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SSCP Systems Security Certified Practitioner Questions and Answers

Questions 4

IT security measures should:

Options:

A.

Be complex

B.

Be tailored to meet organizational security goals.

C.

Make sure that every asset of the organization is well protected.

D.

Not be developed in a layered fashion.

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Questions 5

Which division of the Orange Book deals with discretionary protection (need-to-know)?

Options:

A.

D

B.

C

C.

B

D.

A

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Questions 6

The type of discretionary access control (DAC) that is based on an individual ' s identity is also called:

Options:

A.

Identity-based Access control

B.

Rule-based Access control

C.

Non-Discretionary Access Control

D.

Lattice-based Access control

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Questions 7

Like the Kerberos protocol, SESAME is also subject to which of the following?

Options:

A.

timeslot replay

B.

password guessing

C.

symmetric key guessing

D.

asymmetric key guessing

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Questions 8

Which of the following statements pertaining to biometrics is FALSE?

Options:

A.

User can be authenticated based on behavior.

B.

User can be authenticated based on unique physical attributes.

C.

User can be authenticated by what he knows.

D.

A biometric system ' s accuracy is determined by its crossover error rate (CER).

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Questions 9

Which of the following is NOT a technical control?

Options:

A.

Password and resource management

B.

Identification and authentication methods

C.

Monitoring for physical intrusion

D.

Intrusion Detection Systems

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Questions 10

What can be described as an imaginary line that separates the trusted components of the TCB from those elements that are NOT trusted?

Options:

A.

The security kernel

B.

The reference monitor

C.

The security perimeter

D.

The reference perimeter

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Questions 11

Which of the following elements is NOT included in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

Options:

A.

Timestamping

B.

Repository

C.

Certificate revocation

D.

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

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Questions 12

In the Bell-LaPadula model, the Star-property is also called:

Options:

A.

The simple security property

B.

The confidentiality property

C.

The confinement property

D.

The tranquility property

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Questions 13

What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

Options:

A.

False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error

B.

False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error

C.

Crossover Error Rate (CER)

D.

True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

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Questions 14

Which of the following are suitable protocols for securing VPN connections at the lower layers of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

S/MIME and SSH

B.

TLS and SSL

C.

IPsec and L2TP

D.

PKCS#10 and X.509

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Questions 15

Which of the following is NOT an administrative control?

Options:

A.

Logical access control mechanisms

B.

Screening of personnel

C.

Development of policies, standards, procedures and guidelines

D.

Change control procedures

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Questions 16

The control of communications test equipment should be clearly addressed by security policy for which of the following reasons?

Options:

A.

Test equipment is easily damaged.

B.

Test equipment can be used to browse information passing on a network.

C.

Test equipment is difficult to replace if lost or stolen.

D.

Test equipment must always be available for the maintenance personnel.

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Questions 17

Risk analysis is MOST useful when applied during which phase of the system development process?

Options:

A.

Project initiation and Planning

B.

Functional Requirements definition

C.

System Design Specification

D.

Development and Implementation

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Questions 18

What is defined as the hardware, firmware and software elements of a trusted computing base that implement the reference monitor concept?

Options:

A.

The reference monitor

B.

Protection rings

C.

A security kernel

D.

A protection domain

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Questions 19

Which of the following is NOT a common integrity goal?

Options:

A.

Prevent unauthorized users from making modifications.

B.

Maintain internal and external consistency.

C.

Prevent authorized users from making improper modifications.

D.

Prevent paths that could lead to inappropriate disclosure.

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Questions 20

Which of the following best corresponds to the type of memory addressing where the address location that is specified in the program instruction contains the address of the final desired location?

Options:

A.

Direct addressing

B.

Indirect addressing

C.

Indexed addressing

D.

Program addressing

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Questions 21

Which of the following can be defined as the process of rerunning a portion of the test scenario or test plan to ensure that changes or corrections have not introduced new errors?

Options:

A.

Unit testing

B.

Pilot testing

C.

Regression testing

D.

Parallel testing

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Questions 22

What are the three FUNDAMENTAL principles of security?

Options:

A.

Accountability, confidentiality and integrity

B.

Confidentiality, integrity and availability

C.

Integrity, availability and accountability

D.

Availability, accountability and confidentiality

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Questions 23

What mechanism does a system use to compare the security labels of a subject and an object?

Options:

A.

Validation Module.

B.

Reference Monitor.

C.

Clearance Check.

D.

Security Module.

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Questions 24

Ensuring least privilege does not require:

Options:

A.

Identifying what the user ' s job is.

B.

Ensuring that the user alone does not have sufficient rights to subvert an important process.

C.

Determining the minimum set of privileges required for a user to perform their duties.

D.

Restricting the user to required privileges and nothing more.

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Questions 25

Which of the following is NOT a proper component of Media Viability Controls?

Options:

A.

Storage

B.

Writing

C.

Handling

D.

Marking

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Questions 26

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) uses asymmetric key encryption between parties. The originator encrypts information using the intended recipient ' s " public " key in order to get confidentiality of the data being sent. The recipients use their own " private " key to decrypt the information. The " Infrastructure " of this methodology ensures that:

Options:

A.

The sender and recipient have reached a mutual agreement on the encryption key exchange that they will use.

B.

The channels through which the information flows are secure.

C.

The recipient ' s identity can be positively verified by the sender.

D.

The sender of the message is the only other person with access to the recipient ' s private key.

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Questions 27

Which of the following test makes sure the modified or new system includes appropriate access controls and does not introduce any security holes that might compromise other systems?

Options:

A.

Recovery testing

B.

Security testing

C.

Stress/volume testing

D.

Interface testing

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Questions 28

Which of the following is considered the weakest link in a security system?

Options:

A.

People

B.

Software

C.

Communications

D.

Hardware

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Questions 29

Which of the following binds a subject name to a public key value?

Options:

A.

A public-key certificate

B.

A public key infrastructure

C.

A secret key infrastructure

D.

A private key certificate

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Questions 30

Kerberos is vulnerable to replay in which of the following circumstances?

Options:

A.

When a private key is compromised within an allotted time window.

B.

When a public key is compromised within an allotted time window.

C.

When a ticket is compromised within an allotted time window.

D.

When the KSD is compromised within an allotted time window.

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements pertaining to Kerberos is false?

Options:

A.

The Key Distribution Center represents a single point of failure.

B.

Kerberos manages access permissions.

C.

Kerberos uses a database to keep a copy of all users ' public keys.

D.

Kerberos uses symmetric key cryptography.

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Questions 32

Which type of password provides maximum security because a new password is required for each new log-on?

Options:

A.

One-time or dynamic password

B.

Congnitive password

C.

Static password

D.

Passphrase

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Questions 33

Which type of control is concerned with restoring controls?

Options:

A.

Compensating controls

B.

Corrective controls

C.

Detective controls

D.

Preventive controls

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Questions 34

Physical security is accomplished through proper facility construction, fire and water protection, anti-theft mechanisms, intrusion detection systems, and security procedures that are adhered to and enforced. Which of the following is not a component that achieves this type of security?

Options:

A.

Administrative control mechanisms

B.

Integrity control mechanisms

C.

Technical control mechanisms

D.

Physical control mechanisms

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Questions 35

Which access control model achieves data integrity through well-formed transactions and separation of duties?

Options:

A.

Clark-Wilson model

B.

Biba model

C.

Non-interference model

D.

Sutherland model

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Questions 36

What is considered the most important type of error to avoid for a biometric access control system?

Options:

A.

Type I Error

B.

Type II Error

C.

Combined Error Rate

D.

Crossover Error Rate

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Questions 37

The Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS) employs which of the following?

Options:

A.

a user ID and static password for network access

B.

a user ID and dynamic password for network access

C.

a user ID and symmetric password for network access

D.

a user ID and asymmetric password for network access

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Questions 38

The high availability of multiple all-inclusive, easy-to-use hacking tools that do NOT require much technical knowledge has brought a growth in the number of which type of attackers?

Options:

A.

