected user story, such as technical challenges or dependencies. Additionally, they should evaluate the value each story adds to the final user (customer), ensuring that the team focuses on delivering maximum value in the release.

The correct answer is C – Ask the Product Owner to select an item from the backlog on which to work. The Product Owner is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog. When a team finishes its sprint work early, it should collaborate with the Product Owner to identify the next highest-value item to pull into the sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner owns the backlog and prioritization. If work is completed early, the team may pull in the next most important backlog item, subject to capacity and readiness.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Execution)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“If there’s remaining capacity in the sprint, teams should consult the Product Owner to select the next item. The Scrum Master facilitates, but the PO owns content decisions.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A skips prioritization.

B misplaces decision-making authority.

D incorrectly involves the Scrum Master in backlog decisions.

Answer: C

Story point estimation in agile is a collaborative team activity, and consensus is critical. Techniques like Planning Poker are designed to reveal differences in understanding. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Estimating Techniques) and Mike Griffiths (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), when there ' s a discrepancy in estimates, it is essential to discuss and understand the rationale behind differing views.

Option C is correct: the team should discuss and clarify to reach a shared understanding.

Option A ignores potential misunderstandings.

Option B unnecessarily delays estimation.

Option D is incorrect—the team, not the customer, estimates the effort.

Agile promotes maintaining the integrity of the sprint commitment once it begins. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Sprint Planning and Managing Change), new requirements discovered mid-sprint should be added to the product backlog and reprioritized for a future sprint unless they are critical blockers.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution) explains that backlog management is key to handling emerging work. Agile teams should not reactively shift focus, as it disrupts flow and predictability.

Option B is correct: placing the new requirement in the backlog respects sprint boundaries and ensures proper prioritization.

Option A disrupts sprint scope mid-course.

Option C is unnecessary unless the issue is blocking progress.

Option D violates the principle of sprint focus and planning discipline.

The correct answer is B – Discuss the value of the change for the project with the customer.

Agile encourages ongoing collaboration with the customer, even if changes occur late in development. The contractor should not immediately reject or escalate the request. Instead, the first step is to assess the value of the requested change, collaborate on its importance, and then determine the best path forward—whether through backlog reprioritization or contractual adjustment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile welcomes changes in requirements, even late in development. Collaborate with the customer to explore the value of the change and its impact on schedule, cost, and scope.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Delivering Value Frequently)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Before resorting to contract changes or governance processes, teams should talk with the customer to understand the reason behind the change and its value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are suboptimal:

A assumes the change must go through legal channels without exploring its business value.

C may be necessary later but not as a first step.

D passively ignores the change and risks stakeholder dissatisfaction.

Answer: B

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The sponsor is looking at the product roadmap, which is a visual representation of the product ' s planned features and their expected delivery timelines across multiple releases. It typically shows the major milestones, planned releases, and features grouped by their respective release numbers. This aligns with the sponsor ' s inquiry about when a specific feature will be ready, as the roadmap provides a high-level view of the product ' s development and release schedule.

The correct answer is D – Use the team ' s historical velocity to calculate a range of features that can be delivered. Agile emphasizes forecasting over commitment, and this is achieved through empirical data such as velocity. Providing a range based on historical velocity allows for realistic planning while acknowledging uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile forecasting is based on empirical data. Teams use their past velocity to forecast how much work they can complete in a given time frame. This forecast is typically expressed as a range to account for variability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Forecasting)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Rather than commit to fixed scope, agile teams use historical velocity and prioritized backlogs to forecast delivery. Forecasts are probabilistic, not promises.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Estimation and Forecasting)

Incorrect options:

A violates agile’s core value of responding to change over following a fixed plan.

B delays valuable forecasting data.

C implies commitment rather than forecast.

Answer: D

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If the team members are already communicating regularly with each other and the customer, the daily coordination meetings may not be necessary. The project manager should adapt to the team ' s needs by reducing the frequency of these meetings, allowing the team to focus more on delivering work. This approach supports Agile principles of minimizing waste and encouraging efficient communication, ensuring that meetings are only held when they add clear value. The team can use alternative methods (e.g., a digital board or asynchronous communication) to stay aligned.

The correct answer is C – Encourage all feedback then work with the customer to prioritize work for future sprints. Agile welcomes continuous feedback and values customer collaboration. All feedback should be collected and considered, but the product backlog is reprioritized to align with capacity and business goals.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile promotes constant feedback to refine product direction. Feedback is incorporated into the backlog, prioritized based on value, and delivered incrementally according to capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery and Continuous Customer Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Stakeholder feedback is essential in agile. Not all feedback can be implemented immediately, but it should be welcomed, evaluated, and prioritized transparently in collaboration with the product owner and stakeholders.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A implies a heavy process not aligned with agile.

B prematurely limits feedback before collaborative prioritization.

D ignores the product owner’s prioritization role.

Answer: C

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Understand the current progress:

The project is halfway through development.

The team has reached a stable velocity after 8 iterations.

Each sprint duration is two weeks.

Determine the remaining number of iterations:

Since the project is halfway completed, an equal amount of work remains.

If 8 iterations have been completed, 8 more iterations are required to complete the project.

Calculate the remaining time:

Each iteration (sprint) lasts 2 weeks.

8 iterations × 2 weeks per iteration = 16 weeks.

16 weeks = 4 months.

Once the team has clarity on the user stories and agrees they are ready, the next step in agile planning is to estimate them. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Estimating) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), agile estimation techniques like story points or Planning Poker help the team gain a shared understanding of effort, complexity, and delivery time.

Option A is correct: estimating comes before development and guides prioritization and planning.

Option B prematurely dives into task-level detail before effort is understood.

Option C skips planning and development entirely.

Option D refers to retrospective, which comes after execution, not before.

Predictable flow in agile is achieved by reducing variability in story size and complexity. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7: Flow-based Agile and Kanban), working with small, similarly sized user stories increases throughput predictability and improves cycle time.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery) supports breaking large stories into smaller, testable chunks as a way to stabilize delivery and forecasting.

Option A is correct: small user stories reduce variability and support predictable flow.

Option B supports testability but doesn’t directly improve flow.

Option C and D are too broad or conceptual to specifically improve predictability.

The correct answer is B — Create a spike story to analyze the impact of the threshold requirement on current stories.

