PTCE Pharmacy Technician Certification (CPhT) Exam Questions and Answers

Under the federal Controlled Substances Act, schedules are codified in Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), Part 1308. Schedule II substances are those with a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence, and which have accepted medical uses in the United States. Methadone is explicitly listed as a Schedule II opioid analgesic. By contrast, metoprolol (a beta-blocker), metformin (a biguanide antidiabetic), and methotrexate (an antimetabolite) are not controlled substances under federal scheduling.

According to theCDC Hand Hygiene Guidelines,alcohol-based hand sanitizershould be used:

Before and after direct patient contact(if hands are not visibly dirty).

Before and after wearing gloves(if no contamination is visible).

Before handling medication or sterile supplies.

A. Are about to touch a contaminated surface❌→Incorrect

Hand sanitizer should not be used before touching a contaminated surface.Instead, gloves should be worn, and hand hygiene should be performedaftertouching a contaminated surface.

B. Have just performed an aseptic task❌→Incorrect

Before aseptic tasks (e.g., preparing IV medications), soap and water or hand sanitizer is used.Afterward, contamination risk determines if sanitization is needed.

C. Are about to remove their gloves❌→Incorrect

Gloves do not completely prevent contamination; hand hygiene should be performedafterremoving gloves, not before.

CDC Guidelines for Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings– Recommends hand sanitizer use after patient contact.

USP <797> Sterile Compounding Guidelines– Reinforces aseptic hand hygiene practices.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers infection control and proper use of hand hygiene techniques.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

ANarrow Therapeutic Index (NTI) drugis a medication in whichsmall differences in dose or blood concentrationcan lead to serioustoxicityorsubtherapeutic effects. These drugs requirecareful dosing and monitoringto avoid adverse effects or treatment failure.

Small Margin of Safety:The difference between theminimum effective concentration (MEC)and theminimum toxic concentration (MTC)is very narrow.

Requires Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM):Blood levels of the drug must be regularly monitored to maintain efficacy while avoiding toxicity.

High Risk of Adverse Effects:Even minor dosage adjustments or variations in patient metabolism can cause toxicity.

Strict Pharmacokinetic and Pharmacodynamic Considerations:Factors likerenal and hepatic function, drug interactions, and patient weightsignificantly impact the drug’s effect.

Warfarin (Coumadin) → Risk of bleeding.

Digoxin → Risk of toxicity affecting the heart.

Phenytoin → Risk of severe neurological effects.

Levothyroxine → Risk of under- or over-treatment of thyroid disorders.

Theophylline → Risk of respiratory or cardiac toxicity.

Carbamazepine → Risk of serious neurological side effects.

A. Shorter window of guaranteed stability.→ Incorrect. NTI drugs do not necessarily have a shorter shelf-life or stability concerns compared to other drugs. Stability depends on formulation and storage conditions.

B. Incompatibility with therapeutic monitoring.→ Incorrect. NTI drugsrequiretherapeutic monitoring, not the opposite.

C. Synergistic effect on other medications.→ Incorrect. While NTI drugs can interact with other drugs, not all exhibit a synergistic effect (where combined drugs produce a greater effect than expected).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety and Quality Assurance(Monitoring NTI drugs).

FDA Narrow Therapeutic Index Drug List(Guidelines on NTI medications).

Lexicomp and Micromedex Drug Databases(Provide monitoring recommendations for NTI drugs).

USP <800> Hazardous Drugs and USP <797> Sterile Compounding Guidelines(Ensure safe handling and dispensing of NTI drugs).

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice(NTI drug classification and monitoring).

Key Characteristics of NTI Drugs:Examples of NTI Drugs:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Nurtec ODT (Rimegepant)is anorally disintegrating tablet (ODT)used for theacute treatment of migraines. Since it is designed to dissolve quickly in the mouth,it is highly sensitive to moisture. Exposure to moisture can cause the tablets to degrade, dissolve prematurely, or lose potency.

Storage Requirement:

Must be kept in the original blister packaging until usetoprevent moisture exposure.

Should not be stored in pill organizers or opened ahead of time.

B. Light→ Incorrect; Nurtec ODT isnot highly photosensitive.

C. Heat→ Incorrect; while heat can degrade many medications,moisture is the primary concernfor ODT formulations.

D. Cold→ Incorrect; refrigeration isnot required, and cold storage does not affect the drug’s stability.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Label for Nurtec ODT (Rimegepant) – Storage and Handling Instructions

USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding & Drug Stability Guidelines

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Storage & Handling)

Pharmacy staff should always visually inspect nonsterile compounds for signs of incompatibility to ensure medication safety and efficacy. The presence ofprecipitationis a key indicator of an incompatibility issue in nonsterile compounded preparations. Precipitation occurs when a solute (drug) comes out of solution, forming visible solid particles. This can result from changes in pH, solvent composition, or chemical interactions between ingredients.

A. Photolysis:

Decomposition of a drug due to light exposure, leading to color changes or potency loss, but it is not a physical incompatibility visible as precipitation.

B. Hydrolysis:

Chemical breakdown of a drug due to water, common in ester and amide-containing drugs, but not a visual incompatibility like precipitation.

D. Oxidation-Reduction:

A chemical reaction that may change drug color or effectiveness but does not typically lead to visible precipitation in nonsterile compounds.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Nonsterile Preparations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Quality Assurance)

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

Amlodipine (Norvasc)is acalcium channel blocker (CCB)used to treathypertension and angina. A common side effect of amlodipine isdizziness, which occurs due to itsvasodilatory effects, leading tolowered blood pressureandpotential orthostatic hypotension.

B. Photosensitivity→ Incorrect;photosensitivityis more commonly associated with drugs such astetracyclines, sulfonamides, and fluoroquinolones, not amlodipine.