Black hats

B.

White hats

C.

Script kiddies

D.

Phreakers

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Questions 39

What is called the formal acceptance of the adequacy of a system ' s overall security by the management?

Options:

A.

Certification

B.

Acceptance

C.

Accreditation

D.

Evaluation

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Questions 40

As per the Orange Book, what are two types of system assurance?

Options:

A.

Operational Assurance and Architectural Assurance.

B.

Design Assurance and Implementation Assurance.

C.

Architectural Assurance and Implementation Assurance.

D.

Operational Assurance and Life-Cycle Assurance.

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Questions 41

A security evaluation report and an accreditation statement are produced in which of the following phases of the system development life cycle?

Options:

A.

project initiation and planning phase

B.

system design specification phase

C.

development & documentation phase

D.

acceptance phase

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Questions 42

In computing what is the name of a non-self-replicating type of malware program containing malicious code that appears to have some useful purpose but also contains code that has a malicious or harmful purpose imbedded in it, when executed, carries out actions that are unknown to the person installing it, typically causing loss or theft of data, and possible system harm.

Options:

A.

virus

B.

worm

C.

Trojan horse.

D.

trapdoor

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Questions 43

Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?

Options:

A.

Boot Sector

B.

Parasitic

C.

Stealth

D.

Polymorphic

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Questions 44

Which of the following encryption algorithms does not deal with discrete logarithms?

Options:

A.

El Gamal

B.

Diffie-Hellman

C.

RSA

D.

Elliptic Curve

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Questions 45

Which of the following is often the greatest challenge of distributed computing solutions?

Options:

A.

scalability

B.

security

C.

heterogeneity

D.

usability

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Questions 46

Which virus category has the capability of changing its own code, making it harder to detect by anti-virus software?

Options:

A.

Stealth viruses

B.

Polymorphic viruses

C.

Trojan horses

D.

Logic bombs

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Questions 47

What is the main characteristic of a bastion host?

Options:

A.

It is located on the internal network.

B.

It is a hardened computer implementation

C.

It is a firewall.

D.

It does packet filtering.

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Questions 48

Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that:

Options:

A.

Outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

B.

Outlines how the proper design of the logical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

C.

Outlines how the proper design of the detective control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

D.

Outlines how the proper design of the administrative control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

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Questions 49

In the CIA triad, what does the letter A stand for?

Options:

A.

Auditability

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Authentication

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Questions 50

What does the (star) property mean in the Bell-LaPadula model?

Options:

A.

No write up

B.

No read up

C.

No write down

D.

No read down

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Questions 51

Which of following is not a service provided by AAA servers (Radius, TACACS and DIAMETER)?

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Administration

C.

Accounting

D.

Authorization

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Questions 52

Which of the following access control models requires defining classification for objects?

Options:

A.

Role-based access control

B.

Discretionary access control

C.

Identity-based access control

D.

Mandatory access control

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Questions 53

Which of the following is not a preventive login control?

Options:

A.

Last login message

B.

Password aging

C.

Minimum password length

D.

Account expiration

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Questions 54

Access Control techniques do not include which of the following choices?

Options:

A.

Relevant Access Controls

B.

Discretionary Access Control

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Lattice Based Access Control

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Questions 55

A department manager has read access to the salaries of the employees in his/her department but not to the salaries of employees in other departments. A database security mechanism that enforces this policy would typically be said to provide which of the following?

Options:

A.

Content-dependent access control

B.

Context-dependent access control

C.

Least privileges access control

D.

Ownership-based access control

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Questions 56

Considerations of privacy, invasiveness, and psychological and physical comfort when using the system are important elements for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Accountability of biometrics systems

B.

Acceptability of biometrics systems

C.

Availability of biometrics systems

D.

Adaptability of biometrics systems

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Questions 57

Which of the following is NOT a type of motion detector?

Options:

A.

Photoelectric sensor

B.

Passive infrared sensors

C.

Microwave Sensor.

D.

Ultrasonic Sensor.

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Questions 58

Controls provide accountability for individuals who are accessing sensitive information. This accountability is accomplished:

Options:

A.

through access control mechanisms that require identification and authentication and through the audit function.

B.

through logical or technical controls involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

C.

through logical or technical controls but not involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

D.

through access control mechanisms that do not require identification and authentication and do not operate through the audit function.

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Questions 59

What is Kerberos?

Options:

A.

A three-headed dog from the egyptian mythology.

B.

A trusted third-party authentication protocol.

C.

A security model.

D.

A remote authentication dial in user server.

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Questions 60

Which security model is based on the military classification of data and people with clearances?

Options:

A.

Brewer-Nash model

B.

Clark-Wilson model

C.

Bell-LaPadula model

D.

Biba model

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Questions 61

Which of the following remote access authentication systems is the most robust?

Options:

A.

TACACS+

B.

RADIUS

C.

PAP

D.

TACACS

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Questions 62

In non-discretionary access control using Role Based Access Control (RBAC), a central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy. The access controls may be based on:

Options:

A.

The societies role in the organization

B.

The individual ' s role in the organization

C.

The group-dynamics as they relate to the individual ' s role in the organization

D.

The group-dynamics as they relate to the master-slave role in the organization

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Questions 63

Which of the following forms of authentication would most likely apply a digital signature algorithm to every bit of data that is sent from the claimant to the verifier?

Options:

A.

Dynamic authentication

B.

Continuous authentication

C.

Encrypted authentication

D.

Robust authentication

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Questions 64

A confidential number used as an authentication factor to verify a user ' s identity is called a:

Options:

A.

PIN

B.

User ID

C.

Password

D.

Challenge

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Questions 65

Which of the following is a trusted, third party authentication protocol that was developed under Project Athena at MIT?

Options:

A.

Kerberos

B.

SESAME

C.

KryptoKnight

D.

NetSP

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Questions 66

An attack initiated by an entity that is authorized to access system resources but uses them in a way not approved by those who granted the authorization is known as a(n):

Options:

A.

active attack

B.

outside attack

C.

inside attack

D.

passive attack

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Questions 67

For maximum security design, what type of fence is most effective and cost-effective method (Foot are being used as measurement unit below)?

Options:

A.

3 ' to 4 ' high

B.

6 ' to 7 ' high

C.

8 ' high and above with strands of barbed wire

D.

Double fencing

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Questions 68

Which of the following is most affected by denial-of-service (DOS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Integrity

C.

Accountability

D.

Availability

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Questions 69

Which of the following is most appropriate to notify an internal user that session monitoring is being conducted?

Options:

A.

Logon Banners

B.

Wall poster

C.

Employee Handbook

D.

Written agreement

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Questions 70

Which access control type has a central authority that determine to what objects the subjects have access to and it is based on role or on the organizational security policy?

Options:

A.

Mandatory Access Control

B.

Discretionary Access Control

C.

Non-Discretionary Access Control

D.

Rule-based Access control

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Questions 71

Which of the following statements relating to the Bell-LaPadula security model is FALSE (assuming the Strong Star property is not being used) ?

Options:

A.

A subject is not allowed to read up.

B.

The property restriction can be escaped by temporarily downgrading a high level subject.

C.

A subject is not allowed to read down.

D.

It is restricted to confidentiality.

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Questions 72

Which of the following statements pertaining to quantitative risk analysis is false?

Options:

A.

Portion of it can be automated

B.

It involves complex calculations

C.

It requires a high volume of information

D.

It requires little experience to apply

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Questions 73

Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is not defined as a preparation that facilitates:

Options:

A.

the rapid recovery of mission-critical business operations

B.

the continuation of critical business functions

C.

the monitoring of threat activity for adjustment of technical controls

D.

the reduction of the impact of a disaster

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Questions 74

Which of the following is an example of an active attack?

Options:

A.

Traffic analysis

B.

Scanning

C.

Eavesdropping

D.

Wiretapping

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Questions 75

When preparing a business continuity plan, who of the following is responsible for identifying and prioritizing time-critical systems?

Options:

A.

Executive management staff

B.

Senior business unit management

C.