A “spike” is a research activity used in Agile to investigate a technical or functional uncertainty. In this case, the performance threshold requires exploration to understand its impact on multiple backlog items. Creating a time-boxed spike allows the team to analyze without prematurely committing to changes.

PMI Agile Practice Guide describes spikes as:

“A spike is a user story for time-boxed research or exploration. Teams use spikes when they need more information to estimate or deliver a story.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 — Types of Backlog Items)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“When a new requirement introduces uncertainty, such as performance constraints, creating a spike helps the team determine scope, risk, and impact before incorporating it into backlog stories.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A prematurely alters acceptance criteria before understanding the impact.

C leans toward big upfront design (non-agile).

D skips the exploration phase and directly breaks into tasks.

Answer: B

—

In agile environments, planning should be flexible and adaptable to changing circumstances. Just-in-time (JIT) refinement refers to the practice of refining the backlog and details of the product features as they become more relevant, rather than attempting to plan everything upfront. This allows the team to respond to changes and new information as they emerge, which aligns with agile principles of iterative development and adaptability.

The correct answer is C — Work with the customer to understand which user stories will deliver the best business value, re-prioritize the backlog, and share it with the customer to provide release plans.

Agile allows for adaptive planning and continuous prioritization but also provides transparency and planning via product roadmaps and release planning. Collaborating with the customer to align on value and priorities fosters trust and offers predictability through rolling wave planning.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile release planning provides a high-level roadmap of deliverables based on value. It enables stakeholder alignment while remaining flexible to changing priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Release Planning)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile doesn ' t reject roadmaps—it refines them iteratively. Teams work with stakeholders to determine business value and build release forecasts that evolve with each iteration.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A is rigid and misrepresents agile ' s balance between planning and adaptability.

B inappropriately shifts responsibility to the customer.

D is valid but lacks the engagement and re-prioritization aspect.

Answer: C

—

To effectively address blockers and minimize their occurrence, the team should first analyze the root causes of the blockers. By grouping them and identifying patterns, the team can understand the common causes of delays and take targeted actions to eliminate or mitigate these issues. This practice aligns with continuous improvement in Agile, where teams reflect on their processes, identify areas of inefficiency, and adapt their workflow to reduce future blockers and lead times. This approach allows the team to address the underlying issues and make process improvements that benefit future sprints.

The correct answer is A – Add code cleanup activities to the product backlog and request prioritization by the product owner. In Agile, technical debt should be made visible and managed like any other backlog item. The product owner is responsible for backlog prioritization and must balance feature delivery with quality-related tasks.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Technical debt should be made transparent and included in the product backlog. Teams should advocate for addressing it, and the product owner prioritizes its resolution based on the impact to future work.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Technical Debt)

Mike Griffiths’ guidance reinforces this:

“Technical debt erodes long-term productivity and must be tracked and addressed. Agile teams collaborate with product owners to prioritize and schedule code cleanup or refactoring activities.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B and C bypass the product owner’s prioritization role.

D delays action unnecessarily and misrepresents Agile’s emphasis on transparency and early resolution.

Answer: A

The correct answer is C – Schedule a story grooming session with the product owner before sprint planning. Story grooming (backlog refinement) ensures that stories are ready, appropriately detailed, and understood before planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Backlog refinement sessions are a key practice where the team, facilitated by the Scrum Master, ensures that backlog items are well-defined and sized appropriately for future planning. These sessions reduce ambiguity and promote shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Backlog refinement allows stories to be clarified, split, and estimated ahead of planning. Agile practitioners ensure backlog items meet the Definition of Ready (DoR) before sprint planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A delays collaboration and is too passive.

B lacks product owner involvement.

D is a sizing technique, not a requirement clarification method.

Answer: C

‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾

Even if a team is high-performing and stable, the Scrum Master’s role remains valuable in facilitating continuous improvement, removing impediments, and protecting agile principles. However, in mature teams, a Scrum Master can support other teams or initiatives while still offering guidance to the original team.

The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3: Agile Roles) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance) both emphasize that Scrum Masters evolve into more strategic, cross-team roles as teams mature.

Option A is correct: it reflects a strategic redeployment of a seasoned Scrum Master while maintaining light support to the current team.

Option B risks losing agile momentum and undermines continuous improvement.

Option C and D confuse roles—Scrum Master and Product Owner must remain distinct.

The correct answer is C – Invest in technology-collaboration tools to enable effective communication and ensure a common understanding of the scope, issues, and solutions.

Agile encourages high-bandwidth communication, preferably face-to-face. However, when working with distributed teams, modern collaboration tools serve as essential enablers of shared understanding and timely feedback, reducing the risk of miscommunication and rework.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“While agile prefers face-to-face communication, geographically dispersed teams must rely on tools to mimic these interactions as closely as possible. These include video conferencing, online whiteboards, and real-time collaboration platforms to create a shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Communication and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths supports this as well:

“Remote teams need strong communication enablers. Collaboration tools help mitigate the challenges of distributed work by enabling transparency, synchronous discussions, and shared visibility of the work.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are less appropriate:

A assumes majority rule over inclusive engagement.

B is often impractical and does not reflect Agile’s adaptability.

D is vague and lacks actionable commitment.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is B – Review possible options and make an informed decision to cut losses based on delivered business value. In agile, decisions are continuously evaluated based on value delivery, inspect-and-adapt principles, and business justification.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects emphasize delivering the highest value features early and frequently. When new information emerges—such as the high risk of failure of a critical feature—the product owner must evaluate the cost-benefit, assess remaining value, and make a business-based decision.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery)

“The agile mindset embraces failure as a learning opportunity but also encourages continuous evaluation of whether a project should continue. It is better to stop a project early based on value delivery assessments than to continue wasteful efforts.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Fail Fast to Learn Quickly)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book notes:

“Agile teams reassess business value frequently. If remaining features do not justify additional investment due to technical, market, or cost concerns, the product owner may decide to stop the project and preserve resources. This decision should always be informed by the value already delivered versus expected benefits.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A is a possible outcome, but prematurely terminating without analyzing value delivery is hasty.

C (bringing in experts) may increase costs and still not solve the fundamental issue of failing value.

D ignores the significance of the critical feature and assumes it can be deferred without impact—this may not be viable.

Answer: B

The correct answer is B – How much money the organization will earn or save by having the MMF.

