SIE Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Questions and Answers

High-income bond mutual funds typically invest in lower-rated (junk) bonds that offer higher yields. These bonds are exposed to significant credit risk, as issuers may default on their payments.

A is correct because credit risk is the primary concern with high-yield bonds.

B is incorrect as political risk is more relevant for international investments.

C is incorrect because taxability risk is not specific to bond mutual funds.

D is incorrect because purchasing power risk is more relevant for fixed-income investments during inflationary periods but is not the primary risk here.

Step by Step Explanation:

Common Stock: Holders of common stock typically have voting rights, which allow them to participate in decisions like electing the board of directors or approving major corporate actions.

Other Securities:

Preferred Stock: Usually does not carry voting rights.

Corporate and Convertible Bonds: Debt instruments, so they do not confer voting rights.

Step by Step Explanation:

Trust Accounts: Provide the account owner (trustee) full control over distributions and investment decisions. Suitable for complex estate planning needs.

Incorrect Options:

UTMA: Transfers control to the minor upon reaching the age of majority.

529 Plan: Used for educational savings, with limited control over distributions.

CD: A fixed-term deposit, not an account type for managing distributions.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 1122: Requires that registered representatives update their residential address with FINRA for two years post-termination.

Purpose: This ensures accurate records for potential regulatory inquiries during the statutory two-year period when a terminated individual remains subject to FINRA’s jurisdiction.

XYZ bonds have a yield higher than the coupon rate, indicating that their market price has decreased due to concerns about the issuer's creditworthiness.

A is correct because the high yield suggests elevated credit risk.

B is incorrect because domestic utility companies are unlikely to face political risk.

C is irrelevant as the bonds are denominated in U.S. dollars.

D is incorrect as prepayment risk is associated with callable bonds, not noncallable bonds.

A secondary market transaction occurs when securities are bought and sold between investors, typically on an exchange.

C is correct because securities purchased on a registered exchange are secondary market transactions.

A is incorrect as open-end mutual fund shares are purchased directly from the issuer.

B refers to the primary market.

D is also incorrect as private placements occur in the primary market.

Step by Step Explanation:

Publicly Traded Limited Partnerships (PTPs): Represent ownership stakes, which categorize them as equity securities. PTPs often involve sectors like real estate or energy.

Incorrect Options:

A: Mutual funds are pooled investment vehicles, not partnerships.

C: Fixed-income securities are debt instruments like bonds.

D: Derivatives include options or futures, not ownership stakes.

Accounts held individually are subject to probate, which is the legal process of administering the decedent’s estate. Probate determines the distribution of assets according to the deceased’s will or state intestacy laws.

A is correct because individual accounts require probate to transfer assets.

B is incorrect because irrevocable trusts bypass probate.

C is incorrect because TOD accounts allow direct transfer of assets to named beneficiaries without probate.

D is incorrect because JTWROS accounts transfer ownership to the surviving account holder automatically.

The cost basis of a stock represents the purchase price and does not include dividends received. Taxes paid on dividends also do not affect the cost basis.

Original purchase price per share = $20.00.

Dividends and taxes on dividends do not adjust the stock’s cost basis.

A is correct because the cost basis remains $20.00.

B, C, and D incorrectly assume that dividends or taxes change the cost basis.

Step by Step Explanation:

Priority in Bankruptcy: Preferred stockholders have a higher claim on a company’s assets than common stockholders during liquidation. Common stockholders are residual claimants.

Dividend Priority: Preferred stockholders are entitled to fixed dividends before common stockholders receive any dividends.

Incorrect Options:

A & B: Common and preferred stocks are treated differently in bankruptcy and dividend payments.

C: Common stock dividends are subordinate to preferred stock dividends.

A limit order to buy allows the investor to specify the maximum price he is willing to pay for the stock. The order will only execute if the stock price falls to or below the specified price.

B is correct because a limit order to buy aligns with the investor’s desire to secure a better price.

A is incorrect because a limit order to sell is used when an investor wants to sell at a minimum price.

C and D are incorrect because market orders execute at the current market price, not at a preferred price.

Step by Step Explanation:

Equity Index Options: These are cash-settled because the underlying asset is not a physical security but a theoretical value representing the index.