C. Agitation→ Incorrect; amlodipine does not typically causeCNS agitation.

D. Insomnia→ Incorrect;amlodipine does not significantly affect sleep patterns.

Peripheraledema

Flushing

Fatigue

Other Answer Choices Explained:Additional Side Effects of Amlodipine:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology for Technicians – Cardiovascular System Drugs)

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Amlodipine

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

To determine how muchdrug (active ingredient)is in2 oz (ounces) of cream, we use the given ratio and perform unit conversions.

120 gof cream contains3 gof drug.

2 ozof cream =2 × 28.35 g(since1 oz = 28.35 g)

2 oz = 56.7 g

Step 1: Identify Given DataStep 2: Set Up a Proportion3 g drug120 g cream=x g drug56.7 g cream\frac{3 \text{ g drug}}{120 \text{ g cream}} = \frac{x \text{ g drug}}{56.7 \text{ g cream}}120 g cream3 g drug​=56.7 g creamx g drug​

Step 3: Solve forxxxx=3×56.7120=170.1120=1.42≈1.5 gx = \frac{3 \times 56.7}{120} = \frac{170.1}{120} = 1.42 \approx 1.5 \text{ g}x=1203×56.7​=120170.1​=1.42≈1.5 g

Thus,1.5 g of drugis present in2 oz of cream.

B. 6 g→ Incorrect; this would assume a higher drug concentration.

C. 15 g→ Incorrect; this is a miscalculation of the ratio.

D. 60 g→ Incorrect; far exceeds the total weight of the cream.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Calculations – Ratios and Proportions)

United States Pharmacopeia (USP) General Chapters on Compounding

The Pharmacy Technician’s Pocket Drug Reference

TheNational Drug Code (NDC)is a unique 10- or 11-digit number assigned to each drug product in the U.S.Understanding how NDC numbers are structuredis key to answering this question correctly.

The NDC format is as follows:XXXXX-YYYY-ZZ

First segment (XXXXX)→Labeler (Manufacturer or Distributor)

Second segment (YYYY)→Product Code (Specific Drug, Strength, and Formulation)

Third segment (ZZ)→Package Size (Quantity in the Package)

How to Find the Correct Answer?The given NDC:76439-103-10

76439= Manufacturer/Labeler Code

103= Product Code (Specific Drug & Strength)

10= Package Size

To matchthe same medication, theManufacturer (76439) and Product Code (103) must remain the same. Only thepackage size (last segment) can change.

A. 76439-208-10❌→Incorrect

Product Code (208) does not match (103).

B. 76439-103-50✅→Correct

Same manufacturer (76439) and same drug (103), but different package size (50 instead of 10).

C. 74693-103-10❌→Incorrect

Different manufacturer (74693 instead of 76439).

D. 74693-206-50❌→Incorrect

Different manufacturer (74693) and different product code (206).

FDA NDC Directory– Provides details on NDC structure and product identification.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers NDC interpretation and drug identification.

Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)– Reinforces correct medication identification using NDC.

Analyzing the Answer Choices:Key References:

To determine how muchdrug (active ingredient)is in2 oz (ounces) of cream, we use the given ratio and perform unit conversions.

120 gof cream contains3 gof drug.

2 ozof cream =2 × 28.35 g(since1 oz = 28.35 g)

2 oz = 56.7 g

Step 1: Identify Given DataStep 2: Set Up a Proportion3 g drug120 g cream=x g drug56.7 g cream\frac{3 \text{ g drug}}{120 \text{ g cream}} = \frac{x \text{ g drug}}{56.7 \text{ g cream}}120 g cream3 g drug​=56.7 g creamx g drug​

Step 3: Solve forxxxx=3×56.7120=170.1120=1.42≈1.5 gx = \frac{3 \times 56.7}{120} = \frac{170.1}{120} = 1.42 \approx 1.5 \text{ g}x=1203×56.7​=120170.1​=1.42≈1.5 g

Thus,1.5 g of drugis present in2 oz of cream.

B. 6 g→ Incorrect; this would assume a higher drug concentration.

C. 15 g→ Incorrect; this is a miscalculation of the ratio.

D. 60 g→ Incorrect; far exceeds the total weight of the cream.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Calculations – Ratios and Proportions)

United States Pharmacopeia (USP) General Chapters on Compounding

The Pharmacy Technician’s Pocket Drug Reference

Incompatibility in a nonsterile compound can be identified through various physical, chemical, and therapeutic changes.An unexpected change in odoris a key indicator of chemical instability, contamination, or degradation of a compounded preparation. Some ingredients may break down into volatile compounds, leading to noticeable odor changes.

A. A clear solution→ Incorrect; clarity alone does not indicate incompatibility.Some solutions may be clear but still chemically unstable.

B. The use of a pH buffer system→ Incorrect; buffer systems are used to maintain pH stability and prevent incompatibility rather than indicate it.

D. Suspension particles settling to the bottom of a container→ Incorrect; suspensions naturally settle and require shaking before use.This is not necessarily a sign of incompatibility.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Nonsterile Preparations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Quality Assurance)

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

Handling and internal transport of hazardous waste in the workplace require compliance with OSHA standards, including Hazard Communication and HAZWOPER (29 CFR 1910.120) training for personnel involved in hazardous waste operations. While external shipment of hazardous materials involves DOT/EPA rules, within pharmacy and healthcare settings, technicians moving hazardous waste containers to storage must have OSHA-mandated training. DEA pertains to controlled substances, FDA regulates drug approval/labeling, and ISMP is a safety organization but does not mandate training.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• USP <800> Hazardous Drugs—Handling in Healthcare Settings: personnel training expectations and references to OSHA standards for safe handling.

• OSHA Hazard Communication Standard and HAZWOPER training requirements as cited in pharm tech safety modules.

