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ZTCA Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Questions and Answers

Questions 4

If an enterprise is protecting its services at a network level, such as using firewalls, what happens to that protection when a user leaves the network? (Select 2)

Options:

A.

The initiator will not have access to the service.

B.

Network access is maintained via TCP keepalive messages.

C.

Users will continue to be able to access services via the internet.

D.

A path from initiator to the network must be put in place, for example VPN.

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Questions 5

Connections to destination applications are the same, regardless of location or function.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False, each application, whether internal or external, trusted or untrusted, must be considered for connectivity based on the risk profile and risk acceptance of each enterprise.

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Questions 6

Assessing, calculating, and delivering a risk score is: (Select 2)

Options:

A.

An assessment of inline and out-of-band network traffic.

B.

A review of known configuration, and the absence of other configuration details, of cloud-hosted services in relation to best practices, industry standards, and compliance models to ensure misconfigurations, issues, and vulnerabilities are understood and highlighted.

C.

An assessment of the content, not just the connection, of services, so that malicious functions are not downloaded and protected information is not lost.

D.

Only focused on initiator context.

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Questions 7

Where is it most effective to assess the content of a connection?

Options:

A.

At the policy enforcement point, as close to an initiator as possible, for example the closest edge.

B.

Within a data center deployed in a one-armed concentrator mode.

C.

On disk, after first being copied several times for a backup.

D.

Within an ISP’s fiber backbone.

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Questions 8

Cloud infrastructure security posture, as well as cloud infrastructure user entitlements, can help contribute to a determination of connection risk; these are typically determined via:

Options:

A.

Automated DevOps pipelines.

B.

API integrations between the Zero Trust platform and the major cloud providers.

C.

Multi-factor authentication.

D.

Premium cloud provider subscriptions.

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Questions 9

What types of attributes can be used to assess whether access is risky? (Select 2)

Options:

A.

The endpoint operating system of the initiator.

B.

An analysis of device posture to examine attributes such as domain joined status, a certificate, whether the device has AV/EDR installed, and whether the device is running disk encryption.

C.

Leveraging APIs available on the Layer 3 devices on the network to scan for malicious services or hosts in the environment.

D.

Seeing patterns in user behavior around things such as blocked malware downloads and blocked access to phishing sites.

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Questions 10

Which crucial step occurs during the “Enforce Policy” stage?

Options:

A.

Connecting an initiator to internal and external applications from the Zero Trust Exchange.

B.

A handshake between the initiator and destination application.

C.

The setup of an enterprise SSO or AD server for credential validation.

D.

Verification of identity and context of the connection.

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Questions 11

The second part of a Zero Trust architecture after verifying identity and context is:

Options:

A.

Controlling content and access.

B.

Re-checking the SAML assertion.

C.

Enforcing policy.

D.

Microsegmentation.

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Questions 12

There can be different types of initiators in a Zero Trust model, including:

Options:

A.

IP addresses and port numbers.

B.

Devices, IoT/OT, and workloads.

C.

Known TCP sockets.

D.

A walled garden for limiting access to certain IPs.

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Questions 13

There are three sections that make up a successful Zero Trust architecture: (1) Verify Identity and Context, (2) Control Content and Access, and (3) ______.

Options:

A.

Integration with an SSO provider.

B.

SAML- and SCIM-based authentication for assessing posture.

C.

Enforce Policy.

D.

Data Loss Prevention.

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Questions 14

Content inspection of encrypted content at scale is widely available on most network-based security platforms, such as firewalls, to deploy.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 15

By definition, Zero Trust connections are:

Options:

A.

Independent of any network for control or trust.

B.

Highly dependent on the network type, including whether that network is IPv4 or IPv6.

C.

Based purely on a network appliance, constrained by how much CPU may be available.

D.

Hairpinned through service chaining by an SD-WAN appliance.

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Questions 16

Connections approved by the Zero Trust Exchange must then enable permanent network-level access for at least 30 days.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 17

Businesses undertake ________ to increase efficiency, improve agility, and achieve a competitive advantage.

Options:

A.

Digital transformation journeys

B.

Blue teaming exercises

C.

Red teaming exercises

D.

Disaster recovery planning

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Questions 18

Why have traditional networks relied on implicit trust to connect initiators to workloads?

Options:

A.

Security breaches were historically less frequent.

B.

TCP/IP, the foundation of most networks, inherently favors connectivity over trust.

C.

It was easier to create direct P2P links between all devices, providing connectivity for rapid-downloading applications like BitTorrent and file sharing.

D.

Layer 3 ACLs are sufficient for blocking untrusted initiators.

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Questions 19

The only way to deploy inspection is to inspect all traffic. Technically speaking, at an architectural level, there is no way to have exceptions, such as for certain websites or for certain types of applications.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 20

As a part of the first section of Zero Trust, Verify Identity, we understand the who, the what, and the where, in order to:

Options:

A.

Revoke network access to unauthorized users, devices, and workloads.

B.

Provide a secure set of controls for the initiator, requiring the initiator to go through layers of validation as they attempt to access an application.

C.

Provide proper billing by counting the number of deployed end users within a customer’s environment.

D.

Provide disaster recovery and business continuity in a “black swan” event context.

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Questions 21

Zero Trust is about controlling initiator access. This is based on validating the identity of the user, and that is the sole attribute used to control access.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 22

Content stored within a SaaS/PaaS/IaaS location can be:

Options:

A.

100% trusted, as cloud providers make sure content is safe before it is uploaded.

B.

Considered risky until inspected, either through inline SSL/TLS controls or through assessing the files “at rest” using an out-of-band assessment.

C.

Partially trusted depending on whether you maintain a proper audit log for access.

D.

Should never be trusted.

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Exam Code: ZTCA
Exam Name: Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate
Last Update: Mar 11, 2026
Questions: 75

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