Incorrect Options:

Preferred Stock, Master Limited Partnerships, and ETFs: These involve physical delivery of the underlying asset upon exercise.

The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) is responsible for issuing and guaranteeing the performance of listed options contracts, including Long-term Equity Anticipation Securities (LEAPS), which are long-term options.

D is correct because LEAPS are a type of listed options contract cleared by the OCC.

A is incorrect because listed stocks are not options contracts.

B is incorrect because over-the-counter bonds are not cleared by the OCC.

C is incorrect because ETFs are not options, though ETF options may be cleared by the OCC.

Step by Step Explanation:

Escalation Requirement: The RR must promptly notify their supervisor or compliance department about the customer’s complaint as required by FINRA rules. Supervisors handle customer complaints according to firm procedures.

Incorrect Options:

B: Reimbursing the customer is not permissible without firm approval and may create compliance issues.

C: Complaints requiring Form U4 updates involve specific allegations such as fraud, not general dissatisfaction.

D: The RR should not contact FINRA directly; the firm will handle communications.

Step by Step Explanation:

Settlement of the Transaction: Refers to the finalization of a trade, where the buyer pays for the securities, and the seller delivers them. For most securities, regular-way settlement occurs T+2 (trade date plus two business days).

Incorrect Options:

Clearing the Trade: Refers to matching trade details to prepare for settlement.

DVP Transactions: A specific type of settlement involving simultaneous payment and delivery, often used for institutional clients.

Corporate Action: Refers to events like stock splits or dividend declarations.

Step by Step Explanation:

Right of Accumulation: Allows an investor to combine the value of existing investments within the same fund family to qualify for a breakpoint (reduced sales charge) on new purchases.

Current Holdings: $80,000

New Purchase: $50,000

Total: $130,000, qualifying for the $100,000 breakpoint.

Incorrect Options:

B: Contributions from all funds within the same family can be aggregated.

C: A new letter of intent is unnecessary; right of accumulation applies automatically.

D: Discounts apply immediately, not retroactively.

Step by Step Explanation:

Liquidity Risk: Refers to the difficulty of selling a security quickly without significantly affecting its price. This is common in thinly traded securities or complex instruments.

Other Risks:

Credit Risk: Relates to the possibility of default by the issuer.

Market Risk: Pertains to overall price changes due to market conditions.

Prepayment Risk: Associated with mortgage-backed securities and early repayment of loans.

Step by Step Explanation:

Summary Prospectus Content: Must include key information such as the fund’s investment objectives, risks, fees, and past performance. This helps investors make informed decisions.

Incorrect Options:

A: Projected returns are speculative and not included in the prospectus.

C & D: Detailed portfolio holdings and control persons are included in the full prospectus, not the summary.

Step by Step Explanation:

Telemarketing Rules (FINRA Rule 3230): Require firms to check the National Do Not Call Registry before contacting individuals, even if those individuals provide their contact information voluntarily.

Incorrect Options:

A: Approval isn’t required for individual follow-ups; compliance with the registry is.

B: While calls must be limited to appropriate hours, the registry check is still mandatory.

C: Written consent does not override the registry requirement.

Step by Step Explanation:

Regular-Way Settlement: For equity securities, settlement occurs on a T+2 basis, meaning two business days after the trade date.

Calculation:

Trade Date (T): Thursday, August 2.

T+2 Settlement: Excludes weekends, so settlement falls on Monday, August 6.

Incorrect Options:

A: Reflects T+1, not the correct settlement cycle.

C & D: Extend beyond the standard T+2 cycle.

Step by Step Explanation:

ADRs: Represent foreign securities but are issued in the U.S. and quoted in U.S. dollars, making them easier for American investors to trade.

Incorrect Options:

B: ADRs are quoted in U.S. dollars, not foreign currencies.

C & D: ADRs represent foreign securities held by U.S. banks, not foreign banks.

Refunding involves replacing existing debt with new debt, usually to take advantage of lower interest rates.

B is correct because the company issues new bonds to pay off the existing debt.

A is incorrect as refunding involves issuing debt, not equity.

C is incorrect because the company is not obligated to buy back bonds at a discount.