• PTCB/ExCPT study materials on hazardous drugs/waste handling and applicable regulatory bodies

TheU.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)requires aMedication Guide (MedGuide)to be provided when dispensing certain medications that have significant safety concerns.Zyprexa (Olanzapine), anatypical antipsychotic, requires aMedication Guidedue to serious risks such as:

Increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis

Metabolic side effects(e.g., weight gain, hyperglycemia, and dyslipidemia)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

A. Zafirlukast→ Incorrect; while used forasthma(leukotriene receptor antagonist), it doesnot require a Medication Guide.

B. Zestril (Lisinopril)→ Incorrect; anACE inhibitorfor hypertension, it doesnot require a Medication Guide.

C. Zinc→ Incorrect; adietary supplementthat does not require a Medication Guide.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Medication Guide Requirements for Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Patient Counseling)

Azithromycin powder for oral suspension, once reconstituted, is labeled to be used within 10 days. By contrast:

• Methylphenidate (e.g., Quillivant XR) has a much longer beyond-use period (months) after pharmacy reconstitution per labeling.

• Famotidine oral suspension (commercial) commonly has a longer in-use timeframe (e.g., around 30 days) after reconstitution.

• Vancomycin oral solutions (e.g., commercially available products like Firvanq or extemporaneously prepared) are typically stable longer than 10 days (often around 14 days refrigerated, per labeling/product guidance).

Therefore, among the options, Azithromycin is the oral suspension with a maximum 10-day stability after reconstitution.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• Manufacturer-labeled stability periods for common oral suspensions used in community pharmacy (e.g., azithromycin 10-day in-use period).

• PTCB/ExCPT study materials: common antibiotic suspension beyond-use periods (amoxicillin/augmentin/azithromycin comparisons).

• Needed dose: 400 mg per dose.

• Available concentration: 300 mg/5 mL.

• Use proportion/dimensional analysis:

- mL=400 mg×5 mL300 mg=2000300 mL=6.6‾ mL≈6.7 mL\text{mL} = 400\ \text{mg} \times \frac{5\ \text{mL}}{300\ \text{mg}} = \frac{2000}{300}\ \text{mL} = 6.\overline{6}\ \text{mL} \approx 6.7\ \text{mL}mL=400 mg×300 mg5 mL​=3002000​ mL=6.6 mL≈6.7 mL.

• Thus, 6.7 mL per dose is required.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• PTCB/ExCPT pharmacy calculations—dose-concentration conversions using ratio-proportion or dimensional analysis.

• Nonsterile compounding and dispensing references—accurate liquid dose calculations from mg/mL strengths.

AZ-Pakrefers to theAzithromycin 5-day therapy pack, which is commonly prescribed forbacterial infectionssuch as respiratory infections. The standard dosing regimen follows a"loading dose" strategyto quickly reach effective drug levels in the body:

Day 1:Taketwo tablets (500 mg total).

Days 2-5:Takeone tablet (250 mg) daily.

This regimen helps achieverapid therapeutic concentrationswhile maintaining effectiveness over five days.

A. 1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 4 days→ Incorrect; aloading dose (2 tablets on Day 1)is required for proper drug efficacy.

B. 1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 5 days→ Incorrect; the Z-Pak is a5-day regimen, not 6 days.

D. 3 tablets PO on the current day, then 1 PO every other day for 6 days→ Incorrect; this isnot a standard dosing regimenfor azithromycin.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Monograph for Azithromycin (Z-Pak)

Lexicomp Drug Guide – Azithromycin Dosing

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology – Infectious Disease Medications)

PerUSP standards, a drug with an expiration date ofMarch 2025is consideredvalid until the last day of the month, which isMarch 31, 2025. This applies unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer.

If a drug is labeledMM/YYYY, itremains valid until the last day of that month.

If a drug is labeled with aspecific day (MM/DD/YYYY), itexpires at the end of that day.

A. February 28, 2025→ Incorrect; the expiration is at the end ofMarch, not February.

B. March 1, 2025→ Incorrect; the drug is stillusable until March 31.

D. March 1, 2026→ Incorrect; the drugexpires in March 2025, not 2026.

Expiration Date Rules:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <797> Pharmaceutical Compounding – Expiration and Beyond-Use Dating (BUD) Guidelines

FDA Drug Expiration Date Regulations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Storage & Stability)

According to USP <1079> Good Storage and Distribution Practices, the most accurate source for determining proper storage conditions of a medication is the manufacturer's label or package insert, which contains specific temperature and humidity requirements (e.g., refrigeration, protection from light). This information is required by FDA labeling regulations and is essential for maintaining drug stability and potency.

Additionally, the Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Review Guide states:

“Storage requirements should always be verified using the product’s official labeling or manufacturer’s monograph, as these contain validated stability data.”

TheM-M-R II (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella) vaccinemust bereconstituted only with the manufacturer-supplied diluentto maintain its efficacy and stability.

The manufacturer-provided diluent contains stabilizing agents that preserve the live attenuated virus.

Using normal saline can alter the pH and degrade the vaccine, making it ineffective.

The vaccine must be discarded if reconstituted incorrectlyand not administered.

A. Administer the vaccine as the diluents are equivalent.❌→Incorrect

Normal saline is NOT equivalent to the manufacturer’s diluentand can compromise the vaccine’s potency.

B. Report the incident to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).❌→Incorrect

Vaccine errors should be reported to the CDC’s Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS), not the DEA(which handles controlled substances, not vaccines).

C. Contact the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for guidance.❌→Incorrect

The EPA regulates hazardous waste, not vaccine errors.The CDC or vaccine manufacturer should be contacted for guidance.

CDC Vaccine Storage and Handling Guidelines– States thatvaccines must be reconstituted only with manufacturer-supplied diluents.

