XK0-006 CompTIA Linux+ V8 Exam Questions and Answers

In the context of Linux automation and orchestration, playbooks are most commonly associated with configuration management tools such as Ansible, which is explicitly referenced in the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. Playbooks are written in YAML and are designed to define a series of tasks, configurations, and desired system states that should be applied to one or more Linux systems in a repeatable and automated manner.

A primary use case for playbooks is application deployment and system configuration automation. Playbooks allow administrators to specify tasks such as installing packages, configuring services, managing users, setting permissions, deploying application files, and starting or enabling services. This aligns directly with option A, which accurately describes playbooks as a method to provide a set of tasks and configurations required to deploy an application consistently across environments.

The remaining options are not accurate representations of playbook functionality. Option B refers to version control implementation, which is handled by tools like Git and is not the purpose of playbooks themselves, although playbooks may be stored in version control systems. Option C describes container security information, which is typically managed through container runtime configurations, secrets, or security policies rather than playbooks. Option D refers to storage volume information for a pod, which is specific to Kubernetes manifests and not a general Linux playbook use case.

According to Linux+ V8 documentation, automation tools and playbooks help reduce human error, improve consistency, and support Infrastructure as Code (IaC) practices. Playbooks are a key mechanism for orchestrating multi-step operations across multiple systems, making them essential for modern Linux system administration.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it best describes the practical and documented use case for playbooks in a Linux system.

Kernel module management is an important part of Linux system administration and is covered in the Linux+ V8 objectives. When an administrator needs to determine metadata about a kernel module—such as its version, author, description, license, filename, and dependencies—the correct tool is modinfo.

The command modinfo bluetooth displays detailed information about the specified kernel module, including the module version if it is defined. This makes it the correct and intended command for retrieving version details of kernel modules, whether or not the module is currently loaded.

The other options are incorrect. modprobe bluetooth is used to load or unload kernel modules and does not display version information. lsmod lists loaded modules but does not show version details and does not accept module names as arguments in that manner. depmod is used to generate module dependency information and does not provide module metadata to the administrator.

Linux+ V8 documentation specifically references modinfo as the utility for inspecting kernel module properties. This command is essential for troubleshooting driver issues, verifying compatibility, and auditing kernel components.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. modinfo bluetooth.

Security compliance and vulnerability management are critical components of Linux system administration, and CompTIA Linux+ V8 places strong emphasis on automated security assessment tools. OpenSCAP is specifically designed to address these requirements.

OpenSCAP is an open-source framework that implements the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP), a set of standards used for automated vulnerability scanning, configuration compliance checking, and security auditing. It allows administrators to assess Linux systems against established security baselines such as CIS benchmarks, DISA STIGs, and organizational security policies. This makes OpenSCAP the most appropriate tool for automating both compliance and vulnerability management.

The other options serve different security-related purposes but do not fulfill the automation requirement. SELinux is a mandatory access control system that enforces security policies at runtime but does not perform compliance scanning or vulnerability assessments. Nmap is a network scanning and discovery tool used to identify open ports and services, not compliance automation. AIDE (Advanced Intrusion Detection Environment) is a file integrity monitoring tool that detects unauthorized file changes but does not evaluate overall system compliance.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights OpenSCAP as a tool used to automate security audits, generate compliance reports, and integrate with configuration management workflows. Its ability to standardize security checks across multiple systems makes it essential in enterprise and regulated environments.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. OpenSCAP.

Log management is a critical system management function highlighted in CompTIA Linux+ V8, particularly in multi-server environments. As the number of systems and applications grows, managing logs locally on each server becomes inefficient and error-prone.

The best solution is to implement a centralized log aggregation solution, making option B correct. Centralized logging collects logs from multiple systems and applications into a single, secure location. This simplifies monitoring, searching, correlation, auditing, and incident response. Common solutions include syslog servers, ELK/EFK stacks, and SIEM platforms.

Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes centralized logging as a best practice for availability, troubleshooting, and security analysis. It enables administrators to detect patterns, investigate incidents, and maintain compliance more effectively than isolated log files.