BCP committee

D.

Functional business units

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Questions 76

Which of the following choice is NOT normally part of the questions that would be asked in regards to an organization ' s information security policy?

Options:

A.

Who is involved in establishing the security policy?

B.

Where is the organization ' s security policy defined?

C.

What are the actions that need to be performed in case of a disaster?

D.

Who is responsible for monitoring compliance to the organization ' s security policy?

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Questions 77

What best describes a scenario when an employee has been shaving off pennies from multiple accounts and depositing the funds into his own bank account?

Options:

A.

Data fiddling

B.

Data diddling

C.

Salami techniques

D.

Trojan horses

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Questions 78

What security problem is most likely to exist if an operating system permits objects to be used sequentially by multiple users without forcing a refresh of the objects?

Options:

A.

Disclosure of residual data.

B.

Unauthorized obtaining of a privileged execution state.

C.

Denial of service through a deadly embrace.

D.

Data leakage through covert channels.

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Questions 79

Which of the following security modes of operation involves the highest risk?

Options:

A.

Compartmented Security Mode

B.

Multilevel Security Mode

C.

System-High Security Mode

D.

Dedicated Security Mode

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Questions 80

Which of the following is an unintended communication path that is NOT protected by the system ' s normal security mechanisms?

Options:

A.

A trusted path

B.

A protection domain

C.

A covert channel

D.

A maintenance hook

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Questions 81

Which of the following is not appropriate in addressing object reuse?

Options:

A.

Degaussing magnetic tapes when they ' re no longer needed.

B.

Deleting files on disk before reusing the space.

C.

Clearing memory blocks before they are allocated to a program or data.

D.

Clearing buffered pages, documents, or screens from the local memory of a terminal or printer.

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Questions 82

What do the ILOVEYOU and Melissa virus attacks have in common?

Options:

A.

They are both denial-of-service (DOS) attacks.

B.

They have nothing in common.

C.

They are both masquerading attacks.

D.

They are both social engineering attacks.

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Questions 83

What is malware that can spread itself over open network connections?

Options:

A.

Worm

B.

Rootkit

C.

Adware

D.

Logic Bomb

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Questions 84

Which of the following is commonly used for retrofitting multilevel security to a database management system?

Options:

A.

trusted front-end.

B.

trusted back-end.

C.

controller.

D.

kernel.

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Questions 85

Which of the following was designed to support multiple network types over the same serial link?

Options:

A.

Ethernet

B.

SLIP

C.

PPP

D.

PPTP

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Questions 86

Crackers today are MOST often motivated by their desire to:

Options:

A.

Help the community in securing their networks.

B.

Seeing how far their skills will take them.

C.

Getting recognition for their actions.

D.

Gaining Money or Financial Gains.

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Questions 87

Which of the following computer design approaches is based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle?

Options:

A.

Pipelining

B.

Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC)

C.

Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC)

D.

Scalar processors

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Questions 88

Preservation of confidentiality within information systems requires that the information is not disclosed to:

Options:

A.

Authorized person

B.

Unauthorized persons or processes.

C.

Unauthorized persons.

D.

Authorized persons and processes

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Questions 89

Who should DECIDE how a company should approach security and what security measures should be implemented?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Data owner

C.

Auditor

D.

The information security specialist

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Questions 90

What can best be defined as high-level statements, beliefs, goals and objectives?

Options:

A.

Standards

B.

Policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Procedures

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Questions 91

Several analysis methods can be employed by an IDS, each with its own strengths and weaknesses, and their applicability to any given situation should be carefully considered. There are two basic IDS analysis methods that exists. Which of the basic method is more prone to false positive?

Options:

A.

Pattern Matching (also called signature analysis)

B.

Anomaly Detection

C.

Host-based intrusion detection

D.

Network-based intrusion detection

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Questions 92

Which of the following is an issue with signature-based intrusion detection systems?

Options:

A.

Only previously identified attack signatures are detected.

B.

Signature databases must be augmented with inferential elements.

C.

It runs only on the windows operating system

D.

Hackers can circumvent signature evaluations.

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Questions 93

Attributable data should be:

Options:

A.

always traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

B.

sometimes traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

C.

never traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

D.

often traced to individuals responsible for observing and recording the data

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Questions 94

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental component of an alarm in an intrusion detection system?

Options:

A.

Communications

B.

Enunciator

C.

Sensor

D.

Response

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Questions 95

A host-based IDS is resident on which of the following?

Options:

A.

On each of the critical hosts

B.

decentralized hosts

C.

central hosts

D.

bastion hosts

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Questions 96

Which of the following best describes signature-based detection?

Options:

A.

Compare source code, looking for events or sets of events that could cause damage to a system or network.

B.

Compare system activity for the behaviour patterns of new attacks.

C.

Compare system activity, looking for events or sets of events that match a predefined pattern of events that describe a known attack.

D.

Compare network nodes looking for objects or sets of objects that match a predefined pattern of objects that may describe a known attack.

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Questions 97

Which of the following monitors network traffic in real time?

Options:

A.

network-based IDS

B.

host-based IDS

C.

application-based IDS

D.

firewall-based IDS

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Questions 98

Which of the following tools is less likely to be used by a hacker?

Options:

A.

l0phtcrack

B.

Tripwire

C.

OphCrack

D.

John the Ripper

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Questions 99

Which of the following computer crime is MORE often associated with INSIDERS?

Options:

A.

IP spoofing

B.

Password sniffing

C.

Data diddling

D.

Denial of service (DOS)

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Questions 100

Java is not:

Options:

A.

Object-oriented.

B.

Distributed.

C.

Architecture Specific.

D.

Multithreaded.

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Questions 101

Which of the following technologies is a target of XSS or CSS (Cross-Site Scripting) attacks?

Options:

A.

Web Applications

B.

Intrusion Detection Systems

C.

Firewalls

D.

DNS Servers

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Questions 102

Which of the following is not a component of a Operations Security " triples " ?

Options:

A.

Asset

B.

Threat

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Risk

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Questions 103

The Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) was written to address which of the following that the Orange Book did not address?

Options:

A.

integrity and confidentiality.

B.

confidentiality and availability.

C.

integrity and availability.

D.

none of the above.

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Questions 104

Who of the following is responsible for ensuring that proper controls are in place to address integrity, confidentiality, and availability of IT systems and data?

Options:

A.

Business and functional managers

B.

IT Security practitioners

C.

System and information owners

D.

Chief information officer

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Questions 105

In what way could Java applets pose a security threat?

Options:

A.

Their transport can interrupt the secure distribution of World Wide Web pages over the Internet by removing SSL and S-HTTP

B.

Java interpreters do not provide the ability to limit system access that an applet could have on a client system.

C.

Executables from the Internet may attempt an intentional attack when they are downloaded on a client system.

D.

Java does not check the bytecode at runtime or provide other safety mechanisms for program isolation from the client system.

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Questions 106

Virus scanning and content inspection of SMIME encrypted e-mail without doing any further processing is:

Options:

A.

Not possible

B.

Only possible with key recovery scheme of all user keys

C.

It is possible only if X509 Version 3 certificates are used

D.

It is possible only by " brute force " decryption

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Questions 107

Which of the following steps should be one of the first step performed in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Identify all CRITICAL business units within the organization.

B.

Evaluate the impact of disruptive events.

C.

Estimate the Recovery Time Objectives (RTO).

D.

Identify and Prioritize Critical Organization Functions

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Questions 108

If your property Insurance has Replacement Cost Valuation (RCV) clause your damaged property will be compensated:

Options:

A.

Based on the value of item on the date of loss

B.

Based on new, comparable, or identical item for old regardless of condition of lost item

C.

Based on value of item one month before the loss

D.

Based on the value listed on the Ebay auction web site

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Questions 109

Which of the following best defines a Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT)?

Options:

A.

An organization that provides a secure channel for receiving reports about suspected security incidents.

B.

An organization that ensures that security incidents are reported to the authorities.

C.

An organization that coordinates and supports the response to security incidents.