FDA Guidelines for M-M-R II Vaccine– Confirms that improper reconstitutionrenders the vaccine ineffective.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers proper vaccine handling and error prevention.

Why Is Normal Saline Not an Acceptable Diluent?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

According tofederal law(Drug Enforcement Administration, DEA21 CFR § 1306.25), the transfer of aneligibleSchedule III, IV, or V controlled substance prescriptionmust occur directly between two licensed pharmacists.

Pharmacists Only:Transfers of controlled substance prescriptions canonlybe completed betweentwo licensed pharmacists.

Eligible Schedule Drugs:OnlySchedule III, IV, and Vprescriptions withremaining refillsmay be transferred.Schedule II prescriptions cannot be transferred.

Transfer Limitations:

Prescriptions may be transferredonly onceunless pharmacies share areal-time, electronic prescription database(e.g., chain pharmacies). In this case, refills can be transferred multiple times within allowed limits.

Transfer Documentation:The transferring pharmacist must:

Write"VOID"on the original prescription.

Record thereceiving pharmacy’sname, address, DEA number, and pharmacist’s name.

Record thedate of transferand their own name.

Receiving Pharmacist Responsibilities:

Write"Transfer"on the prescription.

Record all information from the original prescription, includingdate of issuance, original refills, refills remaining, and DEA information of the transferring pharmacy.

A. Two licensed pharmacy technicians.→ Incorrect. Pharmacy technicians are not authorized to transfer controlled substance prescriptions.

B. A licensed pharmacy technician and a licensed pharmacist.→ Incorrect. A pharmacist mustboth send and receivethe transferred prescription.

C. A licensed pharmacist and a licensed nurse.→ Incorrect. Nurses do not have the authority to receive transferred prescriptions.

DEA Pharmacist’s Manual – Prescription Transfers (21 CFR § 1306.25).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Controlled Substance Regulations.

National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) Guidelines on Controlled Substance Transfers.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Prescription Transfers.

Key DEA Rules on Controlled Substance Prescription Transfers:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Ciprofloxacin is afluoroquinolone antibioticthat chelates (binds) withdivalent and trivalent cationssuch ascalciumfound in milk. This interaction forms aninsoluble complex, significantly reducing ciprofloxacin’s absorption in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, leading to decreased bioavailability and reduced therapeutic effect.

B. Distribution→ Incorrect; milk does not directly impact the distribution of ciprofloxacin in the bloodstream.

C. Metabolism→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is primarily metabolized in the liver, and milk does not inhibit its enzymatic breakdown.

D. Excretion→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is mainly excreted by the kidneys, and milk does not significantly impact this process.

Other Answer Choices Explained:Pharmacist’s Recommendation:Patients should take ciprofloxacinat least 2 hours before or 6 hours afterconsuming dairy products to avoid reduced drug absorption.

TheFDA classifies recalls into three levels, withClass III being the least severe:

Class I Recall→Most severe→ Issued when a drugmay cause serious harm or death.

Class II Recall→Moderate severity→ The drug may causetemporary or medically reversible adverse effects.

Class III Recall→Least severe→ The productis unlikely to cause harm but violates FDA regulations(e.g., labeling errors, minor packaging issues).

A. Is issued when there is a reasonable probability that the product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death.❌→Incorrect

Describes a Class I recall, not Class III.

B. Is initiated by the FDA if a manufacturer has violated the adulteration provisions of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).❌→Incorrect

FDA action due to adulteration typically leads to Class I or Class II recalls, depending on severity.

C. Occurs when a product may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences.❌→Incorrect

Describes a Class II recall, not Class III.

FDA Drug Recall Guidelines– Defines Class I, II, and III recalls.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers recall classifications and pharmacy responsibilities.

FDA Enforcement Report– Lists real-world examples of Class III recalls (e.g.,mislabeling, incorrect expiration dates).

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

TheU.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)requires aMedication Guide (MedGuide)to be provided when dispensing certain medications that have significant safety concerns.Zyprexa (Olanzapine), anatypical antipsychotic, requires aMedication Guidedue to serious risks such as:

Increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis

Metabolic side effects(e.g., weight gain, hyperglycemia, and dyslipidemia)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

A. Zafirlukast→ Incorrect; while used forasthma(leukotriene receptor antagonist), it doesnot require a Medication Guide.

B. Zestril (Lisinopril)→ Incorrect; anACE inhibitorfor hypertension, it doesnot require a Medication Guide.

C. Zinc→ Incorrect; adietary supplementthat does not require a Medication Guide.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Medication Guide Requirements for Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Patient Counseling)

Ciprofloxacin is afluoroquinolone antibioticthat chelates (binds) withdivalent and trivalent cationssuch ascalciumfound in milk. This interaction forms aninsoluble complex, significantly reducing ciprofloxacin’s absorption in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, leading to decreased bioavailability and reduced therapeutic effect.

B. Distribution→ Incorrect; milk does not directly impact the distribution of ciprofloxacin in the bloodstream.

C. Metabolism→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is primarily metabolized in the liver, and milk does not inhibit its enzymatic breakdown.

D. Excretion→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is mainly excreted by the kidneys, and milk does not significantly impact this process.

Other Answer Choices Explained:Pharmacist’s Recommendation:Patients should take ciprofloxacinat least 2 hours before or 6 hours afterconsuming dairy products to avoid reduced drug absorption.

Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)is used to treatpernicious anemia, a condition caused byVitamin B12 deficiencydue to the body’s inability to absorb it properly.

Pernicious anemiais an autoimmune disorder where the stomach does not produceintrinsic factor, a protein needed for Vitamin B12 absorption.

Symptoms includefatigue, weakness, neurological issues (numbness, tingling), and megaloblastic anemia.

Cyanocobalamin is given viaIM injection or high-dose oral supplementation.