Minimally Marketable Features (MMFs) are the smallest set of functionality that deliver value and can be released to generate revenue or realize benefits. Prioritization of MMFs is typically done based on expected business value—such as cost savings, revenue potential, or customer satisfaction.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“MMFs help teams focus on delivering value early and frequently. They are prioritized based on expected value to the customer or organization, return on investment (ROI), and business impact.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Delivering Value Frequently)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“MMFs should be prioritized based on business value—how much benefit they bring to the customer or organization. Value-based prioritization ensures the right features are built first.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A refers to risk but doesn’t address business value.

C addresses stakeholder involvement, not delivery prioritization.

D refers to development time, which is considered but secondary to value.

Answer: B

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Spikes are meant for experimentation and learning, not guaranteed outcomes. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes), if a spike does not lead to a clear solution, the team can extend or reframe it, especially when aiming for a sustainable long-term solution. Agile supports encouraging experimentation and learning from failure.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution) recommends adapting when a spike’s results are inconclusive—redefining the scope and collaborating as a team increases the chance of a valuable outcome.

Option B is correct: it continues learning and promotes team collaboration.

Option A undercuts team ownership.

Option C prioritizes a short-term fix and undermines agile values.

Option D is not needed at this early stage—root cause analysis is better for recurring or systemic issues.

One of the pillars of agile is early and continuous customer feedback to ensure that the product being delivered meets stakeholder expectations. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Reviews and Feedback Loops) and Mike Griffiths ' PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), frequent customer reviews (e.g., sprint reviews) ensure alignment and early identification of quality or value issues.

Option D is correct: regular customer engagement during reviews ensures delivery effectiveness and customer satisfaction.

Option A is inappropriate—daily stand-ups are for internal team coordination.

Option B reflects a waterfall approach.

Option C misplaces the responsibility—requirements evolve and are refined throughout, not fixed up front.

The correct answer is C – Amount of work that can be accomplished in an iteration. To create a release plan, an agile team uses its historical or estimated velocity—how much work the team can complete in a single iteration. This information helps forecast how many iterations will be needed to complete the prioritized work in the product backlog.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Velocity is used to determine how many iterations are required to complete the release backlog. Release planning requires an understanding of how much work can be completed per iteration to forecast delivery timelines.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Planning and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams use their average velocity—the amount of work completed per iteration—as the basis for release planning. This supports predictable and empirical planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A focuses too narrowly on a single story, not the full release.

B focuses on individual capacity, which is contrary to agile’s emphasis on team output.

D is vague; capacity is better measured by iteration.

Answer: C

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The best answer is D because the project lead should foster psychological safety. In agile teams, people need to feel safe to share opinions, challenge ideas, raise concerns, and provide feedback without fear of blame, embarrassment, or punishment. This is especially important in international or cross-cultural teams where communication styles may differ.

Option A may help with meeting structure, but emphasizing rules does not necessarily make people feel safe. Option B is passive and may allow silence to continue. Option C may help in some cases, but separate meetings do not solve the root issue in team discussions. Option D directly addresses the problem by improving the team environment.

PMI-ACP explicitly includes fostering psychological safety, encouraging dialogue, soliciting constructive feedback, and promoting a collaborative team environment.

=========

The correct answer is D – Stop updating the documentation and initiate an analysis to identify its value and act on the findings.

Agile promotes the creation of “just enough” documentation. If a document isn’t being used and adds no value, the team should reflect on whether to discontinue or improve it. Retrospectives are the appropriate venue to identify such inefficiencies and implement continuous improvement.

From the Agile Manifesto (referenced in PMI Agile Practice Guide):

“Working software over comprehensive documentation.”

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams minimize non-value-added work. If documentation is not being used or reviewed, teams should examine whether it is necessary, and if not, discontinue or replace it.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.1 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Documentation should serve a purpose. If stakeholders do not find value in it, the team should discontinue or refactor it to meet actual needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why the other options fall short:

A prolongs the wasteful practice unnecessarily.

B lacks the analysis needed before eliminating documentation.

C enforces process over value, which contradicts Agile principles.

Answer: D

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Knowledge sharing and organizational learning are core elements of scaling agile. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 8.4 Organizational Change Management) and the PMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 10.2 Manage Communications), the project manager should actively disseminate lessons learned, best practices, and project outcomes to promote agile adoption across the organization.

Mike Griffiths reinforces in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement) that continuous feedback loops and transparent communication are essential to agile transformation success.

Option D is correct because regular meetings specifically focused on sharing outcomes and learning from the pilot project help embed agile values and improve future implementations.

A user story that is too large to complete in one sprint is considered an epic. Agile teams should split it into smaller, valuable, testable stories. The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Decomposition) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning) recommend breaking down large stories and renegotiating sprint scope collaboratively with the product owner.

Option C is correct: this aligns with collaborative planning and story decomposition.

Option A is rigid and dismisses collaboration.

Option B promotes unsustainable practices.

Option D violates the principle of fixed-length iterations.

The Scrum retrospective is the appropriate place for the team to reflect on what went well and what didn’t, including the missed sprint goals. The Scrum master should facilitate an open and constructive discussion about the impediments faced during the sprint, such as the unavailability of the specialist, and help the team find ways to avoid or mitigate similar issues in future sprints. This helps the team continuously improve and ensures that they are better prepared for future challenges.

The correct answer is A – Reduced or improper customer collaboration.

One of the core principles of Agile is continuous collaboration with the customer. If multiple feature changes are only identified during a late-stage review, it typically indicates that the customer was not involved sufficiently throughout the development process.

From the Agile Manifesto (cited in the PMI Agile Practice Guide):

“Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.”

“Working software is delivered frequently… with a preference to the shorter timescale.”

And from the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Ongoing engagement with the customer helps align product features with actual needs and reduce surprises during late-stage reviews.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“When customers are involved in iteration reviews and backlog grooming, their evolving needs are captured in real time. Surprises during release reviews usually reflect a failure of ongoing communication.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options don’t directly address the root cause:

B may contribute, but customer collaboration is the key differentiator in agile.

C and D are traditional causes of waterfall-style failure, not typically root causes in agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – Share information via interactive methods such as a brainstorming session.