D.

An organization that disseminates incident-related information to its constituency and other involved parties.

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Questions 110

Due care is not related to:

Options:

A.

Good faith

B.

Prudent man

C.

Profit

D.

Best interest

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Questions 111

Why would anomaly detection IDSs often generate a large number of false positives?

Options:

A.

Because they can only identify correctly attacks they already know about.

B.

Because they are application-based are more subject to attacks.

C.

Because they can ' t identify abnormal behavior.

D.

Because normal patterns of user and system behavior can vary wildly.

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Questions 112

Which of the following would assist the most in Host Based intrusion detection?

Options:

A.

audit trails.

B.

access control lists.

C.

security clearances

D.

host-based authentication

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Questions 113

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection system?

Options:

A.

it may truly detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

B.

it may falsely detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

C.

it may correctly detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

D.

it may loosely detect a non-attack event that had caused a momentary anomaly in the system.

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Questions 114

What is the appropriate role of the security analyst in the application system development or acquisition project?

Options:

A.

policeman

B.

control evaluator & consultant

C.

data owner

D.

application user

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Questions 115

Who is responsible for initiating corrective measures and capabilities used when there are security violations?

Options:

A.

Information systems auditor

B.

Security administrator

C.

Management

D.

Data owners

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Questions 116

At what stage of the applications development process should the security department become involved?

Options:

A.

Prior to the implementation

B.

Prior to systems testing

C.

During unit testing

D.

During requirements development

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Questions 117

Which of the following choices describe a condition when RAM and Secondary storage are used together?

Options:

A.

Primary storage

B.

Secondary storage

C.

Virtual storage

D.

Real storage

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Questions 118

An Architecture where there are more than two execution domains or privilege levels is called:

Options:

A.

Ring Architecture.

B.

Ring Layering

C.

Network Environment.

D.

Security Models

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Questions 119

Which property ensures that only the intended recipient can access the data and nobody else?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Capability

C.

Integrity

D.

Availability

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Questions 120

Which of the following refers to the data left on the media after the media has been erased?

Options:

A.

remanence

B.

recovery

C.

sticky bits

D.

semi-hidden

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Questions 121

Which of the following statements pertaining to VPN protocol standards is false?

Options:

A.

L2TP is a combination of PPTP and L2F.

B.

L2TP and PPTP were designed for single point-to-point client to server communication.

C.

L2TP operates at the network layer.

D.

PPTP uses native PPP authentication and encryption services.

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Questions 122

What is an IP routing table?

Options:

A.

A list of IP addresses and corresponding MAC addresses.

B.

A list of station and network addresses with corresponding gateway IP address.

C.

A list of host names and corresponding IP addresses.

D.

A list of current network interfaces on which IP routing is enabled.

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Questions 123

What is the proper term to refer to a single unit of Ethernet data at the link layer of the DoD TCP model ?

Options:

A.

Ethernet Segment.

B.

Ethernet Datagram.

C.

Ethernet Frame.

D.

Ethernet Packet.

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Questions 124

What protocol is used on the Local Area Network (LAN) to obtain an IP address from it ' s known MAC address?

Options:

A.

Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)

B.

Address resolution protocol (ARP)

C.

Data link layer

D.

Network address translation (NAT)

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Questions 125

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is very heavily used for protecting which of the following?

Options:

A.

Web transactions.

B.

EDI transactions.

C.

Telnet transactions.

D.

Electronic Payment transactions.

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Questions 126

Which of the following is an IP address that is private (i.e. reserved for internal networks, and not a valid address to use on the Internet)?

Options:

A.

192.168.42.5

B.

192.166.42.5

C.

192.175.42.5

D.

192.1.42.5

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Questions 127

Which layer of the OSI/ISO model handles physical addressing, network topology, line discipline, error notification, orderly delivery of frames, and optional flow control?

Options:

A.

Physical

B.

Data link

C.

Network

D.

Session

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Questions 128

Which cable technology refers to the CAT3 and CAT5 categories?

Options:

A.

Coaxial cables

B.

Fiber Optic cables

C.

Axial cables

D.

Twisted Pair cables

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Questions 129

Secure Shell (SSH-2) provides all the following services except:

Options:

A.

secure remote login

B.

command execution

C.

port forwarding

D.

user authentication

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Questions 130

Which of the following was developed as a simple mechanism for allowing simple network terminals to load their operating system from a server over the LAN?

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

BootP

C.

DNS

D.

ARP

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Questions 131

Which of the following protocols is not implemented at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol model?

Options:

A.

User datagram protocol (UDP)

B.

Internet protocol (IP)

C.

Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

D.

Internet control message protocol (ICMP)

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Questions 132

A circuit level proxy is ___________________ when compared to an application level proxy.

Options:

A.

lower in processing overhead.

B.

more difficult to maintain.

C.

more secure.

D.

slower.

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Questions 133

When an outgoing request is made on a port number greater than 1023, this type of firewall creates an ACL to allow the incoming reply on that port to pass:

Options:

A.

packet filtering

B.

CIrcuit level proxy

C.

Dynamic packet filtering

D.

Application level proxy

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Questions 134

How do you distinguish between a bridge and a router?

Options:

A.

A bridge simply connects multiple networks, a router examines each packet to determine which network to forward it to.

B.

" Bridge " and " router " are synonyms for equipment used to join two networks.

C.

The bridge is a specific type of router used to connect a LAN to the global Internet.

D.

The bridge connects multiple networks at the data link layer, while router connects multiple networks at the network layer.

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Questions 135

Which of the following devices enables more than one signal to be sent out simultaneously over one physical circuit?

Options:

A.

Router

B.

Multiplexer

C.

Channel service unit/Data service unit (CSU/DSU)

D.

Wan switch

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Questions 136

While using IPsec, the ESP and AH protocols both provides integrity services. However when using AH, some special attention needs to be paid if one of the peers uses NAT for address translation service. Which of the items below would affects the use of AH and it´s Integrity Check Value (ICV) the most?

Options:

A.

Key session exchange

B.

Packet Header Source or Destination address

C.

VPN cryptographic key size

D.

Crypotographic algorithm used

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Questions 137

Which of the following ports does NOT normally need to be open for a mail server to operate?

Options:

A.

Port 110

B.

Port 25

C.

Port 119

D.

Port 143

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Questions 138

The Diffie-Hellman algorithm is used for:

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Digital signature

C.

Key agreement

D.

Non-repudiation

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Questions 139

Which of the following protects Kerberos against replay attacks?

Options:

A.

Tokens

B.

Passwords

C.

Cryptography

D.

Time stamps

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Questions 140

Which of the following keys has the SHORTEST lifespan?

Options:

A.

Secret key

B.

Public key

C.

Session key

D.

Private key

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Questions 141

What is used to bind a document to its creation at a particular time?

Options:

A.

Network Time Protocol (NTP)

B.

Digital Signature

C.

Digital Timestamp

D.

Certification Authority (CA)

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Questions 142

Which of the following is defined as an Internet, IPsec, key-establishment protocol, partly based on OAKLEY, that is intended for putting in place authenticated keying material for use with ISAKMP and for other security associations?

Options:

A.

Internet Key exchange (IKE)

B.

Security Association Authentication Protocol (SAAP)

C.

Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)

D.

Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA)

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Questions 143

PGP uses which of the following to encrypt data?

Options:

A.

An asymmetric encryption algorithm

B.

A symmetric encryption algorithm

C.

A symmetric key distribution system

D.

An X.509 digital certificate

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Questions 144

Which of the following is not a DES mode of operation?

Options:

A.

Cipher block chaining

B.

Electronic code book

C.

Input feedback

D.

Cipher feedback

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Questions 145

Cryptography does not concern itself with which of the following choices?

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Integrity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Validation

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Questions 146

Memory management in TCSEC levels B3 and A1 operating systems may utilize " data hiding " . What does this mean?

Options:

A.

System functions are layered, and none of the functions in a given layer can access data outside that layer.

B.

Auditing processes and their memory addresses cannot be accessed by user processes.