(A) Pernicious anemia✅Correct – Cyanocobalamin is the primary treatment.

(B) Alcohol withdrawal❌Incorrect – Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is used for alcohol withdrawal, not cyanocobalamin.

(C) Hypothyroidism❌Incorrect – Treated withlevothyroxine (Synthroid), not Vitamin B12.

(D) Narrow-angle glaucoma❌Incorrect – Treated withtimolol, acetazolamide, or surgery, not cyanocobalamin.

Cyanocobalamin Prescribing Information (NIH): https://medlineplus.gov/druginfo/meds/a607038.html

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Disease States & Medications

Key Facts About Cyanocobalamin & Pernicious Anemia:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

According tofederal law(Controlled Substances Act, CSA) andDrug Enforcement Administration (DEA) regulations, a prescription for aSchedule III or IV controlled substancemay be refilleda maximum of five (5) times within six (6) monthsfrom the date the prescription was written.

Refill Limit:A Schedule IV prescription may be refilled up to five (5) times within six (6) monthsfrom the issue date, if authorized by the prescriber.

Expiration:The prescription expiressix (6) monthsafter the date it was written.

Recordkeeping:The pharmacy must maintain accurate refill records either electronically or manually.

Additional Refills Beyond 5:If the patient needs refills after the 5-refill limit, anew prescriptionmust be issued by the prescriber.

Partial Fills:Partial dispensing is allowed, but the total quantity dispensed cannot exceed the originally prescribed amount.

A. 2 times in 3 months.→ Incorrect. Federal law allows more than 2 refills for Schedule IV drugs.

B. 3 times in 4 months.→ Incorrect. This underestimates the legal refill limit.

C. 4 times in 6 months.→ Incorrect. Schedule IV drugs may be refilledup to 5 times, not just 4, within 6 months.

DEA Pharmacist’s Manual – Controlled Substances Act (21 CFR 1306.22).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Federal Pharmacy Law and Controlled Substances.

FDA and DEA Guidelines on Schedule III-V Prescription Refills.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Controlled Substances Regulations.

Key DEA Rules for Schedule III and IV Prescriptions:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Pharmacy technicians may collect and relay information as part of supportive roles but do not interpret, assess, or make clinical decisions. Reporting out-of-range lab values to the pharmacist (B) is appropriate. Determining dosages (A), identifying potential interactions (C), and recommending diagnostic tests (D) are clinical judgment activities reserved for the pharmacist or prescriber.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• ASHP Model Curriculum/Scope of Practice for Pharmacy Technicians—roles include data collection and communication, not clinical decision-making.

• PTCB/ExCPT study guides—delineation of technician vs. pharmacist responsibilities (technician: gather/report; pharmacist: evaluate/assess/decide).

• Pharmacy operations policy examples on technician duties in monitoring programs.

Cyclosporine is a cornerstone immunosuppressant for transplant recipients and is a narrow therapeutic index medication requiring close monitoring of drug levels and renal function due to risks such as nephrotoxicity, hypertension, and extensive drug–drug interactions (CYP3A4 substrate). While prednisone is commonly used post-transplant, it does not require serum level monitoring like cyclosporine. Acetaminophen and doxycycline do not have the same transplant-specific monitoring needs.

According toUSP <800>andOSHA guidelines, exposure control forhazardous drugs (HDs)must begin as soon as the drugenters the facilityto ensure proper handling, storage, and administration safety. This includes:

Receiving:

Hazardous drugs must beunpacked in a designated areathat isseparate from regular medications.

They shouldnot be opened in sterile or positive-pressure areasto prevent contamination.

Storage:

HDs must be stored in anegative-pressure room with proper ventilation.

They must be placed indesignated binsto reduce exposure risks.

Handling and Compounding:

Usepersonal protective equipment (PPE)such as gloves, gowns, and masks when handling hazardous drugs.

Use abiological safety cabinet (BSC) or compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)when preparing hazardous drugs.

A. Is dispensed→ Incorrect;control measures must start earlier, before dispensing.

C. Is compounded→ Incorrect; safety measures beginbefore compounding, when the drug arrives at the pharmacy.

D. Is placed on the pharmacy shelf→ Incorrect;exposure control measuresbegin before storage, duringreceiving and handling.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <800> Hazardous Drug Handling Guidelines

OSHA Hazardous Drug Safety Standards

NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) Hazardous Drug List

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Handling)

A vaccine administration error occurs when a vaccine is given in a way that deviates from standard guidelines established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the vaccine manufacturer’s recommendations. Some administration errors must be reported voluntarily to theVaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)to help improve vaccine safety and prevent future errors.

(A) Fluzone was administered subcutaneously.✅(Incorrect Route – Error that Should Be Reported)

Fluzone is aninactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)that should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Subcutaneous (SQ) administration isnot recommendedand may reduce vaccine efficacy.

According to theCDC and the Immunization Action Coalition (IAC), administering an inactivated influenza vaccine subcutaneously is a vaccine administration error and should be reported.

(B) Boostrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Boostrix is aTdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Acellular Pertussis) vaccineindicated for booster immunization.

It iscorrectly administered intramuscularly (IM)in thedeltoid muscle.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this does not qualify as a vaccine administration error.

(C) Varivax was administered subcutaneously.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Varivax is alive-attenuated varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.

It iscorrectly administered subcutaneously (SQ), typically in the upper arm or thigh.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

(D) Shingrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Shingrix is arecombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)used for shingles prevention.

It should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)and theCDCrecommend reportingvaccine administration errorsto VAERS, especially if the error could affect the vaccine’s efficacy or patient safety.

Administration of Fluzonevia the incorrect route (subcutaneously instead of intramuscularly)could alter immune response and should be reported.