Agile promotes collaboration, continuous stakeholder engagement, and open communication. When a stakeholder lacks understanding, the practitioner should use interactive techniques like brainstorming, user story workshops, or product visioning sessions. These methods foster transparency, build trust, and allow stakeholders to co-create the product vision.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Effective stakeholder engagement relies on interactive communication methods such as workshops, demos, and feedback sessions to ensure alignment and transparency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Interactive, face-to-face collaboration provides the richest communication. Agile favors dialogue over documentation to enhance shared understanding.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options are less ideal:

A (status emails) are passive and limited in effectiveness.

B may violate Scrum guidelines—daily standups are not intended for stakeholders.

D delays engagement and limits collaboration to after-the-fact review.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A — To better listen, serve, and help the team grow their strengths individually and as a team.

An agile coach is a servant-leader whose role is to guide the team by modeling agile values, being present, actively listening, and helping teams grow. Coaching in agile is about enabling—not controlling—the team. A coach’s mindfulness, authenticity, and presence inspire the same behaviors in the team.

PMI Agile Practice Guide notes:

“The agile coach models the agile mindset, including being present, self-aware, and aligned with agile principles. This helps the team build trust, foster collaboration, and grow capabilities organically.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Effective coaches guide by example. By modeling agile values and demonstrating presence, emotional intelligence, and listening, coaches help teams unlock their full potential.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B suggests control rather than collaboration.

C is anti-agile and contrary to the servant-leader model.

D is valid but lacks the depth of A, which captures the coach’s mindset and actions.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is B — Chair a weekly team retrospective focusing on identifying areas for continuous improvement.

Retrospectives are a core Agile practice used to inspect and adapt the team’s process, foster self-improvement, and enhance performance. If productivity is flat, the best approach is to collaboratively reflect with the team to uncover bottlenecks, identify areas for experimentation, and implement process adjustments.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a key feedback loop that allow the team to assess their performance and decide how to improve it. The retrospective is a cornerstone for continuous improvement and high-performing teams.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Rather than externally imposed metrics, agile teams should drive performance improvements through retrospectives where they inspect their own work and collectively identify opportunities for efficiency.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is diagnostic but insufficient for process improvement without team involvement.

C introduces hierarchy and undermines team empowerment.

D introduces extrinsic motivation, which may damage team collaboration and intrinsic ownership.

Answer: B

—

The correct answer is D – Fishbone diagram. Also known as an Ishikawa or cause-and-effect diagram, this analysis tool helps teams identify root causes of delays or inefficiencies. In this scenario, the team needs to understand the causes of delayed release cycles to make process improvements.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Root cause analysis tools such as fishbone diagrams can help teams identify underlying causes of inefficiencies or failures, supporting continuous improvement.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Mike Griffiths also writes:

“A fishbone diagram helps the team brainstorm and categorize the potential causes of a problem, enabling a structured investigation into delays or bottlenecks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A is for identifying and managing risks, not diagnosing root causes.

B analyzes progress metrics but doesn’t provide root cause insights.

C is for understanding customer satisfaction, not operational delays.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – Continue working on the task until it is completed. Agile teams commit to the sprint goal and are expected to deliver what they’ve planned to the best of their ability. If a task takes longer than estimated, the team inspects and adapts but generally tries to complete the committed work within the current sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are committed to delivering the work they planned for the iteration. If estimates are off, the team inspects the impact and continues, learning from it for future planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Planning and Commitment)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“If something takes longer than expected, the team should strive to complete it and use the experience to improve future estimation. Agile teams maintain sprint commitment integrity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

B is punitive and unaligned with Agile values.

C contradicts Agile’s emphasis on stable teams and sustainable pace.

D breaks commitment and risks value delivery.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D — Facilitate a team retrospective.

A drop in team morale and performance signals the need for a structured conversation where the team can reflect, diagnose root causes, and propose changes. Retrospectives are the Agile mechanism for identifying and addressing performance issues in a collaborative, non-blaming environment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives allow teams to reflect on their performance, discuss what ' s working or not, and commit to improvement actions. This is the key mechanism for continuous team development.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Team disengagement often stems from unresolved issues or lack of empowerment. Retrospectives are critical for rebuilding engagement, trust, and improving team dynamics.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A skips team-level resolution and risks undermining trust.

B manipulates metrics without solving the root problem.

C is useful for daily progress updates but not for deep reflection.

Answer: D

—

—

Kaizen is a Japanese term that means " continuous improvement, " which is a fundamental principle in Agile. It focuses on making incremental, continuous improvements to enhance processes and quality. Standup meetings and retrospective meetings are common Agile practices that support Kaizen. Standup meetings provide a daily check-in to ensure the team is aligned, while retrospectives allow the team to reflect on the sprint, identify areas for improvement, and make adjustments. Continuous improvement is at the core of Kaizen, and these practices enable the team to refine their processes over time, leading to better product quality and customer satisfaction.

The correct answer is D – Encourage self-organization by communicating the importance of a collaborative approach in decision making about the requirements.

Agile teams thrive on collaboration and shared ownership. When conflicts arise between stakeholders and team members, the project manager (or Scrum Master) acts as a facilitator to encourage respectful discussion and team-driven decisions. Agile emphasizes self-organization, transparency, and frequent collaboration between customers and teams.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages ongoing stakeholder engagement and collaborative decision making. The Agile leader helps teams self-organize and resolve issues through direct communication and mutual respect.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Agile promotes co-creation. The project manager’s role is to facilitate dialogue, not dictate requirements. The best outcomes come from collective decisions aligned with value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Other options explained:

A contradicts Agile principles of team and stakeholder collaboration.

B gives unilateral authority to the customer, which can disrupt team ownership.

C excludes the team from the conversation, weakening transparency.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is D – Features should be prioritized and then teams should be organized around those priorities. In agile scaling and reorganization, forming feature teams allows for the creation of cross-functional, end-to-end value delivery units. This reduces dependencies and promotes customer-focused outcomes.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams are best organized around delivering customer value. When scaling or merging efforts, restructuring around features or customer priorities improves flow, minimizes handoffs, and supports agility at scale.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Agile Scaling Considerations)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile scaling favors organizing teams around features and capabilities rather than components. Feature teams are cross-functional and able to deliver end-to-end slices of functionality with minimal dependencies.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Scaling Agile and Team Formation)

Incorrect options:

A can lead to chaos without structure.

