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SPLK-5001 Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is considered Personal Data under GDPR?

Options:

A.

The birth date of an unidentified user.

B.

An individual's address including their first and last name.

C.

The name of a deceased individual.

D.

A company's registration number.

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Questions 5

The Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain® breaks an attack lifecycle into several stages. A threat actor modified the registry on a compromised Windows system to ensure that their malware would automatically run at boot time. Into which phase of the Kill Chain would this fall?

Options:

A.

Act on Objectives

B.

Exploitation

C.

Delivery

D.

Installation

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Questions 6

Which of the following data sources would be most useful to determine if a user visited a recently identified malicious website?

Options:

A.

Active Directory Logs

B.

Web Proxy Logs

C.

Intrusion Detection Logs

D.

Web Server Logs

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Questions 7

An analyst is attempting to investigate a Notable Event within Enterprise Security. Through the course of their investigation they determined that the logs and artifacts needed to investigate the alert are not available.

What event disposition should the analyst assign to the Notable Event?

Options:

A.

Benign Positive, since there was no evidence that the event actually occurred.

B.

False Negative, since there are no logs to prove the activity actually occurred.

C.

True Positive, since there are no logs to prove that the event did not occur.

D.

Other, since a security engineer needs to ingest the required logs.

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Questions 8

The Security Operations Center (SOC) manager is interested in creating a new dashboard for typosquatting after a successful campaign against a group of senior executives. Which existing ES dashboard could be used as a starting point to create a custom dashboard?

Options:

A.

IAM Activity

B.

Malware Center

C.

Access Anomalies

D.

New Domain Analysis

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Questions 9

Which Enterprise Security framework provides a mechanism for running preconfigured actions within the Splunk platform or integrating with external applications?

Options:

A.

Asset and Identity

B.

Notable Event

C.

Threat Intelligence

D.

Adaptive Response

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Questions 10

According to Splunk CIM documentation, which field in the Authentication Data Model represents the user who initiated a privilege escalation?

Options:

A.

dest_user

B.

src_user_id

C.

src_user

D.

username

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Questions 11

What is the main difference between a DDoS and a DoS attack?

Options:

A.

A DDoS attack is a type of physical attack, while a DoS attack is a type of cyberattack.

B.

A DDoS attack uses a single source to target a single system, while a DoS attack uses multiple sources to target multiple systems.

C.

A DDoS attack uses multiple sources to target a single system, while a DoS attack uses a single source to target a single or multiple systems.

D.

A DDoS attack uses a single source to target multiple systems, while a DoS attack uses multiple sources to target a single system.

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Questions 12

Which of the following is not considered a type of default metadata in Splunk?

Options:

A.

Source of data

B.

Timestamps

C.

Host name

D.

Event description

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Questions 13

Why is tstats more efficient than stats for large datasets?

Options:

A.

tstats is faster since it operates at the beginning of the search pipeline.

B.

tstats is faster since it only looks at indexed metadata, not raw data.

C.

tstats is faster due to its SQL-like syntax.

D.

tstats is faster since it searches raw logs for extracted fields.

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Questions 14

What is the term for a model of normal network activity used to detect deviations?

Options:

A.

A baseline.

B.

A cluster.

C.

A time series.

D.

A data model.

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Questions 15

As an analyst, tracking unique users is a common occurrence. The Security Operations Center (SOC) manager requested a search with results in a table format to track the cumulative downloads by distinct IP address. Which example calculates the running total of distinct users over time?

Options:

A.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by _time | streamstats dc(ipa) as "Cumulative total"

B.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by _time

C.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | table clientip _time user

D.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by user | table _time ipa

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Questions 16

Which of the following Splunk Enterprise Security features allows industry frameworks such as CIS Critical Security Controls, MITRE ATT&CK, and the Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain® to be mapped to Correlation Search results?

Options:

A.

Annotations

B.

Playbooks

C.

Comments

D.

Enrichments

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Questions 17

A successful Continuous Monitoring initiative involves the entire organization. When an analyst discovers the need for more context or additional information, perhaps from additional data sources or altered correlation rules, to what role would this request generally escalate?

Options:

A.

SOC Manager

B.

Security Analyst

C.

Security Engineer

D.