If a vaccine is given via the incorrect route, the CDC provides guidance on whether the dose needs to be repeated. For inactivated influenza vaccines given subcutaneously, the CDC states that the dose doesnot need to be repeated, but the error should still be documented and reported.

CDC General Best Practices for Immunization:https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/hcp/acip-recs/general-recs/index.html

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS): https://vaers.hhs.gov/

Immunization Action Coalition (IAC) - Vaccine Administration Guidelines: https://www.immunize.org/technical-support/administering-vaccines/

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) - Vaccine Safety Recommendations: https://www.ismp.org/recommendations/immunization-safety

Analysis of Each Answer Choice:Reporting Vaccine Administration Errors:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Oxaprozinis anonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)used to treat arthritis. It is listed on theISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) List of Confused Drug Namesdue to its similarity toTopamax (topiramate), an anticonvulsant used for epilepsy and migraine prevention. The confusion arises because both drug nameslook and sound similar, which can lead to dispensing errors.

A. Tobradex→ Incorrect. Tobradex is anantibiotic/steroid ophthalmic medicationand is not confused with oxaprozin.

C. Tradjenta→ Incorrect. Tradjenta (linagliptin) is aDPP-4 inhibitor for diabetesand is not commonly confused with oxaprozin.

D. Trileptal→ Incorrect. Trileptal (oxcarbazepine) is ananticonvulsantbut is not on the ISMP Confused Drug List with oxaprozin.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Error Prevention and Look-Alike/Sound-Alike (LASA) Drugs)

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) List of Confused Drug Names

FDA Drug Safety Communications

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

When adrug recalloccurs due totemperature excursions(exposure to temperatures outside the manufacturer’s recommended range during transport or storage), the pharmacy mustimmediately remove all affected productfrom its inventory to prevent dispensing compromised medication.

Remove the Affected Product:Quarantine the recalled drug to ensure it is not dispensed.

Verify the Recall Details:Confirm the lot number, expiration date, and reason for the recall using FDA or manufacturer recall notices.

Document the Recall Action:Log details in the pharmacy's recall records for compliance.

Follow Manufacturer or FDA Instructions:Some recalls require returning the product, while others require disposal according to hazardous waste guidelines.

Notify Patients and Providers (If Necessary):If the medication has already been dispensed, further action may be needed depending on recall severity.

B. Contact patients who received a therapeutically equivalent product.→ Incorrect. The recall applies to thespecificaffected lot, not all similar medications. Pharmacists would first verify which patients received the recalled drugbefore contacting them.

C. Switch patients from the oral solution to oral capsules.→ Incorrect. The recall does not automatically require a formulation change. The pharmacy must verify availability of unaffected stock or alternative treatments before making substitutions.

D. Contact all prescribers who recently prescribed the product.→ Incorrect. While prescribersmayneed notification if the recall affects patient treatment, thefirst stepis ensuring the recalled product is removed from stock to prevent further dispensing.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety and Recall Procedures.

FDA Drug Recall Guidelines (www.fda.gov).

USP <1079> Good Storage and Distribution Practices for Pharmaceuticals.

National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) Recall Compliance Standards.

Manufacturer Recall Notices (Example: Pfizer, Eli Lilly, etc.).

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Recall Classifications and Actions.

Steps to Follow in a Drug Recall:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

A reverse distributor is an entity authorized to receive, manage, and dispose of outdated, damaged, or unusable medications from pharmacies, including coordinating credits and compliant destruction. A secondary wholesaler resells products but does not primarily manage disposal. A cancer drug repository is a donation program in some states—not a disposal service. A prime vendor is the contracted primary wholesaler for routine purchasing, not for expired drug destruction.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• Pharmacy inventory management operations: definitions and roles of wholesalers vs. reverse distributors; expired drug handling.

• DEA/State guidance on handling returns and disposal (reverse distribution) for prescription and controlled medications.

• PTCB/ExCPT study guides: reverse distribution and compliant destruction processes.

To determine the total number of10 mg prednisone tabletsrequired to fill the prescription, let's break it down by daily dosing:

First 2 days→ 20 mgtwice daily(b.i.d) =40 mg per day

Total for 2 days:40 mg × 2 =80 mg

Next 2 days→ 20 mgonce daily=20 mg per day

Total for 2 days:20 mg × 2 =40 mg

Next 2 days→ 10 mgonce daily=10 mg per day

Total for 2 days:10 mg × 2 =20 mg

Final 2 days→ 5 mgonce daily=5 mg per day

Total for 2 days:5 mg × 2 =10 mg

Days 1–4:(20 mg doses) → Each 20 mg dose requirestwo 10 mg tablets

Total for these 4 days:(20 mg × 4 days) = 80 mg

Tablets required:80 mg ÷ 10 mg =8 tablets

Days 5–6:(10 mg doses) → Each day requiresone 10 mg tablet

Total for these 2 days:10 mg × 2 =20 mg

Tablets required:20 mg ÷ 10 mg =2 tablets

Days 7–8:(5 mg doses) → Each day requireshalf of a 10 mg tablet

Total for these 2 days:5 mg × 2 =10 mg

Tablets required:1 full tablet (split into halves for two doses)

Step 1: Understanding the Prescription DirectionsStep 2: Determining the Number of 10 mg Tablets NeededFinal Calculation:8 tablets (Days 1-4) + 2 tablets (Days 5-6) + 1 tablet (Days 7-8) = 15 tablets

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers dosage calculations, unit conversions, and prescription interpretation.

Basic Pharmacy Math Principles– Ensuring proper medication dispensing based on prescription instructions.

Pharmacy Practice Guidelines– Proper dispensing techniques for titration therapy, such as steroid tapering.

Key References:

Lamivudine (Epivir)is anantiretroviral agent used to treat HIV/AIDS and hepatitis B. Some antiretroviral drugs are classified ashigh-alert medications in certain healthcare settingsbecause:

Dosing errors can lead to treatment failure or resistance.