B reinforces siloed, component-based teams which increase integration risk.

C recreates functional silos rather than cross-functional teams.

Answer: D

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A key agile principle is that user stories should include clear acceptance criteria, which must be reviewed and accepted by the product owner. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Acceptance Criteria) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), acceptance criteria ensure that the team and product owner share a clear understanding of what constitutes “done.”

Option A is correct: having the product owner validate acceptance criteria ensures alignment.

Option B addresses technical quality but not stakeholder dissatisfaction.

Option C unfairly shifts blame without addressing communication.

Option D goes against agile’s iterative and flexible nature.

The correct answer is A – Ask the team for suggestions.

In Agile, the Scrum Master serves the team by facilitating problem-solving rather than dictating actions. When a team member falls behind, the first step is to bring the issue to the team (e.g., in a daily stand-up or task review session) and allow the team to self-organize around resolving the impediment—whether through swarming, pairing, or shifting workload.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams are empowered to self-organize and solve problems collaboratively. The Scrum Master supports this by facilitating discussion and removing impediments—not by reassigning work unilaterally.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset and Section 6.2 – Coaching Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths also explains:

“The Scrum Master fosters a problem-solving culture. When issues arise, teams should explore solutions together—this builds ownership and improves trust.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are less suitable:

B circumvents team collaboration and may lead to resentment or overburdening.

C may be needed later, but collaborative resolution should be the first step.

D escalates prematurely and is not aligned with servant-leadership principles.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D — Periodically, at both the release and project level.

Agile planning is iterative and layered. When new requirements or constraints emerge, plans should be updated at the appropriate levels—sprint, release, and potentially the overall project level. Periodic adjustments ensure continued alignment with business needs and system dependencies.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile planning is done at multiple levels: product vision, roadmap, release, iteration, and daily. These plans are continually updated based on new learning and stakeholder feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths:

“Effective planning includes periodic updates at all planning horizons. Adjusting at both the project and release levels ensures strategic alignment and tactical feasibility.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A misses the iterative nature of Agile planning.

B and C are too narrow in scope.

Answer: D

—

In agile, information radiators—such as visual boards placed in common areas—are used to make project data accessible, transparent, and real-time. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communication), visibility improves coordination across interdependent teams.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement) recommends that agile teams use visible, shared artifacts such as task boards, burn charts, or Kanban walls to improve cross-team communication and reduce friction.

Option B is correct: a physical or virtual board offers transparency and encourages informal communication.

Option A is useful but not as effective for rapid visibility.

Option C is one-way and doesn’t support real-time updates.

Option D is reactive and could cause delays or misalignment.

The correct answer is C – Determine who is best qualified to address the challenges. Agile teams are self-organizing and empowered to make technical decisions. When challenges arise, the team collaboratively identifies who is best suited to resolve issues, rather than relying on external direction or top-down task assignment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are self-organizing. When challenges or new work arises, the team decides how to proceed, including task allocation based on skills and availability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths also notes:

“Team members decide how work is divided and who tackles what. When technical complexity is involved, those with relevant expertise are encouraged to step in, with support from the rest of the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A violates the principle of team autonomy.

B delays delivery rather than solving the problem.

D incorrectly places the Product Owner in a team management role.

Answer: C

The correct answer is A — Coordinate a collaboration session so all the team members are involved in the solution process.

Agile encourages cross-functional collaboration and collective problem-solving. When technical uncertainty arises, the best course of action is to leverage the team’s combined knowledge through collaboration rather than working in isolation.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams rely on collaboration, especially when solving complex problems. A diversity of input and joint ownership leads to better and faster decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile practitioners should encourage collaborative decision-making. Technical decisions made in isolation can result in integration issues and delay. Collaboration unlocks shared ownership.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

B shifts focus away from current challenges.

C is long-term and not immediately actionable.

D may help, but it introduces external dependency instead of leveraging team knowledge.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is D – The Product Owner is responsible for both the budget and the release plans.

In Scrum and Agile frameworks, the Product Owner acts as the voice of the customer and is responsible for maximizing the value of the product. This includes managing the product backlog, prioritization, and release planning. Additionally, in Agile environments, budget management—especially in terms of what value is delivered with what investment—is a key aspect of the Product Owner’s role.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner manages the backlog and prioritizes work based on value delivery. The Product Owner is also typically responsible for budgeting and release planning, often in collaboration with stakeholders.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Roles and Responsibilities)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Release planning and value-based budget decisions fall under the Product Owner’s responsibilities, as they are closest to business stakeholders and value prioritization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are incorrect:

A is partially correct but misplaces budget responsibility.

B is traditional and does not reflect Agile delegation to the team and Product Owner.

C promotes team ownership but budget and release planning specifically lie with the Product Owner.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C — All stakeholders are responsible for identifying risks during standups, retrospectives, and other team meetings.

Agile promotes collective ownership. Risk identification and mitigation are shared responsibilities involving the entire team, including the product owner, developers, and other stakeholders. Agile meetings (e.g., stand-ups, retrospectives) are excellent forums for surfacing risks early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“In agile projects, everyone is responsible for identifying and managing risk. Teams inspect frequently, enabling early detection and resolution of issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Risk management is embedded in agile events. Teams don’t defer risk analysis to a specialist—they collaborate continuously to identify, discuss, and respond to risks.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A ignores active risk management needs.

B assumes individual rather than shared responsibility.

D misrepresents the PO’s role—risks may appear in the backlog, but management is team-based.

Answer: C

—

A value stream map is an effective tool for identifying and visualizing the flow of work and the associated delays or handoffs in a process. By mapping out the entire value stream, the team can identify inefficiencies, waste, and bottlenecks, which helps them target areas for improvement. This allows the team to optimize the workflow by reducing unnecessary handovers and delays, which is in line with their goal of improving efficiency.

The correct answer is B — Establish a live video feed between the dispersed teams to enable spontaneous engagement and collaboration on issues.

Agile encourages face-to-face communication as the most effective form of knowledge sharing. For distributed teams, this means using video conferencing, virtual whiteboards, and real-time collaboration tools to replicate co-located team dynamics. This improves clarity, reduces misinterpretation, and accelerates problem-solving.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“For distributed teams, using video conferencing, shared tools, and real-time collaboration platforms helps bridge communication gaps and maintains team cohesion. Face-to-face communication, even via video, remains the most effective method.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 — Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths also notes:

“Distributed teams must invest in communication technologies to reduce barriers. Real-time, visual communication enables faster resolution of issues and a shared understanding of tasks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 — Team Performance)

Incorrect Options:

A involves centralized control and status reporting — not Agile.