D is incorrect because a sinking fund is used for gradual repayment, not refunding.

Step by Step Explanation:

SEC Rule 10b-10: Requires trade confirmations to disclose the capacity in which the firm acted (e.g., as agent or principal) and details like trade price, quantity, and commissions.

Incorrect Options:

A: Cost basis is not disclosed on trade confirmations.

B: Inventory levels are not part of the required disclosures.

C: Market maker status is not explicitly required in the confirmation.

Step by Step Explanation:

Call Option Writer: When writing (selling) a call option, the writer has the obligation to sell the underlying stock at the strike price if the buyer exercises the option.

Incorrect Options:

A & B: Only the option buyer has rights, not the writer.

D: Obligations to buy stock apply to put option writers, not call option writers.

The Securities Act of 1933 requires securities offered to the public to be registered with the SEC unless they qualify for an exemption. Open-end investment companies (mutual funds) are not exempt and must register.

D is correct because mutual funds are publicly offered and require registration.

A is incorrect because private placements are exempt under Regulation D.

B is incorrect because municipal securities are exempt under Section 3(a)(2).

C is incorrect because U.S. government securities are also exempt under Section 3(a)(2).

Step by Step Explanation:

Consumer Discretionary Sector: Includes products and services that are not essential, such as luxury items, travel, and entertainment. Revenues increase as disposable income rises during economic expansion.

Consumer Staples and Utilities: These sectors are defensive and less impacted by economic cycles.

Healthcare: Also less correlated with economic cycles due to its essential nature.

Step by Step Explanation:

Backing Away: Refers to the failure of a market maker to honor a firm quote when a customer attempts to trade at that price. It is a violation of market rules.

Incorrect Options:

Freeriding: Involves selling securities before paying for them in a cash account.

Interpositioning: Involves unnecessary intermediaries in trades, which can harm customers.

Market Manipulation: Covers a range of deceptive practices, such as wash trading or spoofing, not specific to honoring quotes.

The announcement of negative regulatory changes introduces unsystematic risk, specific to the technology sector. Diversification into unrelated sectors can reduce exposure to this risk.

A is correct because uncorrelated holdings reduce portfolio risk.

B is incorrect because adding more microchip companies increases exposure to sector-specific risk.

C does not address the core issue of over-concentration.

D is the opposite of mitigating risk.

FINRA Rule 4511 requires member firms to retain records, including electronic communications, in a non-rewriteable, non-erasable format (often referred to as WORM: Write Once, Read Many). This ensures that records cannot be altered or deleted once stored.

D is correct because firms must store records in a tamper-proof format.

A, B, and C are incorrect because these formats do not guarantee compliance with the tamper-proof requirements set forth by FINRA and the SEC.

Step by Step Explanation:

Debentures: Corporate bonds not backed by physical assets or collateral. They rely on the issuer’s creditworthiness.

Incorrect Options:

B: Trust certificates are a legacy term for bonds backed by a trust.

C: Collateral trust bonds are secured by financial assets.

D: GO bonds are issued by municipalities, not corporations.

Step by Step Explanation:

Rule 144 Holding Period: Restricted securities held by affiliates require a six-month holding period before sale, provided the issuer is subject to SEC reporting requirements.

Other Options:

Notification to FINRA (C) is incorrect; Form 144 is submitted to the SEC, not FINRA.

The 10% ADTV limitation (D) applies to the volume of shares sold, not the conditions for sale.

Variable annuity subaccounts are held in separate accounts, distinct from the insurance company’s general account. This separation protects subaccount assets from claims by creditors in case the insurance company becomes insolvent.

C is correct because the separate account ensures creditor protection.

A is incorrect as management fees for variable annuities are often higher.

B is incorrect because the subaccounts are not held at broker-dealers.

D is incorrect as subaccounts do not represent subordinated debt.

Mutual funds are traded based on forward pricing. Orders received after the market closes are executed at the NAV calculated at the next market close.

A is correct because it aligns with forward pricing rules.

B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow mutual fund trade practices.

Step by Step Explanation:

Call Provision: This allows the issuer to redeem bonds before their maturity date, usually at a premium to the par value, which benefits the issuer in a declining interest rate environment.