The other options are insufficient on their own. On-demand retrieval does not scale well. Log backups protect data but do not simplify analysis. Log rotation manages disk usage but does not address distributed log complexity.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Implement a centralized log aggregation solution.

Firewall configuration is a key topic in the Security domain of CompTIA Linux+ V8. DNS primarily uses UDP port 53, but TCP port 53 is also required for zone transfers, large responses, and certain reliability scenarios. In this case, the administrator explicitly needs to allow DNS over TCP from a specific network.

The correct command is ufw allow 53/tcp from 10.0.0.0/24. This rule allows incoming TCP traffic on port 53 only from the specified subnet, following the principle of least privilege. Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes restricting firewall rules by source network whenever possible to minimize attack surfaces.

Option A is incorrect because UFW service aliases like dns are not always guaranteed to map explicitly to TCP, and the syntax is incomplete. Option B is invalid because ufw enable is used to enable the firewall globally and does not define rules. Option D disables firewall protections and introduces a major security risk.

Linux+ V8 best practices stress precise, minimal firewall rules instead of broad or disabling actions. Therefore, C is the correct and secure choice.

This scenario falls under the Security domain of the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives and focuses on system hardening and service minimization. The Nmap scan output reveals that port 23 (Telnet) is open on the system, which represents a significant security risk.

Telnet is an insecure, legacy protocol that transmits authentication credentials and session data in plaintext, making it vulnerable to interception through packet sniffing or man-in-the-middle attacks. Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly emphasizes the principle of least functionality, which states that unnecessary or insecure services should be disabled and removed entirely rather than merely restricted.

Option D, disabling and removing the Telnet service on the server, is the best and most secure solution. This action eliminates the vulnerable service completely, ensuring that it cannot be exploited internally or externally. In secure Linux environments, Telnet should be replaced with SSH, which provides encrypted communication and strong authentication mechanisms.

Option A, blocking port 23 with a firewall, reduces exposure but does not eliminate the underlying risk. If the firewall rules are misconfigured or bypassed, the Telnet service would still be available. Linux+ V8 best practices recommend removing insecure services rather than relying solely on perimeter controls.

Option B is unrelated, as changing passwords does not address the risk of plaintext credential transmission. Option C is incorrect because closing ports at the network switch level is not an appropriate or scalable solution for host-level service hardening and does not address internal access risks.

Linux+ V8 documentation consistently highlights service auditing, port scanning, and removal of insecure protocols as essential system hardening steps. Therefore, the most effective and secure remediation is to disable and remove the Telnet service.

When troubleshooting name resolution issues in Linux, /etc/hosts entries take precedence over DNS lookups. The workstation’s /etc/hosts file contains the line:

CopyEdit

104.18.99.101 www.comptia.org

This means any attempt to access www.comptia.org will resolve to 104.18.99.101, regardless of the real DNS response. However, both dig and nslookup show the correct IP as 104.18.16.29. Because the local /etc/hosts entry overrides DNS, and the hardcoded IP is either incorrect or unreachable, all network traffic to www.comptia.org will fail or not reach the intended destination, resulting in the observed connectivity issue (Destination Host Unreachable).

Other options:

B. The lack of IPv6 support is irrelevant since the host is using IPv4 and the DNS queries for IPv4 (A record) are successful.

C. The firewall would block all HTTP/HTTPS connections, but the error shown is a host unreachable, not a port-specific issue.

D. The nameserver is working; both dig and nslookup queries succeed and return the correct A record.

Password management is a core topic in the Security domain of CompTIA Linux+ V8. Password expiry policies are implemented to reduce the risk associated with long-lived credentials.

The primary reason for enforcing password expiration is to mitigate the risk of exposed or compromised passwords. If a password is leaked through phishing, malware, keylogging, or data breaches, limiting its lifespan reduces the window of opportunity for attackers to exploit it. Requiring periodic password changes ensures that compromised credentials eventually become invalid.

Option B correctly captures this security objective. Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes minimizing credential exposure as a key principle of access control.