Severe side effects and toxicities may occur if misused.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)includes some antiretrovirals in theirhigh-alert medication list, especially in hospitals.

A. Meperidine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's a narcotic analgesic (opioid pain reliever).

B. Olopatadine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's an antihistamine (used for allergies).

D. Tizanidine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's a muscle relaxant.

ISMP High-Alert Medication List– Includes certainantiretroviral drugs as high-alert medications in some settings.

FDA Drug Labeling for Lamivudine (Epivir)– ListsHIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B as indications.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers high-alert medications and their risks.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Lorazepam oral concentrate is a high-potency liquid formulation often dispensed in 2 mg/mL. Due to its strength and risk of dosing errors, it must be dispensed with a calibrated oral syringe for accurate dosing, especially in pediatric or geriatric patients.

From Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Review:

“Concentrated oral liquids should always be dispensed with calibrated measuring devices to prevent overdose or underdose.”

Other options:

Enoxaparin – subcutaneous injection

Albuterol/ipratropium – inhalation

Polyethylene glycol 3350 – powder mixed with water (no syringe required)

The abbreviation"PO"means"by mouth" (per os).

The abbreviation"ac"stands for"before meals" (ante cibum).

The phrase"daily for 14 days"indicates that the patient should take the medication once a day for a total of 14 days.

Thus, the correct label instructions should be:"Take one capsule by mouth before a meal once daily for 14 days."

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Prescription Interpretation– Covers standard medical abbreviations.

ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) List of Common Pharmacy Abbreviations– Defines "PO" (by mouth) and "ac" (before meals).

USP Medication Labeling Standards– Ensures clear and accurate patient instructions.

Pharmacy Technician References:

Linagliptin is thegeneric name for Tradjenta, a medication used to treattype 2 diabetes mellitus.

Linagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor (Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitor).

Works byincreasing incretin levels, which boost insulin secretion and reduce glucagon levels.

Used tolower blood glucose levelsin patients with type 2 diabetes.

(A) Forteo❌Incorrect – Forteo (teriparatide) is for osteoporosis.

(B) Januvia❌Incorrect – Januvia (sitagliptin) is another DPP-4 inhibitor but not the same as Tradjenta.

(C) Tradjenta✅Correct – The brand name for linagliptin.

(D) Xarelto❌Incorrect – Xarelto (rivaroxaban) is an anticoagulant.

Tradjenta Prescribing Information (FDA):https://www.tradjenta.com

American Diabetes Association (ADA) – Pharmacologic Approaches to Diabetes Management:https://diabetesjournals.org

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Brand & Generic Name Drug Recognition

Drug Classification & Mechanism:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Multiple-dose vials (MDVs)containpreservativesto inhibit microbial growth. These vials are designed formultiple withdrawalsover time, increasing the risk of contamination. Preservatives, such asbenzyl alcohol or phenol, help prevent bacterial or fungal contamination after repeated needle insertions.

A. stability and compatibility→ Incorrect. Preservatives do not inhibit drug stability; they prevent microbial contamination.

B. sorption and leaching→ Incorrect. Sorption (adsorption/absorption of drugs onto container surfaces) and leaching (release of chemicals from containers) are unrelated to preservatives.

D. synergistic reactions→ Incorrect. Synergistic reactions refer to drug interactions, not contamination prevention.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Sterile and Non-Sterile Compounding)

USP <797> Guidelines for Sterile Compounding

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP) Guidelines on Multiple-Dose Vials

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, naproxen, aspirin) can irritate the gastric mucosa, increase gastric acidity, and worsen GERD symptoms or cause GI adverse effects such as dyspepsia and ulceration. Acetaminophen does not have NSAID gastric effects and is the preferred OTC analgesic/antipyretic for patients with GERD or those at risk for GI complications, when appropriate and within dosing limits.

Tetracyclines, includingdoxycycline and minocycline, are broad-spectrum antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections. They have amajor drug-drug interaction with calcium-containing antacidsand other minerals.

Chelation Effect:Calcium binds to tetracycline, forminginsoluble complexesthat prevent the antibiotic from being absorbed in thegastrointestinal (GI) tract.

Reduced Efficacy:Because the drug cannot be absorbed, the antibiotic’s effectiveness is significantly reduced.

Similar Interactions:Magnesium, iron, and aluminum (found in many antacids, dairy products, and multivitamins) also reduce tetracycline absorption.

Take on an Empty Stomach(1 hour before or 2 hours after meals).

Avoid Dairy, Antacids, and Multivitaminsfor at least2 hours before and aftertaking tetracycline.

Drink with a Full Glass of Waterto prevent esophageal irritation.

B. Decongestants that contain pseudoephedrine.→ Incorrect. Pseudoephedrine does not interact with tetracycline.

C. Antitussives that contain dextromethorphan.→ Incorrect. Dextromethorphan does not affect tetracycline absorption.

D. Analgesics that contain acetaminophen.→ Incorrect. Acetaminophen does not bind to tetracycline or impact its absorption.

Lexicomp Drug Interaction Database – Tetracycline and Calcium Interactions.

FDA Drug Label for Tetracycline – Absorption and Drug Interaction Warnings.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Tetracycline Pharmacology.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Drug Interactions and Contraindications.

Why Should Tetracycline Not Be Taken with Calcium-Containing Antacids?Patient Counseling for Tetracycline Use:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Federal regulations require a Patient Package Insert (PPI) to be dispensed with oral contraceptives and with estrogen-containing products. The regulation specifies that a PPI must be provided with each prescription and refill in the outpatient setting and with the first dose and at least every 30 days in institutional settings. This requirement applies specifically to oral contraceptives, not broadly to androgens, corticosteroids, or oral chemotherapy (which more commonly require a Medication Guide, not a PPI).