Put Provision: Allows bondholders, not issuers, to sell the bond back to the issuer.

Conversion: Relates to convertible bonds that can be converted into equity.

Defeasement: Refers to the removal of a bond issuer’s obligation by setting aside cash or securities to cover the debt.

In a tenants in common account, each owner has a distinct percentage of ownership. Upon the death of one owner, their share does not transfer to the surviving owner(s); instead, it becomes part of the deceased’s estate.

C is correct because ownership is divided, and the deceased’s share passes to their estate.

A is incorrect because partnerships have different agreements governing ownership transitions.

B is incorrect because trust corporations are governed by trust agreements, not estate processes.

D is incorrect because JTWROS accounts pass ownership directly to the surviving account holder(s).

Step by Step Explanation:

Expense Ratio: Class A shares typically have lower ongoing expense ratios but higher front-end sales charges. Class C shares often have higher ongoing expense ratios but no front-end charges.

Incorrect Options:

B: NAV is determined daily and does not vary by share class.

C: All share classes invest in the same underlying portfolio.

D: Purchase timing is the same for all share classes.

Step by Step Explanation:

Inverse Relationship: Bond prices and interest rates have an inverse relationship. When interest rates fall, existing bonds with higher coupon rates become more valuable, leading to an increase in market value.

Incorrect Options:

A: Market value decreases as interest rates increase.

C: Interest rates and bond values move inversely, not in the same direction.

D: Interest rates are not constant; they fluctuate over time.

Step by Step Explanation:

SIPC Coverage: Protects customers of brokerage firms against the loss of securities and cash due to broker-dealer insolvency, but it does not protect against market losses.

FDIC Coverage: Protects bank deposits (checking, savings, CDs) up to $250,000 per depositor, per institution.

Incorrect Options:

A: SIPC covers both securities and cash held at brokerage firms (within limits).

C & D: Money market mutual funds are not FDIC insured, and securities are not covered by the FDIC.

Technology stocks are considered high-risk investments due to their volatility and sensitivity to economic cycles, regulatory changes, and technological advancements. While they may offer significant growth potential, they carry greater risk than blue chip stocks, corporate bonds, or government bonds.

C is correct because technology stocks are subject to high volatility and risk.

A is incorrect because blue chip stocks are generally stable and lower-risk.

B is incorrect because corporate bonds carry moderate risk, depending on the issuer’s creditworthiness.

D is incorrect because government bonds are considered low-risk due to the backing of the issuing government.

The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) protects customers if a broker-dealer fails due to insolvency. Coverage applies to cash and securities in customer accounts, up to $500,000 total, including $250,000 for cash.

A is correct because SIPC’s purpose is to protect against losses arising from a broker-dealer’s insolvency.

B is incorrect because SIPC does not guarantee investment performance.

C is incorrect because SIPC does not cover market losses.

D is incorrect because futures contracts are not covered under SIPC.

Passive ETFs track an index and require minimal management, leading to lower expenses compared to actively managed ETFs.

D is correct because passive ETFs are cost-efficient and have lower fees.

A is incorrect because index ETFs have low turnover since they replicate an index.

B is incorrect because ETFs are priced continuously throughout the trading day.

C is incorrect as ETFs aim to match, not outperform, the index.

Step by Step Explanation:

Suspicious Activity: The use of multiple money orders, lack of investment activity, and request to wire funds to another firm raise red flags for potential money laundering.

FINRA Rules: The RR should escalate the issue by reporting internally and potentially filing a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).

Incorrect Options:

A: Denying the request without investigation may violate customer instructions.

B: Freezing the account requires a valid legal or regulatory basis.

D: Processing the request without investigation could facilitate illegal activity.

Open-end mutual funds do not trade on secondary markets. Instead, shares are continuously issued or redeemed by the fund at the net asset value (NAV), calculated at the market close.

D is correct because investors purchase and redeem shares directly through the fund or authorized brokers.

A is incorrect because mutual funds do not have a predetermined dissolution date.

B is incorrect because mutual fund shares are priced at the NAV calculated once daily after the market closes.

C is incorrect because secondary market trading applies to closed-end funds and ETFs, not open-end mutual funds.