The other options are secondary or incorrect. Avoiding password reuse and increasing complexity are addressed through password history and complexity policies, not expiration alone. Password expiry does not force passwordless authentication, making option C incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. To mitigate the use of exposed passwords.

This scenario involves Linux file attributes and falls under the System Management domain of the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. Although the administrator is operating as the root user, the system prevents the file from being modified. This behavior indicates that standard UNIX permissions are not the root cause of the problem.

The critical clue is provided by the lsattr /etc/resolv.conf output, which shows the immutable (i) attribute set on the file. When a file is marked immutable, it cannot be modified, deleted, renamed, or written to by any user, including root. This restriction overrides normal file permissions and ownership settings.

The chattr command is used to modify extended file attributes on Linux filesystems such as ext4. The option -i specifically removes the immutable attribute, restoring the file’s ability to be edited. Therefore, running chattr -i /etc/resolv.conf allows the administrator to open and modify the file successfully.

The other options do not resolve the issue. chown root changes file ownership, but the file is already owned by root. chmod 750 modifies permission bits, but permissions are ignored when the immutable attribute is set. chgrp root changes the group ownership, which also has no effect when immutability is enforced.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights immutable files as a security and stability feature, commonly used to protect critical configuration files from accidental or unauthorized changes. Administrators must explicitly remove this attribute before making modifications.

Therefore, the correct command to allow editing the file is B. chattr -i /etc/resolv.conf.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To add a new physical disk to LVM, the disk must first be initialized as a physical volume using the pvcreate command. This prepares the new disk for use by the LVM subsystem. After initializing with pvcreate, you would use vgextend to add the new physical volume to an existing volume group.

Other options:

A. vgextend adds a physical volume to a volume group, but you must use pvcreate first.

B. lvextend is used to increase the size of a logical volume, not to add a new disk.

D. pvresize is used to resize an existing physical volume, not to create one.

Python 3 characteristics are part of Linux+ V8 scripting objectives. One of Python’s most important features is its modular and extensible architecture.

Option B is correct because Python 3 supports extensibility through modules and packages. Python includes a large standard library and allows developers to extend functionality using third-party modules or custom code. This makes Python highly adaptable for automation, system management, and DevOps tasks.

The other options are incorrect. Python is open source, not closed source. Python 3 is not fully backwards compatible with Python 2, which is a major distinction emphasized in Linux+ V8. Python is also not binary compatible with Java.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights Python’s extensibility as a key reason it is widely used in Linux automation. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

This scenario clearly indicates a memory exhaustion condition, which falls under the Troubleshooting domain of the CompTIA Linux+ V8 objectives. The most critical clue is the log entry stating that mysqld invoked oom-killer.

The OOM (Out-Of-Memory) killer is a Linux kernel mechanism that activates when the system runs critically low on available memory and cannot satisfy memory allocation requests. When this happens, the kernel selects a process—typically one consuming a large amount of memory—and forcibly terminates it to protect overall system stability. In this case, the MySQL daemon (mysqld) was identified as the process responsible for triggering the OOM condition.

The journalctl output explicitly confirms this behavior. Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes that when the OOM killer is invoked, it is almost always due to physical memory exhaustion or insufficient swap space, not user intervention or application bugs alone. The additional log line showing mems_allowed=0 further supports the conclusion that the process could not allocate memory from available memory nodes.

The fact that uptime -p reports only 2 minutes of uptime strongly suggests that the system was either rebooted automatically or manually following the memory exhaustion event. Systems may reboot as part of recovery procedures after severe resource exhaustion, especially in production environments.

The other options can be ruled out. There is no indication of a user-initiated kill signal, filesystem corruption, or network connectivity issues. Network outages would not generate OOM killer messages, and filesystem errors would appear as I/O or disk-related errors in the logs.

Linux+ V8 best practices recommend addressing OOM issues by increasing system memory, tuning MySQL memory parameters, configuring swap space, or adjusting OOM scoring.

Therefore, the correct explanation is A. The process exhausted server memory.