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• 21 CFR 310.501 (Patient package inserts for oral contraceptives).

• 21 CFR 310.515 (Patient package inserts for estrogens).

• PTCB/ExCPT Exam Guides: Patient information requirements (PPI vs. Medication Guide).

Nurtec ODT (Rimegepant)is anorally disintegrating tablet (ODT)used for theacute treatment of migraines. Since it is designed to dissolve quickly in the mouth,it is highly sensitive to moisture. Exposure to moisture can cause the tablets to degrade, dissolve prematurely, or lose potency.

Storage Requirement:

Must be kept in the original blister packaging until usetoprevent moisture exposure.

Should not be stored in pill organizers or opened ahead of time.

B. Light→ Incorrect; Nurtec ODT isnot highly photosensitive.

C. Heat→ Incorrect; while heat can degrade many medications,moisture is the primary concernfor ODT formulations.

D. Cold→ Incorrect; refrigeration isnot required, and cold storage does not affect the drug’s stability.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Label for Nurtec ODT (Rimegepant) – Storage and Handling Instructions

USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding & Drug Stability Guidelines

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Storage & Handling)

The prescription forhydroxyzine (25 mg q6h) for hypertensionis likely alook-alike, sound-alike (LASA) medication error, ashydroxyzineis anantihistamineused foranxiety, nausea, and allergiesbutnot for hypertension.

A common LASA confusion is between:

Hydroxyzine (antihistamine, sedative effects, brand names: Vistaril, Atarax)

Hydralazine (antihypertensive, vasodilator, used for hypertension, brand: Apresoline)

Sincehydralazineis used forhypertension, the prescription likely contains anordering errorthat must be clarified with the prescriber.

A. Hydroxyzine requires special handling→ Incorrect; hydroxyzine does not require special handling.

B. The prescription exceeds the maximum recommended daily dose→ Incorrect; hydroxyzine's max daily dose is400 mg/day, and this prescription does not exceed it.

D. Hydroxyzine is subject to a REMS program→ Incorrect; hydroxyzineis not part of a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA & ISMP Look-Alike Sound-Alike (LASA) Drug List

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Error Prevention)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for Hydroxyzine & Hydralazine

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)areFDA-required programsto ensure that thebenefits of certain medications outweigh their risks. REMS programsrestrict prescribing, dispensing, and monitoringdue to the potential for serious side effects or misuse.

Suboxoneis used foropioid dependenceand containsbuprenorphine, apartial opioid agonist, which can causeaddiction, misuse, and respiratory depressionif used improperly.

REMS Requirements for Suboxone:

Prescriber Certification:Only specially certified providers can prescribe Suboxone.

Patient Education:Patients must be informed about the risks of misuse, overdose, and dependence.

Limited Dispensing:Pharmacists must ensure prescriptions meet REMS criteria before dispensing.

A. Xarelto (Rivaroxaban).→ Incorrect. While Xarelto is an anticoagulant, it isnot under REMS.

C. Warfarin.→ Incorrect. Warfarin requires monitoring butdoes not have a REMS program.

D. Haloperidol.→ Incorrect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, but itdoes not have a REMS program.

FDA REMS Program List (www.accessdata.fda.gov).

Suboxone REMS Guidelines (www.suboxonerems.com).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – REMS and Medication Safety.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – REMS Regulations.

Why Is Suboxone (Buprenorphine/Naloxone) Under REMS?Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Amoxicillin/clavulanate is a penicillin-class (β-lactam) antibiotic. Its labeling includes a contraindication in patients with a history of hypersensitivity to β-lactams (e.g., penicillins; often caution with cephalosporins due to cross-reactivity). Allergy to quinolones (B) is unrelated pharmacologically. Pregnancy or breastfeeding (C) is not an absolute contraindication (risk/benefit assessment is used). Hypertension (D) is not relevant. Therefore, beta-lactam hypersensitivity is the clear contraindication.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• Anti-infectives section of technician study guides: β-lactam structure, class allergies, and contraindications.

• Drug labeling standards: contraindication for penicillin hypersensitivity in amoxicillin-containing products.

• ISMP safety guidance: allergy screening for β-lactam antibiotics.

Per the FDA-approved labeling for NuvaRing (etonogestrel/ethinyl estradiol vaginal ring), the product should be stored refrigerated at 2°C to 8°C (36°F to 46°F) prior to dispensing. After dispensing, NuvaRing may be stored at room temperature for a limited period per labeling (commonly referenced in technician materials as up to 4 months), but pharmacy stock should be kept refrigerated before it is dispensed. Freezing is not recommended.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• NuvaRing Prescribing Information: Storage conditions (refrigeration prior to dispensing; room temperature allowance after dispensing).

• PTCB Top 200/Storage Requirements: Hormonal contraceptive ring storage.

• ASHP/Institutional storage guidelines for temperature-sensitive medications.

St. John's Wort (Hypericum perforatum)is anherbal supplementcommonly used formild to moderate depression.

Containshypericin and hyperforin, which may increaseserotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrinelevels.

Often used as analternative treatment for depression, but not FDA-approved for this indication.

Hasserious drug interactions, including withantidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs), warfarin, oral contraceptives, and cyclosporine.

(A) Immune enhancer❌Incorrect – Not primarily used to boost the immune system.

(B) Mild antidepressant✅Correct – Used for mild depression.

(C) Antioxidant❌Incorrect – While it has some antioxidant properties, this is not its primary use.

(D) Antihypertensive❌Incorrect – It does not lower blood pressure.

National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH) – St. John’s Wort:https://www.nccih.nih.gov/

MedlinePlus – St. John's Wort Drug Interactions:https://medlineplus.gov

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Herbal Supplements & Drug Interactions

How St. John’s Wort Works:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians: