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ZTCA Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Identity is a binary decision, not to be revisited. Once a decision is made about who, what, and where, that is final for at least 48 hours.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 5

Why should an enterprise categorize applications as part of its secure digital transformation to a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

To build structured naming conventions for applications, for example Country:City:Location:Function.

B.

So that these can be stored in a CMDB (Configuration Management Database) system, which can be used as a policy enforcement plane for application traffic.

C.

To differentiate destination applications from each other, thus enabling the deployment of granular control from valid initiator to valid destination application.

D.

To know which ACLs to set on their firewall.

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Questions 6

The Zscaler Client Connector is:

Options:

A.

A device used to create a secure communication channel with a Web Application Firewall (WAF).

B.

A cloud-managed endpoint device via an MDM solution.

C.

An agent installed on the endpoint to tunnel authorized user traffic to the Zero Trust Exchange for protection of SaaS, private applications, and internet-bound traffic.

D.

A marketplace platform that connects different types of business clients to each other.

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Questions 7

Which crucial step occurs during the “Enforce Policy” stage?

Options:

A.

Connecting an initiator to internal and external applications from the Zero Trust Exchange.

B.

A handshake between the initiator and destination application.

C.

The setup of an enterprise SSO or AD server for credential validation.

D.

Verification of identity and context of the connection.

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Questions 8

To effectively access any external SaaS application managed by others, one must be securely connected through:

Options:

A.

A dynamic and effective path, ensuring beneficial experience and performance for the initiator.

B.

A hardwired network connection.

C.

A perimeter-based stateful network firewall, such as a security appliance.

D.

No means; the only access possible is via a special daemon running within the application space of the SaaS application itself.

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Questions 9

There are three sections that make up a successful Zero Trust architecture: (1) Verify Identity and Context, (2) Control Content and Access, and (3) ______.

Options:

A.

Integration with an SSO provider.

B.

SAML- and SCIM-based authentication for assessing posture.

C.

Enforce Policy.

D.

Data Loss Prevention.

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Questions 10

How is risky behavior controlled in a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

Permanent quarantining of devices in a particular VLAN.

B.

Re-categorization of an initiator, and their organization, so that subsequent access requests are limited, deceived, or stopped.

C.

Logging violations in a public database.

D.

Deploying best-in-class security appliances.

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Questions 11

When delivering policy to control access, if you want to allow an initiator to get access, but not expose them to a risky destination, which enforcement policies should be used?

Options:

A.

Conditionally allow [Isolate, Steer (if need be)].

B.

Physical quarantine of the user’s device.

C.

Provide time-based access.

D.

Block.

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Questions 12

Historically, initiators and destinations have shared which of the following?

Options:

A.

A network, because prior to Zero Trust there was no other way to connect the two.

B.

The same IP subnet range.

C.

The same punch card machine, pre-computer.

D.

Physical hard drives and storage.

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Questions 13

The second part of a Zero Trust architecture after verifying identity and context is:

Options:

A.

Controlling content and access.

B.

Re-checking the SAML assertion.

C.

Enforcing policy.

D.

Microsegmentation.

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Questions 14

Assessing risk is:

Options:

A.

A non-recurring process to determine how to treat requests from a specific initiator for the next 30 days.

B.

Universal control across the entire enterprise. Once assessed, risk applies to all traffic from that enterprise.

C.

An ongoing process to verify publicly known bad actor IP addresses.

D.

An assessment of all things related to the current connection, previous context, and considered on an ongoing basis for future requests, thus allowing for unique and dynamic changes in the consideration of risk.

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Questions 15

What is the security risk inherent in creating a split tunnel VPN, where some traffic is routed over the VPN tunnel and the rest over a direct internet connection?

Options:

A.

The VPN traffic is exempted from any security policies configured on the direct internet uplink router or appliance.

B.

You no longer have the visibility required to make decisions on those traffic flows that are going directly out to the internet.

C.

A split ACL list, which means only half the rules will be enforced.

D.

An issue between the built-in client VPN agent on most modern operating systems and a third-party VPN gateway upstream.

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Questions 16

If an enterprise is protecting its services at a network level, such as using firewalls, what happens to that protection when a user leaves the network? (Select 2)

Options:

A.

The initiator will not have access to the service.

B.

Network access is maintained via TCP keepalive messages.

C.

Users will continue to be able to access services via the internet.

D.

A path from initiator to the network must be put in place, for example VPN.

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Questions 17

The Zscaler Zero Trust Exchange has:

Options:

A.

Inspection controls only in limited core sites.

B.

Locations in few high-traffic geographic regions.

C.

Scalable inspection solutions at 150+ public locations and locally in private locations.

D.

Expanded its scope to try to provide the proof for Fermat’s Last Theorem.

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Questions 18

A Zero Trust network can be:

Options:

A.

Located anywhere.

B.

Built on IPv4 or IPv6.

C.

Built using VPN concentrators.

D.

Located anywhere and built on IPv4 or IPv6.

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Questions 19

There are alternative traffic forwarding methods to the Client Connector that leverage edge forwarding protocols to connect sites to the Zero Trust Exchange. Two of these protocols are:

Options:

A.

IPSec and GRE.

B.

Single Sign-On and Public Cloud Access.

C.

Security Appliance and Router.

D.

IPSec and IKEv2.

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Questions 20

What needs to be known to help inform policy decision enforcement?

Options:

A.

The time of day.

B.

The location and time zone of the initiator.

C.

Full context of the user, application, device posture, and related conditions.

D.

The verified identity of the initiator.

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Questions 21

Connections to destination applications are the same, regardless of location or function.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False, each application, whether internal or external, trusted or untrusted, must be considered for connectivity based on the risk profile and risk acceptance of each enterprise.

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Questions 22

There can be different types of initiators in a Zero Trust model, including:

Options:

A.

IP addresses and port numbers.

B.

Devices, IoT/OT, and workloads.

C.

Known TCP sockets.

D.

A walled garden for limiting access to certain IPs.

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Exam Code: ZTCA
Exam Name: Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate
Last Update: Jun 12, 2026
Questions: 75

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