Process scheduling and resource management are essential Linux administration skills covered in Linux+ V8. When a process consumes excessive CPU resources, it can negatively impact overall system performance.

The correct solution is to lower the priority of the CPU-intensive task using the renice command. Niceness values influence how much CPU time a process receives relative to others. Increasing the niceness value reduces the process’s priority, allowing other applications to receive CPU resources more fairly.

Option B directly addresses the issue. The other options do not. pidstat monitors processes but does not modify CPU allocation. nohup allows a process to continue running after logout but does not affect scheduling priority. bg resumes a stopped job in the background but does not reduce CPU usage.

Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly references nice and renice for managing CPU contention. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

User account information is centrally stored in the system’s account databases, and Linux+ V8 emphasizes the use of standard tools to query this data safely and consistently.

The getent passwd accounting command retrieves the user’s entry from the passwd database, which may be sourced from local files or network services such as LDAP. This entry includes the username, user ID (UID), group ID (GID), home directory, and assigned login shell. Therefore, option A provides all the requested information in a single command.

Option B, id accounting, displays the UID and group memberships but does not show the home directory or assigned shell. Option C is incorrect because /etc/shadow contains password hashes and expiration data, not shell or home directory information. Option D, who accounting, only shows login sessions and does not provide account configuration details.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights getent passwd as the preferred method for retrieving comprehensive user account information because it works across different authentication backends.

Thus, the correct answer is A.

System boot performance analysis is an important system management task included in Linux+ V8. When administrators need to determine how long services take to start during boot, systemd analysis tools are required.

The correct command is systemd-analyze blame. This command lists all systemd services and shows how long each one took to initialize during the boot process. It is commonly used to identify slow-starting services that may impact system startup performance, including NetworkManager.

The other options are incorrect. resolvectl is used for DNS resolution management and provides no service timing information. journalctl can display logs but does not provide a clear, summarized service startup timing report. systemctl daemon-reload only reloads systemd unit files and does not perform analysis.

Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly references systemd-analyze blame as the correct tool for diagnosing service startup delays. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Comprehensive and Detailed 250 to 350 words of Explanation From Linux+ V8 documents:

Securing dormant or temporarily unused user accounts is a best practice emphasized in the Security domain of CompTIA Linux+ V8. When a user goes on extended leave, the goal is to prevent unauthorized access while preserving the user’s data and account for future use.

The most effective approach is to disable authentication and interactive login access without deleting the account. Option D, running passwd -l user, locks the user’s password by prepending an invalid character to the encrypted password in /etc/shadow. This prevents password-based authentication while retaining the account, files, and ownership information. Linux+ V8 documentation highlights password locking as a standard method for temporarily disabling accounts.

Option F, changing the user’s shell to /sbin/nologin, further strengthens account security by preventing interactive shell access entirely. Even if another authentication mechanism were attempted, the user would be denied a login shell. This is a common defense-in-depth measure and is explicitly referenced in Linux+ V8 objectives for access control and account hardening.

The other options are incorrect or inappropriate. Option A (immutable files) does not prevent account access and may interfere with system operations. Option B defeats the purpose of securing an inactive account. Option C deletes user data, which is unnecessary and risky. Option E has no security effect, as filesystem timestamps do not control access.

Linux+ V8 stresses that secure account management should be reversible, auditable, and minimally disruptive. Locking the password and disabling the login shell meet these criteria and are commonly used together in enterprise environments.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The chown command is used to change the owner and group of files and directories. The -R (recursive) flag ensures that all contents within the directory are also updated. The correct syntax is chown -R owner:group directory. So, chown -R Ansible:Ansible /opt/Ansible will change the owner and group for /opt/Ansible and everything inside it to "Ansible".

Other options:

A. groupmod is used to modify group properties, not ownership of directories or files.

C. usermod is for modifying user properties or group memberships.

D. chmod changes permissions, not owner/group.

Network configuration changes can cause immediate loss of connectivity if applied incorrectly. Linux+ V8 emphasizes safe configuration practices, particularly when managing remote systems.