C demands co-location, which may not be feasible.

D accepts poor performance instead of addressing root causes.

Answer: B

—

Agile teams embrace change and collaborate with customers to deliver value. The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1: Agile Mindset) supports responding to change—even late in the development cycle—if it results in business value. The team should accept the new goal, replan with the product owner, and adjust scope or priority if needed, rather than resist or escalate.

Option A is correct: it reflects the agile value of responding to change and delivering early value.

Option B is too rigid and contrary to agile principles.

Option C implies a punitive model that does not align with collaborative agile contracts.

Option D introduces unnecessary cost and overhead without first trying to replan collaboratively.

To calculate cycle time, we use Little’s Law, which states:

Where:

WIP (Work in Progress) = 50 tickets

Throughput = 200 tickets per 8-hour shift

Now, applying the formula:

The correct answer is B – Facilitate an open and focused team discussion that reinforces team agreements. Agile teams are built on collaboration, mutual respect, and self-organization. When conflict arises about role expectations or task assignments, the Scrum Master should create a safe space for open discussion to reinforce working agreements and promote shared accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders support team collaboration by encouraging open conversations. When team dynamics are strained, the Scrum Master facilitates discussions to reinforce team norms, self-organization, and equality of contribution.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths further states:

“Agile teams succeed when responsibilities are shared and roles are not rigidly defined. The Scrum Master should facilitate a discussion that encourages shared ownership and mutual respect for all tasks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A imposes action without addressing the root issue or respecting roles.

C brings external authority into a team matter, weakening self-organization.

D is partially correct but doesn’t resolve the immediate team conflict.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is A — Lead the team and help them to constantly improve the processes in the project.

The Scrum Master is responsible for ensuring that retrospective action items are tracked and followed up on. While the team owns the improvement actions, the Scrum Master provides support, accountability, and facilitation to ensure that continuous improvement happens.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Scrum Master facilitates continuous improvement by helping the team reflect, identify actions, and ensure those actions are implemented.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Retrospectives are only effective if outcomes are tracked. The Scrum Master ensures improvement ideas are not forgotten and become part of the team’s evolution.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B uses a confrontational tone—contrary to servant leadership.

C implies micro-management and contradicts self-organization.

D avoids responsibility for facilitating improvements.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is C – The team should discuss their definition of done (DoD) and make changes to ensure there is common understanding of the acceptance criteria.

A shared understanding of what “done” means ensures consistent quality across team members. When this understanding is missing, defects and inconsistencies arise. The Definition of Done (DoD) should be reviewed and updated collaboratively to set a clear standard for completeness and quality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Definition of Done provides a shared understanding of when work is complete. This includes quality criteria, testing, and documentation. It should be revisited regularly to maintain alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Quality issues often result from unclear or inconsistent DoD. Revisiting and refining it ensures consistent expectations across the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A (TDD) may help, but won’t solve the fundamental alignment issue.

B accepts a problem without resolving it.

D imposes a process without team collaboration, which is not agile.

Answer: C

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Agile emphasizes transparency and team self-organization. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Self-Organizing Teams) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), a common practice is to make work and issues visible to everyone and allow the team to collaboratively manage their workflow. Using a shared workspace or board helps prevent redundant efforts and improves efficiency.

Option D is correct: shared visibility and self-allocation promote team ownership.

Option A misuses the backlog—issues aren ' t typically prioritized by customers.

Option B is directive and may reduce collaboration.

Option C focuses on analysis, not immediate resolution or coordination.

The correct answer is D – Confirm managers and stakeholders are invited to product review meetings. Agile promotes early and continuous feedback from stakeholders through regular reviews (e.g., sprint reviews or demos). Their active engagement ensures alignment with evolving business needs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Demonstrating working product increments at iteration reviews allows stakeholders to inspect progress, provide feedback, and align expectations. Agile teams rely on these sessions to validate whether the product meets business requirements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and 5.2 – Reviews)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Frequent stakeholder reviews reduce risk by capturing early feedback. Stakeholder participation in iteration reviews ensures alignment and continuous validation of business goals.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A includes only the team; stakeholders are critical to product validation.

B is insufficient—product owner alignment alone doesn’t ensure business alignment.

C refers to documentation, not collaboration.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – The team will be unable to understand the iteration ' s status. Agile relies on transparency and timely updates to progress tracking tools such as task boards, burndown charts, and digital boards. Incomplete or delayed updates obscure the team ' s true progress, making it difficult to inspect and adapt.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Visibility of progress is key to agile. Without timely updates to task boards or status indicators, teams lose the ability to inspect and adapt effectively during iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“If user stories or tasks are not updated, burndown charts and velocity metrics become inaccurate. This compromises team transparency and decision-making.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B is not directly impacted by status updates.

C might result as a side effect, but A is more fundamental.

D misrepresents the problem—it is about progress tracking, not collaboration metrics.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Conduct story-mapping exercises to clarify deliverables and release priorities. Story mapping is a visual practice that aligns stakeholders and teams around a shared understanding of the product vision, user workflows, and incremental delivery plans.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Story mapping is a collaborative activity used to understand the user’s journey, prioritize features, and identify releases. It is highly effective for stakeholder alignment and promoting shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Story Mapping)

Also supported by Mike Griffiths:

“Story mapping promotes visibility, alignment, and prioritization. It fosters collaboration between the team and stakeholders and helps translate business objectives into user stories.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options fall short:

A reverts to heavy documentation, which agile discourages.

C is a one-time event and doesn’t sustain alignment.

D focuses on adherence to process rather than collaboration and planning clarity.

To estimate the project ' s conclusion using velocity, we use the formula:

Given:

Velocity = 40 story points per sprint

Remaining Work = 240 story points

Sprint Duration = 2 weeks

Since each sprint is 2 weeks, the total duration will be:

6 × 2 weeks = 12 weeks = 3 months

The correct answer is B — Balance risk reduction and value-adding activities in the next iteration.