C.

Only security processes are allowed to write to ring zero memory.

D.

It is a form of strong encryption cipher.

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Questions 147

Related to information security, confidentiality is the opposite of which of the following?

Options:

A.

closure

B.

disclosure

C.

disposal

D.

disaster

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Questions 148

If an operating system permits shared resources such as memory to be used sequentially by multiple users/application or subjects without a refresh of the objects/memory area, what security problem is MOST likely to exist?

Options:

A.

Disclosure of residual data.

B.

Unauthorized obtaining of a privileged execution state.

C.

Data leakage through covert channels.

D.

Denial of service through a deadly embrace.

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Questions 149

Which expert system operating mode allows determining if a given hypothesis is valid?

Options:

A.

Blackboard

B.

Lateral chaining

C.

Forward chaining

D.

Backward chaining

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Questions 150

What is the name for a substitution cipher that shifts the alphabet by 13 places?

Options:

A.

Caesar cipher

B.

Polyalphabetic cipher

C.

ROT13 cipher

D.

Transposition cipher

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Questions 151

How many bits is the effective length of the key of the Data Encryption Standard algorithm?

Options:

A.

168

B.

128

C.

56

D.

64

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Questions 152

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of symmetric cryptography when compared with Asymmetric Ciphers?

Options:

A.

Provides Limited security services

B.

Has no built in Key distribution

C.

Speed

D.

Large number of keys are needed

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Questions 153

Which of the following is more suitable for a hardware implementation?

Options:

A.

Stream ciphers

B.

Block ciphers

C.

Cipher block chaining

D.

Electronic code book

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Questions 154

Which type of encryption is considered to be unbreakable if the stream is truly random and is as large as the plaintext and never reused in whole or part?

Options:

A.

One Time Pad (OTP)

B.

One time Cryptopad (OTC)

C.

Cryptanalysis

D.

Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

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Questions 155

What is NOT true with pre shared key authentication within IKE / IPsec protocol?

Options:

A.

Pre shared key authentication is normally based on simple passwords

B.

Needs a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to work

C.

IKE is used to setup Security Associations

D.

IKE builds upon the Oakley protocol and the ISAKMP protocol.

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Questions 156

The Data Encryption Algorithm performs how many rounds of substitution and permutation?

Options:

A.

4

B.

16

C.

54

D.

64

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Questions 157

In which phase of Internet Key Exchange (IKE) protocol is peer authentication performed?

Options:

A.

Pre Initialization Phase

B.

Phase 1

C.

Phase 2

D.

No peer authentication is performed

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Questions 158

Which of the following is not a property of the Rijndael block cipher algorithm?

Options:

A.

It employs a round transformation that is comprised of three layers of distinct and invertible transformations.

B.

It is suited for high speed chips with no area restrictions.

C.

It operates on 64-bit plaintext blocks and uses a 128 bit key.

D.

It could be used on a smart card.

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Questions 159

The primary purpose for using one-way hashing of user passwords within a password file is which of the following?

Options:

A.

It prevents an unauthorized person from trying multiple passwords in one logon attempt.

B.

It prevents an unauthorized person from reading the password.

C.

It minimizes the amount of storage required for user passwords.

D.

It minimizes the amount of processing time used for encrypting passwords.

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Questions 160

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses a Message Authentication Code (MAC) for what purpose?

Options:

A.

message non-repudiation.

B.

message confidentiality.

C.

message interleave checking.

D.

message integrity.

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Questions 161

What can be defined as an instance of two different keys generating the same ciphertext from the same plaintext?

Options:

A.

Key collision

B.

Key clustering

C.

Hashing

D.

Ciphertext collision

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Questions 162

Which of the following offers confidentiality to an e-mail message?

Options:

A.

The sender encrypting it with its private key.

B.

The sender encrypting it with its public key.

C.

The sender encrypting it with the receiver ' s public key.

D.

The sender encrypting it with the receiver ' s private key.

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Questions 163

Complete the blanks. When using PKI, I digitally sign a message using my ______ key. The recipient verifies my signature using my ______ key.

Options:

A.

Private / Public

B.

Public / Private

C.

Symmetric / Asymmetric

D.

Private / Symmetric

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Questions 164

Which protocol makes USE of an electronic wallet on a customer ' s PC and sends encrypted credit card information to merchant ' s Web server, which digitally signs it and sends it on to its processing bank?

Options:

A.

SSH ( Secure Shell)

B.

S/MIME (Secure MIME)

C.

SET (Secure Electronic Transaction)

D.

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)

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Questions 165

What algorithm was DES derived from?

Options:

A.

Twofish.

B.

Skipjack.

C.

Brooks-Aldeman.

D.

Lucifer.

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Questions 166

Which of the following is NOT an asymmetric key algorithm?

Options:

A.

RSA

B.

Elliptic Curve Cryptosystem (ECC)

C.

El Gamal

D.

Data Encryption System (DES)

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Questions 167

Which of the following type of cryptography is used when both parties use the same key to communicate securely with each other?

Options:

A.

Symmetric Key Cryptography

B.

PKI - Public Key Infrastructure

C.

Diffie-Hellman

D.

DSS - Digital Signature Standard

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Questions 168

Which is NOT a suitable method for distributing certificate revocation information?

Options:

A.

CA revocation mailing list

B.

Delta CRL

C.

OCSP (online certificate status protocol)

D.

Distribution point CRL

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Questions 169

What can be defined as a data structure that enumerates digital certificates that were issued to CAs but have been invalidated by their issuer prior to when they were scheduled to expire?

Options:

A.

Certificate revocation list

B.

Certificate revocation tree

C.

Authority revocation list

D.

Untrusted certificate list

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Questions 170

Attributes that characterize an attack are stored for reference using which of the following Intrusion Detection System (IDS) ?

Options:

A.

signature-based IDS

B.

statistical anomaly-based IDS

C.

event-based IDS

D.

inferent-based IDS

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Questions 171

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason to use external penetration service firms rather than corporate resources?

Options:

A.

They are more cost-effective

B.

They offer a lack of corporate bias

C.

They use highly talented ex-hackers

D.

They ensure a more complete reporting

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Questions 172

In order to enable users to perform tasks and duties without having to go through extra steps it is important that the security controls and mechanisms that are in place have a degree of?

Options:

A.

Complexity

B.

Non-transparency

C.

Transparency

D.

Simplicity

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Questions 173

What ensures that the control mechanisms correctly implement the security policy for the entire life cycle of an information system?

Options:

A.

Accountability controls

B.

Mandatory access controls

C.

Assurance procedures

D.

Administrative controls

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Questions 174

Which of the following is not a preventive operational control?

Options:

A.

Protecting laptops, personal computers and workstations.

B.

Controlling software viruses.

C.

Controlling data media access and disposal.

D.

Conducting security awareness and technical training.

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Questions 175

What is the essential difference between a self-audit and an independent audit?

Options:

A.

Tools used

B.

Results

C.

Objectivity

D.

Competence

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Questions 176

Which of the following is used to monitor network traffic or to monitor host audit logs in real time to determine violations of system security policy that have taken place?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System

B.

Compliance Validation System

C.

Intrusion Management System (IMS)

D.

Compliance Monitoring System

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Questions 177

If an organization were to monitor their employees ' e-mail, it should not:

Options:

A.

Monitor only a limited number of employees.

B.

Inform all employees that e-mail is being monitored.

C.

Explain who can read the e-mail and how long it is backed up.

D.

Explain what is considered an acceptable use of the e-mail system.

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Questions 178

Which of the following questions are least likely to help in assessing controls covering audit trails?

Options:

A.

Does the audit trail provide a trace of user actions?

B.

Are incidents monitored and tracked until resolved?

C.

Is access to online logs strictly controlled?

D.

Is there separation of duties between security personnel who administer the access control function and those who administer the audit trail?

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Questions 179

Who is responsible for providing reports to the senior management on the effectiveness of the security controls?

Options:

A.

Information systems security professionals

B.