Security Architect

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Questions 18

Upon investigating a report of a web server becoming unavailable, the security analyst finds that the web server’s access log has the same log entry millions of times:

147.186.119.200 - - [28/Jul/2023:12:04:13 -0300] "GET /login/ HTTP/1.0" 200 3733

What kind of attack is occurring?

Options:

A.

Denial of Service Attack

B.

Distributed Denial of Service Attack

C.

Cross-Site Scripting Attack

D.

Database Injection Attack

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Questions 19

Which Splunk Enterprise Security dashboard displays authentication and access-related data?

Options:

A.

Audit dashboards

B.

Asset and Identity dashboards

C.

Access dashboards

D.

Endpoint dashboards

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Questions 20

Which of the following is not a component of the Splunk Security Content library (ESCU, SSE)?

Options:

A.

Dashboards

B.

Reports

C.

Correlation searches

D.

Validated architectures

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Questions 21

The field file_acl contains access controls associated with files affected by an event. In which data model would an analyst find this field?

Options:

A.

Malware

B.

Alerts

C.

Vulnerabilities

D.

Endpoint

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Questions 22

An analyst is investigating the number of failed login attempts by IP address. Which SPL command can be used to create a temporary table containing the number of failed login attempts by IP address over a specific time period?

Options:

A.

index=security_logs eventtype=failed_login | eval count as failed_attempts by src_ip | sort -failed_attempts

B.

index=security_logs eventtype=failed_login | transaction count as failed_attempts by src_ip | sort -failed_attempts

C.

index=security_logs eventtype=failed_login | stats count as failed_attempts by src_ip | sort -failed_attempts

D.

index=security_logs eventtype=failed_login | sum count as failed_attempts by src_ip | sort -failed_attempts

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Questions 23

Which metric would track improvements in analyst efficiency after dashboard customization?

Options:

A.

Mean Time to Detect

B.

Mean Time to Respond

C.

Recovery Time

D.

Dwell Time

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Questions 24

The eval SPL expression supports many types of functions. Which of these function categories is not valid with eval?

Options:

A.

JSON functions

B.

Text functions

C.

Comparison and Conditional functions

D.

Threat functions

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Questions 25

Which of the following is a reason to use Data Model Acceleration in Splunk?

Options:

A.

To rapidly compare the use of various algorithms to detect anomalies.

B.

To quickly model various responses to a particular vulnerability.

C.

To normalize the data associated with threats.

D.

To retrieve data faster than from a raw index.

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Questions 26

According to David Bianco's Pyramid of Pain, which indicator type is least effective when used in continuous monitoring?

Options:

A.

Domain names

B.

TTPs

C.

NetworM-lost artifacts

D.

Hash values

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Questions 27

A threat hunter executed a hunt based on the following hypothesis:

As an actor, I want to plant rundll32 for proxy execution of malicious code and leverage Cobalt Strike for Command and Control.

Relevant logs and artifacts such as Sysmon, netflow, IDS alerts, and EDR logs were searched, and the hunter is confident in the conclusion that Cobalt Strike is not present in the company’s environment.

Which of the following best describes the outcome of this threat hunt?

Options:

A.

The threat hunt was successful because the hypothesis was not proven.

B.

The threat hunt failed because the hypothesis was not proven.

C.

The threat hunt failed because no malicious activity was identified.

D.

The threat hunt was successful in providing strong evidence that the tactic and tool is not present in the environment.

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Questions 28

An analysis of an organization’s security posture determined that a particular asset is at risk and a new process or solution should be implemented to protect it. Typically, who would be in charge of designing the new process and selecting the required tools to implement it?

Options:

A.

SOC Manager

B.

Security Engineer

C.

Security Architect

D.

Security Analyst

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Questions 29

What is the main difference between hypothesis-driven and data-driven Threat Hunting?

Options:

A.

Data-driven hunts always require more data to search through than hypothesis-driven hunts.

B.

Data-driven hunting tries to uncover activity within an existing data set, hypothesis-driven hunting begins with a potential activity that the hunter thinks may be happening.

C.

Hypothesis-driven hunts are typically executed on newly ingested data sources, while data-driven hunts are not.

D.

Hypothesis-driven hunting tries to uncover activity within an existing data set, data-driven hunting begins with an activity that the hunter thinks may be happening.

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Exam Code: SPLK-5001
Exam Name: Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst
Last Update: Aug 14, 2025
Questions: 99

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