The netplan try command applies network configuration changes temporarily and prompts the administrator to confirm them within a timeout period. If the administrator does not confirm, Netplan automatically rolls back to the previous working configuration. This prevents accidental outages caused by misconfigured network settings.

The netplan apply command makes changes permanent immediately and does not provide rollback protection. The other options are not valid Netplan commands.

Linux+ V8 documentation explicitly references netplan try as a safe testing mechanism. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

In Git-based workflows, especially those used in DevOps environments, it is common for administrators to have uncommitted local changes while needing to retrieve updates from a remote repository. Linux+ V8 emphasizes understanding how to safely manage local modifications during synchronization operations.

The command git stash is specifically designed for this scenario. It temporarily saves (or “stashes”) local changes in a stack-like structure and reverts the working directory to a clean state that matches the current HEAD. This allows the administrator to perform operations such as git pull without conflicts. Later, the stashed changes can be reapplied using git stash apply or git stash pop.

The other options are incorrect. git pull retrieves and merges remote changes but will fail or cause conflicts if local modifications exist. git merge combines branches and does not save uncommitted changes. git fetch downloads remote references but does not address local working directory changes.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights git stash as a safe and reversible way to protect local work during repository updates. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The kill command is used to send signals to processes. The -9 option sends the SIGKILL signal, which immediately terminates the process and cannot be caught or ignored by the process. This is used as a last resort when a process is not responding to the default (SIGTERM, -15) or other signals. The SIGKILL signal guarantees termination.

Other options:

A. Default kill sends SIGTERM (-15), which requests a graceful shutdown but can be ignored.

B. -1 sends SIGHUP, used to reload configuration, not terminate.

D. -15 sends SIGTERM, not guaranteed to kill an unresponsive process.

Container orchestration concepts are part of the Automation and Orchestration domain in Linux+ V8. In Kubernetes, workloads run inside Pods, but Pods are not directly accessible from outside the cluster.

To expose an application externally, a Service resource must be created. Services provide a stable network endpoint and can be configured as NodePort, LoadBalancer, or ClusterIP. Public exposure is typically achieved using NodePort or LoadBalancer types.

Option C, Service, is correct. Deployments manage Pods, but they do not handle networking exposure. Pods represent running containers but lack external accessibility by default. “Network” is not a valid Kubernetes resource type.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights Services as the mechanism for exposing containerized applications. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Shell variable expansion is a fundamental scripting concept included in Linux+ V8 objectives. In Bash and similar shells, variables are expanded only when they are interpreted within double quotes or unquoted contexts, and sometimes explicit syntax is required to avoid ambiguity.

The correct notation is ${num}, as shown in option D. Using curly braces around the variable name ensures the shell correctly identifies the variable boundary, especially when it is adjacent to other characters. This guarantees proper expansion of the variable’s value.

The other options are incorrect. Single quotes prevent variable expansion entirely. The $(...) syntax is used for command substitution, not variable expansion. Quoting the variable name itself also prevents expansion.

Linux+ V8 documentation emphasizes ${VAR} notation as a best practice in shell scripting for clarity and correctness. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Webhooks are commonly used in automation and DevOps workflows, which are emphasized in the Linux+ V8 objectives. A webhook is best described as an HTTP-based callback mechanism that allows one system to notify another when a specific event occurs.

Option D correctly defines a webhook. Instead of polling an API at regular intervals, a webhook allows an application to automatically send an HTTP request—typically a POST—to a predefined URL when an event happens. This makes webhooks efficient, event-driven, and well-suited for automation pipelines, CI/CD systems, and monitoring integrations.

The other options are incorrect. Option A confuses webhooks with authentication mechanisms. Option B incorrectly associates webhooks with SNMP, which is a separate protocol. Option C is misleading because webhooks are not inherently designed for transmitting sensitive data and require additional security measures such as TLS and authentication.

Linux+ V8 documentation highlights webhooks as a key integration method in automated environments, enabling systems to react in real time to changes or triggers.

Therefore, the correct answer is D.