Data owners

C.

Data custodians

D.

Information systems auditors

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Questions 180

What setup should an administrator use for regularly testing the strength of user passwords?

Options:

A.

A networked workstation so that the live password database can easily be accessed by the cracking program.

B.

A networked workstation so the password database can easily be copied locally and processed by the cracking program.

C.

A standalone workstation on which the password database is copied and processed by the cracking program.

D.

A password-cracking program is unethical; therefore it should not be used.

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Questions 181

A timely review of system access audit records would be an example of which of the basic security functions?

Options:

A.

avoidance

B.

deterrence

C.

prevention

D.

detection

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Questions 182

Knowledge-based Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are more common than:

Options:

A.

Network-based IDS

B.

Host-based IDS

C.

Behavior-based IDS

D.

Application-Based IDS

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Questions 183

What would be considered the biggest drawback of Host-based Intrusion Detection systems (HIDS)?

Options:

A.

It can be very invasive to the host operating system

B.

Monitors all processes and activities on the host system only

C.

Virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption

D.

They have an increased level of visibility and control compared to NIDS

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Questions 184

Which of the following is most likely to be useful in detecting intrusions?

Options:

A.

Access control lists

B.

Security labels

C.

Audit trails

D.

Information security policies

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Questions 185

Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems uses behavioral characteristics of a system’s operation or network traffic to draw conclusions on whether the traffic represents a risk to the network or host?

Options:

A.

Network-based ID systems.

B.

Anomaly Detection.

C.

Host-based ID systems.

D.

Signature Analysis.

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Questions 186

What IDS approach relies on a database of known attacks?

Options:

A.

Signature-based intrusion detection

B.

Statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection

C.

Behavior-based intrusion detection

D.

Network-based intrusion detection

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Questions 187

The session layer provides a logical persistent connection between peer hosts. Which of the following is one of the modes used in the session layer to establish this connection?

Options:

A.

Full duplex

B.

Synchronous

C.

Asynchronous

D.

Half simplex

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Questions 188

Which of the following is required in order to provide accountability?

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Integrity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Audit trails

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Questions 189

Which of the following are additional terms used to describe knowledge-based IDS and behavior-based IDS?

Options:

A.

signature-based IDS and statistical anomaly-based IDS, respectively

B.

signature-based IDS and dynamic anomaly-based IDS, respectively

C.

anomaly-based IDS and statistical-based IDS, respectively

D.

signature-based IDS and motion anomaly-based IDS, respectively.

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Questions 190

As a result of a risk assessment, your security manager has determined that your organization needs to implement an intrusion detection system that can detect unknown attacks and can watch for unusual traffic behavior, such as a new service appearing on the network. What type of intrusion detection system would you select?

Options:

A.

Protocol anomaly based

B.

Pattern matching

C.

Stateful matching

D.

Traffic anomaly-based

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Questions 191

In an online transaction processing system (OLTP), which of the following actions should be taken when erroneous or invalid transactions are detected?

Options:

A.

The transactions should be dropped from processing.

B.

The transactions should be processed after the program makes adjustments.

C.

The transactions should be written to a report and reviewed.

D.

The transactions should be corrected and reprocessed.

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Questions 192

The fact that a network-based IDS reviews packets payload and headers enable which of the following?

Options:

A.

Detection of denial of service

B.

Detection of all viruses

C.

Detection of data corruption

D.

Detection of all password guessing attacks

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Questions 193

Which conceptual approach to intrusion detection system is the most common?

Options:

A.

Behavior-based intrusion detection

B.

Knowledge-based intrusion detection

C.

Statistical anomaly-based intrusion detection

D.

Host-based intrusion detection

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Questions 194

The viewing of recorded events after the fact using a closed-circuit TV camera is considered a

Options:

A.

Preventative control.

B.

Detective control

C.

Compensating control

D.

Corrective control

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Questions 195

Which one of the following statements about the advantages and disadvantages of network-based Intrusion detection systems is true

Options:

A.

Network-based IDSs are not vulnerable to attacks.

B.

Network-based IDSs are well suited for modern switch-based networks.

C.

Most network-based IDSs can automatically indicate whether or not an attack was successful.

D.

The deployment of network-based IDSs has little impact upon an existing network.

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Questions 196

How often should a Business Continuity Plan be reviewed?

Options:

A.

At least once a month

B.

At least every six months

C.

At least once a year

D.

At least Quarterly

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Questions 197

Controls provide accountability for individuals who are accessing sensitive information. This accountability is accomplished:

Options:

A.

through access control mechanisms that require identification and authentication and through the audit function.

B.

through logical or technical controls involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

C.

through logical or technical controls but not involving the restriction of access to systems and the protection of information.

D.

through access control mechanisms that do not require identification and authentication and do not operate through the audit function.

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Questions 198

Which of the following usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources?

Options:

A.

network-based IDS

B.

host-based IDS

C.

application-based IDS

D.

firewall-based IDS

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Questions 199

What is the primary goal of setting up a honeypot?

Options:

A.

To lure hackers into attacking unused systems

B.

To entrap and track down possible hackers

C.

To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network

D.

To know when certain types of attacks are in progress and to learn about attack techniques so the network can be fortified.

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Questions 200

In what way can violation clipping levels assist in violation tracking and analysis?

Options:

A.

Clipping levels set a baseline for acceptable normal user errors, and violations exceeding that threshold will be recorded for analysis of why the violations occurred.

B.

Clipping levels enable a security administrator to customize the audit trail to record only those violations which are deemed to be security relevant.

C.

Clipping levels enable the security administrator to customize the audit trail to record only actions for users with access to user accounts with a privileged status.

D.

Clipping levels enable a security administrator to view all reductions in security levels which have been made to user accounts which have incurred violations.

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Questions 201

Which of the following is needed for System Accountability?

Options:

A.

Audit mechanisms.

B.

Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria.

C.

Authorization.

D.

Formal verification of system design.

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Questions 202

Who can best decide what are the adequate technical security controls in a computer-based application system in regards to the protection of the data being used, the criticality of the data, and it ' s sensitivity level ?

Options:

A.

System Auditor

B.

Data or Information Owner

C.

System Manager

D.

Data or Information user

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Questions 203

Network-based Intrusion Detection systems:

Options:

A.

Commonly reside on a discrete network segment and monitor the traffic on that network segment.

B.

Commonly will not reside on a discrete network segment and monitor the traffic on that network segment.

C.

Commonly reside on a discrete network segment and does not monitor the traffic on that network segment.

D.

Commonly reside on a host and and monitor the traffic on that specific host.

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Questions 204

Who should direct short-term recovery actions immediately following a disaster?

Options:

A.

Chief Information Officer.

B.

Chief Operating Officer.

C.

Disaster Recovery Manager.

D.

Chief Executive Officer.

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Questions 205

Prior to a live disaster test also called a Full Interruption test, which of the following is most important?

Options:

A.

Restore all files in preparation for the test.

B.

Document expected findings.

C.

Arrange physical security for the test site.

D.

Conduct of a successful Parallel Test

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Questions 206

Which of the following specifically addresses cyber attacks against an organization ' s IT systems?

Options:

A.

Continuity of support plan

B.

Business continuity plan

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Continuity of operations plan

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Questions 207

What is called the probability that a threat to an information system will materialize?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Hole

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Questions 208

Which of the following should be emphasized during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) considering that the BIA focus is on business processes?

Options:

A.

Composition

B.

Priorities

C.

Dependencies

D.

Service levels

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Questions 209

Which of the following would best describe secondary evidence?

Options:

A.

Oral testimony by a non-expert witness

B.

Oral testimony by an expert witness

C.

A copy of a piece of evidence

D.

Evidence that proves a specific act

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Questions 210

Which of the following is NOT a task normally performed by a Computer Incident Response Team (CIRT)?

Options:

A.

Develop an information security policy.

B.

Coordinate the distribution of information pertaining to the incident to the appropriate parties.

C.

Mitigate risk to the enterprise.

D.