Agile recommends actively managing risks as part of iteration planning. While delivering customer value remains a top priority, severe risks should be mitigated as early as possible. The team should consider allocating capacity in the next sprint to reduce risk while still maintaining delivery focus.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams incorporate risk mitigation work into iteration planning. Teams should prioritize high-impact risks early and balance risk management with delivering customer value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Agile Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Agile does not separate risk management into a different process—it is embedded within backlog prioritization. Addressing risk early can prevent downstream impacts, and teams must weigh risk vs. value regularly.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A disrupts current iteration goals and contradicts agile time-boxing.

C ignores the severity of the risk.

D escalates unnecessarily—agile promotes team-level decision-making first.

Answer: B

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Sprint reviews are a crucial Scrum event for obtaining early feedback from stakeholders, which allows the team to inspect the progress and adapt the product accordingly. By skipping sprint reviews in favor of only release reviews, the team loses the opportunity to make adjustments and improvements throughout the project. The scrum master should emphasize the importance of regular feedback and ensure the team stays aligned with Scrum principles for continuous improvement and value delivery.

The project manager should engage in a constructive conversation with the team member to understand the reasons behind the performance dip. Instead of focusing on blame, it’s important to discuss the specifics of the project deliverables and identify any challenges or factors that may be affecting the team member ' s performance. Providing constructive feedback helps the team member understand the areas of improvement while maintaining a supportive environment. This approach encourages open communication, identifies potential solutions, and can lead to a positive outcome for both the team member and the project.

When the client needs to release the product earlier than planned to start receiving revenue, the best way to accommodate this request is by focusing on delivering a minimum viable product (MVP). The MVP allows the team to prioritize the most essential features that provide value to the customer, ensuring that the product can be launched quickly, while still addressing the core needs of the business.

By focusing on the MVP, the product can still be launched on time, and the client can start receiving revenue sooner without waiting for the full product to be completed. This aligns with agile principles of delivering valuable, incremental releases.

The correct answer is B – Prioritizing stories.

The MoSCoW method is a prioritization technique used in Agile to categorize requirements and backlog items based on their business value. It helps stakeholders and teams agree on what is essential to deliver versus what is desirable or optional.

MoSCoW stands for:

M – Must have

S – Should have

C – Could have

W – Won’t have (this time)

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The MoSCoW prioritization method helps stakeholders classify backlog items based on their criticality and desired delivery timing. This enables better alignment with business objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“MoSCoW is a simple but effective method for clarifying which features are essential and which can be deferred. It enhances transparency during prioritization discussions.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A – Estimating story size involves techniques like planning poker or T-shirt sizing.

C – Product validation is done via demos, acceptance criteria, and stakeholder feedback.

D – Progress tracking uses tools like burndown charts or cumulative flow diagrams.

Answer: B

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In Agile, estimates are initially based on previous experiences or expert opinions, but as the team progresses through sprints, they gain more insight into the project’s actual complexity and the team ' s capacity. Agile estimates evolve over time based on the team ' s velocity, which reflects how much work the team can realistically handle. This is why the actual scope and timelines can differ from initial estimates. The agile lead should emphasize that the initial estimates were helpful for understanding feasibility, but the true estimates are refined continuously as the team gains more experience and understanding of the work, and as complexities or dependencies become clearer during each sprint.

The correct answer is D – Reestimate all stories including values for A, B, and C. Agile promotes empirical process control, meaning teams adapt based on what they learn. When significant deviations are found in actual effort vs. story point estimates, the team should revisit and refine their estimation process, including reestimating stories to better align with reality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimates are revisited based on experience. Teams inspect and adapt during retrospectives, using data to improve future estimation accuracy.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When estimates prove inaccurate, teams should reestimate affected stories. Estimating is a collaborative process, and learning from past deviations is a key part of adaptive planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may distort estimation by comparison and not correct the root issue.

B manipulates velocity data and violates agile principles of transparency.

C attempts to “force fit” effort rather than inspect and adapt.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is B — The stakeholder who can prevent the project from achieving its goals.

Stakeholder prioritization is based on power and influence. Those who can significantly impact or block project success (positively or negatively) should be prioritized. This ensures their concerns are addressed and their support is cultivated early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholder engagement is critical in agile. The team must identify those who have the most influence over project outcomes and ensure early and frequent communication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Stakeholder Engagement)

PMBOK® Guide:

“Stakeholder prioritization involves assessing who has the greatest influence on project success.”

—

The correct answer is C – Explain that the Kanban board enables the team to complete the work and increases transparency on work that is not done.

Agile values transparency, visibility, and collaboration. Kanban boards are a form of information radiator—tools that openly display the team’s workflow, work-in-progress (WIP), and progress toward goals. Their visibility helps stakeholders and the team remain aligned and encourages accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use information radiators such as Kanban boards to provide transparency and make status, bottlenecks, and priorities visible to all. This fosters trust, communication, and quick decision-making.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Visibility into progress and issues enhances communication and alignment across stakeholders. Information radiators like task boards or Kanban boards are vital tools for agile success.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Tools and Techniques)

Other options are inappropriate:

A and D compromise transparency and contradict agile values.

B misstates the purpose of the Kanban board—it’s not about assigning work post-completion.

Answer: C

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The VP plays a key role in shaping the organizational culture and setting expectations for how projects are managed. By coaching the VP on the benefits and expectations of adopting Agile, the agile team member can help the VP understand how Agile can lead to more flexibility, collaboration, and faster delivery of value. This coaching will ensure that the VP is aligned with the Agile transformation, which in turn will influence the broader teams and managers to adopt the necessary mindset and practices for Agile to be effective across the organization.

The storming phase (from Tuckman’s model: Forming–Storming–Norming–Performing) is marked by conflict and role negotiation. The agile coach or Scrum Master plays a critical role in guiding teams through this phase with structured facilitation and conflict-resolution techniques.

According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Team Development Stages) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), the agile coach must provide support, guidance, and tools to help the team evolve toward self-organization and maturity.

Option B is correct: effective facilitation helps the team progress toward high performance.

Option A promotes dysfunction.

Option C risks escalating unresolved conflict.

Option D is overly individual-focused and not team-centric.

The correct answer is A — Teach the team the appropriate agile principle, obtain consensus, and drive adoption.

Agile values “working software over comprehensive documentation.” However, this does not mean eliminating all documentation, but rather focusing on documentation that delivers value.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams should regularly question whether the work being done adds value, including documentation. If documentation does not serve a current need or stakeholder, it should be minimized or eliminated.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 — Agile Manifesto)

Mike Griffiths further supports this in his exam prep book:

“Agile team members are encouraged to surface inefficiencies and suggest improvements. This is an example of continuous improvement and shared responsibility.”

Option A aligns with both the Agile Manifesto and the principle of team empowerment. Options B, C, and D either avoid accountability or introduce hierarchy that agile teams seek to minimize.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A — Establish and keep an active risk register that includes mitigation strategies and a cost-benefit analysis.

Risk management is essential to identifying and mitigating threats such as natural disasters. While Agile teams do not typically use traditional risk registers extensively, at the enterprise level (especially in regulated or high-risk environments), maintaining a risk register aligned with Agile values is appropriate. It should include mitigation options and their associated cost-benefit to guide decision-making.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile risk management practices include establishing lightweight mechanisms such as risk-adjusted backlog prioritization, risk registers (in high-risk or large programs), and risk mitigation strategies.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Managing Risk in Agile Projects)

PMBOK® Guide (6th Edition) supports this:

“The risk register is a critical project artifact that includes identified risks, their analysis, mitigation or response plans, and cost-benefit considerations for managing risks.”

Incorrect options:

B lacks the inclusion of mitigation strategies and full cost analysis.

C refers to surface-level risk visibility, not comprehensive risk planning.

D assumes avoidance is the only mitigation strategy, which is not always feasible or optimal.

Answer: A

—

As a servant leader, one of the key responsibilities is to protect the team from external distractions and interruptions that could affect their ability to focus and deliver value. This allows the team to work in a productive environment and maintain their focus on the important tasks, such as delivering the minimum viable product (MVP). By removing impediments and guarding against distractions, the servant leader enables the team to be more effective and efficient.

The purpose of the daily standup (or daily coordination meeting) is to help the development team stay aligned with the sprint goal and actively manage any risks or impediments that may be blocking progress. It allows the team to quickly discuss their progress, share potential issues, and identify dependencies that could affect the sprint ' s success. The focus is on team collaboration and ensuring that everyone is on track.

The correct answer is C – Passive-aggressive. When a team delivers work but avoids open discussion or interaction, especially in meetings, it may indicate passive-aggressive behavior. This behavior might reflect unresolved tension, lack of engagement, or unwillingness to collaborate transparently.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams thrive on open communication and collaboration. Passive-aggressive behavior, where communication is avoided despite task completion, can hinder trust and team health.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths warns:

“Silence or avoidance in agile teams may signal underlying issues. While work might be completed, lack of transparency and communication should be addressed early to maintain team cohesion.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A refers to real-time communication and is unrelated to emotional dynamics.

B is contradicted by the lack of vocal interaction.

D implies disorder or lack of structure, which is not evident here.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A – Jointly meet with the team and product owner to discuss options and determine the end date. Agile promotes collaborative decision-making. When significant changes in performance arise, discussions should occur between the team and product owner to assess impact, explore value delivery, and make informed decisions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams regularly review performance trends. Changes in velocity should prompt discussions between the team and product owner to evaluate implications and opportunities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Release Planning)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Forecasting must remain collaborative. Teams and product owners work together to determine whether to ship early, expand scope, or adjust timelines.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

B skips stakeholder collaboration.

C assumes backlog expansion without value validation.

D contradicts agile principles of delivering value early.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D – Implement a spike to enhance creativity by experimenting with new techniques and process ideas in order to discover more efficient and effective ways of working.

A spike is a time-boxed research or prototyping activity used to explore uncertainty, investigate a technology, or gain deeper knowledge of an implementation. Spikes are especially useful when a team lacks familiarity with certain technologies, as they reduce risk and support better estimation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are a type of exploration that agile teams use when they are uncertain about a technology or technique. They are time-boxed research efforts aimed at reducing risk and improving future delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Spikes allow the team to gain knowledge needed to understand a technical or design problem. They are particularly useful when the team lacks domain or technical experience and are often used to improve estimation accuracy.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options fall short:

A and B manipulate iteration length without addressing the core problem (lack of technical knowledge).

C increases overhead without solving the learning gap or preventing the root cause (rework).

Answer: D

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answers and comprehensive explanations drawn from authoritative sources including the PMI Agile Practice Guide, PMBOK® Guide, Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, and Andy Crowe’s PMI-ACP Exam materials.

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The correct answer is C – Invite the new release manager to the sprint demo and ask for help. Agile encourages stakeholder collaboration and visibility. Sprint reviews (also known as demos) are key opportunities for stakeholders, including release managers, to engage directly with the team and provide feedback. Since the issue is related to environmental instability and the new release manager is a key stakeholder, involving them in the sprint review enables mutual understanding and sets the stage for collaboration.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use the sprint review to present completed work to stakeholders and receive direct feedback. It is also an opportunity to engage stakeholders who can influence the delivery environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile encourages frequent stakeholder collaboration. Sprint reviews should include key stakeholders who are responsible for operational and release matters to ensure alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Options A and D are passive approaches and may not lead to effective communication. Option B (attending daily standups) may be helpful but is not the best opportunity for strategic involvement compared to a sprint demo.

Answer: C

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A quick mock-up (or prototype) is a highly effective way to visually represent the product ' s features and functionality to stakeholders. This allows stakeholders to get a tangible sense of what the product will look like and how it will work. By iterating on this mock-up and adjusting it based on feedback, the team can build consensus and gain stakeholder approval more effectively. This approach encourages active collaboration and ensures that the product aligns with stakeholder expectations early in the development process.

The correct answer is C – Low-risk and low-value. Agile teams prioritize features that deliver the highest value earliest while also addressing risk. Features with low business value and low risk can be deferred as they contribute the least to business objectives and present no urgency.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams maximize value by focusing on delivering high-value and high-risk features early. Low-value, low-risk items are often deferred or dropped entirely if they don’t contribute meaningfully to customer outcomes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Features should be prioritized by value and risk. Items with low value and low risk are the lowest priority. Delivering high-value features quickly enables feedback and learning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A should be prioritized early to mitigate risk and deliver value.

B are non-critical and risky—often avoided or discarded.

D delivers value, and therefore should be prioritized above low-value items.

Answer: C

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