Assemble teams to investigate the potential vulnerabilities.

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Questions 211

Which of the following would be MOST important to guarantee that the computer evidence will be admissible in court?

Options:

A.

It must prove a fact that is immaterial to the case.

B.

Its reliability must be proven.

C.

The process for producing it must be documented and repeatable.

D.

The chain of custody of the evidence must show who collected, secured, controlled, handled, transported the evidence, and that it was not tampered with.

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Questions 212

The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 51, what type of data is contained within the ip datagram?

Options:

A.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B.

Authentication Header (AH)

C.

User datagram protocol (UDP)

D.

Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

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Questions 213

What is the highest amount a company should spend annually on countermeasures for protecting an asset valued at $1,000,000 from a threat that has an annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) of once every five years and an exposure factor (EF) of 30%?

Options:

A.

$300,000

B.

$150,000

C.

$60,000

D.

$1,500

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Questions 214

What assesses potential loss that could be caused by a disaster?

Options:

A.

The Business Assessment (BA)

B.

The Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

C.

The Risk Assessment (RA)

D.

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

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Questions 215

Which of the following teams should NOT be included in an organization ' s contingency plan?

Options:

A.

Damage assessment team

B.

Hardware salvage team

C.

Tiger team

D.

Legal affairs team

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Questions 216

Physically securing backup tapes from unauthorized access is obviously a security concern and is considered a function of the:

Options:

A.

Operations Security Domain.

B.

Operations Security Domain Analysis.

C.

Telecommunications and Network Security Domain.

D.

Business Continuity Planning and Disater Recovery Planning.

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Questions 217

Which of the following will a Business Impact Analysis NOT identify?

Options:

A.

Areas that would suffer the greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster.

B.

Systems critical to the survival of the enterprise.

C.

The names of individuals to be contacted during a disaster.

D.

The outage time that can be tolerated by the enterprise as a result of a disaster.

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Questions 218

What can be defined as a momentary low voltage?

Options:

A.

Spike

B.

Sag

C.

Fault

D.

Brownout

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Questions 219

A prolonged complete loss of electric power is a:

Options:

A.

brownout

B.

blackout

C.

surge

D.

fault

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Questions 220

Recovery Site Strategies for the technology environment depend on how much downtime an organization can tolerate before the recovery must be completed. What would you call a strategy where the alternate site is internal, standby ready, with all the technology and equipment necessary to run the applications?

Options:

A.

External Hot site

B.

Warm Site

C.

Internal Hot Site

D.

Dual Data Center

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Questions 221

Which of the following is NOT a correct notation for an IPv6 address?

Options:

A.

2001:0db8:0:0:0:0:1428:57ab

B.

ABCD:EF01:2345:6789:ABCD:EF01:2345:6789

C.

::1

D.

2001:DB8::8:800::417A

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Questions 222

The typical computer fraudsters are usually persons with which of the following characteristics?

Options:

A.

They have had previous contact with law enforcement

B.

They conspire with others

C.

They hold a position of trust

D.

They deviate from the accepted norms of society

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Questions 223

What would BEST define risk management?

Options:

A.

The process of eliminating the risk

B.

The process of assessing the risks

C.

The process of reducing risk to an acceptable level

D.

The process of transferring risk

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Questions 224

A business continuity plan should list and prioritize the services that need to be brought back after a disaster strikes. Which of the following services is more likely to be of primary concern in the context of what your Disaster Recovery Plan would include?

Options:

A.

Marketing/Public relations

B.

Data/Telecomm/IS facilities

C.

IS Operations

D.

Facilities security

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Questions 225

Which of the following backup sites is the most effective for disaster recovery?

Options:

A.

Time brokers

B.

Hot sites

C.

Cold sites

D.

Reciprocal Agreement

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Questions 226

Which of the following would BEST be defined as an absence or weakness of safeguard that could be exploited?

Options:

A.

A threat

B.

A vulnerability

C.

A risk

D.

An exposure

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Questions 227

Which of the following best describes what would be expected at a " hot site " ?

Options:

A.

Computers, climate control, cables and peripherals

B.

Computers and peripherals

C.

Computers and dedicated climate control systems.

D.

Dedicated climate control systems

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Questions 228

Which backup method only copies files that have been recently added or changed and also leaves the archive bit unchanged?

Options:

A.

Full backup method

B.

Incremental backup method

C.

Fast backup method

D.

Differential backup method

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Questions 229

What is the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)?

Options:

A.

Maximum elapsed time required to complete recovery of application data

B.

Minimum elapsed time required to complete recovery of application data

C.

Maximum elapsed time required to move back to primary site after a major disruption

D.

It is maximum delay businesses can tolerate and still remain viable

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Questions 230

Which of the following statements pertaining to disk mirroring is incorrect?

Options:

A.

Mirroring offers better performance in read operations but writing hinders system performance.

B.

Mirroring is a hardware-based solution only.

C.

Mirroring offers a higher fault tolerance than parity.

D.

Mirroring is usually the less cost-effective solution.

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Questions 231

Why would a memory dump be admissible as evidence in court?

Options:

A.

Because it is used to demonstrate the truth of the contents.

B.

Because it is used to identify the state of the system.

C.

Because the state of the memory cannot be used as evidence.

D.

Because of the exclusionary rule.

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Questions 232

In which of the following phases of system development life cycle (SDLC) is contingency planning most important?

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Development/acquisition

C.

Implementation

D.

Operation/maintenance

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Questions 233

To protect and/or restore lost, corrupted, or deleted information, thereby preserving the data integrity and availability is the purpose of:

Options:

A.

Remote journaling.

B.

Database shadowing.

C.

A tape backup method.

D.

Mirroring.

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Questions 234

Which of the following statements pertaining to the maintenance of an IT contingency plan is incorrect?

Options:

A.

The plan should be reviewed at least once a year for accuracy and completeness.

B.

The Contingency Planning Coordinator should make sure that every employee gets an up-to-date copy of the plan.

C.

Strict version control should be maintained.

D.

Copies of the plan should be provided to recovery personnel for storage offline at home and office.

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Questions 235

What is the PRIMARY goal of incident handling?

Options:

A.

Successfully retrieve all evidence that can be used to prosecute

B.

Improve the company ' s ability to be prepared for threats and disasters

C.

Improve the company ' s disaster recovery plan

D.

Contain and repair any damage caused by an event.

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Questions 236

Under United States law, an investigator ' s notebook may be used in court in which of the following scenarios?

Options:

A.

When the investigator is unwilling to testify.

B.

When other forms of physical evidence are not available.

C.

To refresh the investigators memory while testifying.

D.

If the defense has no objections.

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Questions 237

Out of the steps listed below, which one is not one of the steps conducted during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Alternate site selection

B.

Create data-gathering techniques

C.

Identify the company’s critical business functions

D.

Select individuals to interview for data gathering

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Questions 238

Which of the following is the most complete disaster recovery plan test type, to be performed after successfully completing the Parallel test?

Options:

A.

Full Interruption test

B.

Checklist test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Structured walk-through test

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Questions 239

Contracts and agreements are often times unenforceable or hard to enforce in which of the following alternate facility recovery agreement?

Options:

A.

hot site

B.

warm site

C.

cold site

D.

reciprocal agreement

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Questions 240

Which of the following groups represents the leading source of computer crime losses?

Options:

A.

Hackers

B.

Industrial saboteurs

C.

Foreign intelligence officers

D.

Employees

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Questions 241

Which of the following rules pertaining to a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan is incorrect?

Options:

A.

In order to facilitate recovery, a single plan should cover all locations.

B.

There should be requirements to form a committee to decide a course of action. These decisions should be made ahead of time and incorporated into the plan.

C.

In its procedures and tasks, the plan should refer to functions, not specific individuals.

D.

Critical vendors should be contacted ahead of time to validate equipment can be obtained in a timely manner.

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Questions 242

A momentary power outage is a:

Options:

A.

spike

B.

blackout

C.

surge

D.

fault

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Questions 243

Which of the following protection devices is used for spot protection within a few inches of the object, rather than for overall room security monitoring?

Options:

A.

Wave pattern motion detectors

B.

Capacitance detectors

C.

Field-powered devices

D.

Audio detectors

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Questions 244

Passwords can be required to change monthly, quarterly, or at other intervals:

Options:

A.

depending on the criticality of the information needing protection

B.

depending on the criticality of the information needing protection and the password ' s frequency of use

C.

depending on the password ' s frequency of use

D.

not depending on the criticality of the information needing protection but depending on the password ' s frequency of use

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Questions 245

Which of the following would be an example of the best password?

Options:

A.

golf001

B.

Elizabeth

C.

T1me4g0lF

D.

password

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Questions 246

What physical characteristic does a retinal scan biometric device measure?

Options:

A.

The amount of light reaching the retina

B.

The amount of light reflected by the retina

C.

The pattern of light receptors at the back of the eye

D.

The pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye

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Questions 247

Controls to keep password sniffing attacks from compromising computer systems include which of the following?

Options:

A.

static and recurring passwords.

B.

encryption and recurring passwords.

C.

one-time passwords and encryption.

D.

static and one-time passwords.

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Questions 248

Which of the following statements pertaining to biometrics is false?

Options:

A.

Increased system sensitivity can cause a higher false rejection rate

B.

The crossover error rate is the point at which false rejection rate equals the false acceptance rate.

C.

False acceptance rate is also known as Type II error.

D.

Biometrics are based on the Type 2 authentication mechanism.

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Questions 249

What is one disadvantage of content-dependent protection of information?

Options:

A.

It increases processing overhead.

B.

It requires additional password entry.

C.

It exposes the system to data locking.

D.

It limits the user ' s individual address space.

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Questions 250

In stateful inspection firewalls, packets are:

Options:

A.

Inspected at only one layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model

B.

Inspected at all Open System Interconnection (OSI) layers

C.

Decapsulated at all Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) layers.

D.

Encapsulated at all Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) layers.

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Questions 251

In a SSL session between a client and a server, who is responsible for generating the master secret that will be used as a seed to generate the symmetric keys that will be used during the session?

Options:

A.

Both client and server

B.

The client ' s browser

C.

The web server

D.

The merchant ' s Certificate Server

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Questions 252

Which of the following packets should NOT be dropped at a firewall protecting an organization ' s internal network?

Options:

A.

Inbound packets with Source Routing option set

B.

Router information exchange protocols

C.

Inbound packets with an internal address as the source IP address

D.

Outbound packets with an external destination IP address

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Questions 253

Which layer of the DoD TCP/IP Model ensures error-free delivery and packet sequencing?

Options:

A.

Internet layer

B.

Network access layer

C.

Host-to-host

D.

Application layer

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Questions 254

Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) and Secure HTTP (S-HTTP) operate at which layer of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

Application Layer.

B.

Transport Layer.

C.

Session Layer.

D.

Network Layer.

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Questions 255

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) interrogates the network by sending out a?

Options:

A.

broadcast.

B.

multicast.

C.

unicast.

D.

semicast.

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Questions 256

Which of the following is NOT true about IPSec Tunnel mode?

Options:

A.

Fundamentally an IP tunnel with encryption and authentication

B.

Works at the Transport layer of the OSI model

C.

Have two sets of IP headers

D.

Established for gateway service

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Questions 257

Which OSI/ISO layer is the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer part of?

Options:

A.

Transport layer

B.

Network layer

C.

Data link layer

D.

Physical layer

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Questions 258

As per RFC 1122, which of the following is not a defined layer in the DoD TCP/IP protocol model?

Options:

A.

Application layer

B.

Session layer

C.

Internet layer

D.

Link/Network Access Layer

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Questions 259

Which of the following is true related to network sniffing?

Options:

A.

Sniffers allow an attacker to monitor data passing across a network.

B.

Sniffers alter the source address of a computer to disguise and exploit weak authentication methods.

C.

Sniffers take over network connections.

D.

Sniffers send IP fragments to a system that overlap with each other.

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Questions 260

The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 1, what type of data is contained within the IP datagram?

Options:

A.

TCP.

B.

ICMP.

C.

UDP.

D.

IGMP.

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Questions 261

Which of the following services relies on UDP?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

Telnet

C.

DNS

D.

SMTP

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Questions 262

Within the OSI model, at what layer are some of the SLIP, CSLIP, PPP control functions provided?

Options:

A.

Data Link

B.

Transport

C.

Presentation

D.

Application

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Questions 263

Asynchronous Communication transfers data by sending:

Options:

A.

bits of data sequentially

B.

bits of data sequentially in irregular timing patterns

C.

bits of data in sync with a heartbeat or clock

D.

bits of data simultaneously

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Questions 264

Unshielded Twisted Pair cabling is a:

Options:

A.

four-pair wire medium that is used in a variety of networks.

B.

three-pair wire medium that is used in a variety of networks.

C.

two-pair wire medium that is used in a variety of networks.

D.

one-pair wire medium that is used in a variety of networks.

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Questions 265

What enables a workstation to boot without requiring a hard or floppy disk drive?

Options:

A.

Bootstrap Protocol (BootP).

B.

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

C.

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

D.

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR).

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Questions 266

Which of the following statements pertaining to IPSec is incorrect?

Options:

A.

IPSec can help in protecting networks from some of the IP network attacks.

B.

IPSec provides confidentiality and integrity to information transferred over IP networks through transport layer encryption and authentication.

C.

IPSec protects against man-in-the-middle attacks.

D.

IPSec protects against spoofing.

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Questions 267

Which OSI/ISO layer does a SOCKS server operate at?

Options:

A.

Session layer

B.

Transport layer

C.

Network layer

D.

Data link layer

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Questions 268

All hosts on an IP network have a logical ID called a(n):

Options:

A.

IP address.

B.

MAC address.

C.

TCP address.

D.

Datagram address.

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Questions 269

Similar to Secure Shell (SSH-2), Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses symmetric encryption for encrypting the bulk of the data being sent over the session and it uses asymmetric or public key cryptography for:

Options:

A.

Peer Authentication

B.

Peer Identification

C.

Server Authentication

D.

Name Resolution

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Questions 270

Authentication Headers (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocols are the driving force of IPSec. Authentication Headers (AH) provides the following service except:

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Integrity

C.

Replay resistance and non-repudiations

D.

Confidentiality

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Questions 271

The Logical Link Control sub-layer is a part of which of the following?

Options:

A.

The ISO/OSI Data Link layer

B.

The Reference monitor

C.

The Transport layer of the TCP/IP stack model

D.

Change management control

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Questions 272

Which of the following is a token-passing scheme like token ring that also has a second ring that remains dormant until an error condition is detected on the primary ring?

Options:

A.

Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI).

B.

Ethernet

C.

Fast Ethernet

D.

Broadband

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Questions 273

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or shortcoming of packet filtering gateways?

Options:

A.

The source and destination addresses, protocols, and ports contained in the IP packet header are the only information that is available to the router in making a decision whether or not to permit traffic access to an internal network.

B.

They don ' t protect against IP or DNS address spoofing.

C.

They do not support strong user authentication.

D.

They are appropriate for medium-risk environment.

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Questions 274

Which of the following statements is NOT true of IPSec Transport mode?

Options:

A.

It is required for gateways providing access to internal systems

B.

Set-up when end-point is host or communications terminates at end-points

C.

If used in gateway-to-host communication, gateway must act as host

D.

When ESP is used for the security protocol, the hash is only applied to the upper layer protocols contained in the packet

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Questions 275

Telnet and rlogin use which protocol?

Options:

A.

UDP.

B.

SNMP.

C.

TCP.

D.

IGP.

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Questions 276

Which of the following would be used to detect and correct errors so that integrity and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained while preventing unauthorize interception of the traffic?

Options:

A.

Information security

B.

Server security

C.

Client security

D.

Communications security

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Exam Code: SSCP
Exam Name: Systems Security Certified Practitioner
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 1074

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